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  • Coroutines in Java

    - by JUST MY correct OPINION
    I would like to do some stuff in Java that would be clearer if written using concurrent routines, but for which full-on threads are serious overkill. The answer, of course, is the use of coroutines, but there doesn't appear to be any coroutine support in the standard Java libraries and a quick Google on it brings up tantalising hints here or there, but nothing substantial. Here's what I've found so far: JSIM has a coroutine class, but it looks pretty heavyweight and conflates, seemingly, with threads at points. The point of this is to reduce the complexity of full-on threading, not to add to it. Further I'm not sure that the class can be extracted from the library and used independently. Xalan has a coroutine set class that does coroutine-like stuff, but again it's dubious if this can be meaningfully extracted from the overall library. It also looks like it's implemented as a tightly-controlled form of thread pool, not as actual coroutines. There's a Google Code project which looks like what I'm after, but if anything it looks more heavyweight than using threads would be. I'm basically nervous of something that requires software to dynamically change the JVM bytecode at runtime to do its work. This looks like overkill and like something that will cause more problems than coroutines would solve. Further it looks like it doesn't implement the whole coroutine concept. By my glance-over it gives a yield feature that just returns to the invoker. Proper coroutines allow yields to transfer control to any known coroutine directly. Basically this library, heavyweight and scary as it is, only gives you support for iterators, not fully-general coroutines. The promisingly-named Coroutine for Java fails because it's a platform-specific (obviously using JNI) solution. And that's about all I've found. I know about the native JVM support for coroutines in the Da Vinci Machine and I also know about the JNI continuations trick for doing this. These are not really good solutions for me, however, as I would not necessarily have control over which VM or platform my code would run on. (Indeed any bytecode manipulation system would suffer similar problems -- it would be best were this pure Java if possible. Runtime bytecode manipulation would restrict me from using this on Android, for example.) So does anybody have any pointers? Is this even possible? If not, will it be possible in Java 7?

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  • What is a proper way to store site-level global variables in a SharePoint site?

    - by ccomet
    One thing that has driven me nuts about SharePoint2007 is the apparent inability to have defineable settings that apply specifically to a site or site collection itself, and not the content. I mean, you have some pre-defined settings like the Site Logo, the Site Name, and various other things, but there doesn't appear to be anywhere to add new kinds of settings. The application I am working on needs to be able to create multiple kinds of "project site collections" that all follow a basic template, but have certain additional settings that apply specifically to that site collection and that one alone. In addition to the standard site name we also need to define the Project Number, the Project Name, and the Client Name. And given the requests of some of our clients, we also reach a point where we have to have configurable settings that alter how some of the workflows work, like whether files are marked with Letters or Numbers. Our current solution, which I'm hesitant about, has been to store an XML file on the SharePoint server. This file contains one node for each site collection, identified by the URL of the root site. Inside the node are all of the elements that need to be defined for that site collection. When we need them, we have to access the XML file (which will always require SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges to access files right on the server) every time to load it and retrieve the data. There are a lot of automated processes which will have to do this, and I'm hesitant about the stability of this method when we reach hundreds of sites with thousands of files running tens of thousands of workflows, all wanting to access this file. Maybe they're unfounded worries, but I'd rather worry than risk everything breaking in a couple years. I was looking into the SPWeb object and found the AllProperties hashtable. It looks like just the kind of thing which might work, but I don't know how safe it is to be modifying this. I read through both MSDN and the WSS SDK but found nothing that clarified on adding completely new properties into AllProperties. Is it safe to use AllProperties for this kind of thing? Or is there yet another feature that I am missing, which could handle the concept of global variables at the site collection or site scope?

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  • Using boost::iterator

    - by Neil G
    I wrote a sparse vector class (see #1, #2.) I would like to provide two kinds of iterators: The first set, the regular iterators, can point any element, whether set or unset. If they are read from, they return either the set value or value_type(), if they are written to, they create the element and return the lvalue reference. Thus, they are: Random Access Traversal Iterator and Readable and Writable Iterator The second set, the sparse iterators, iterate over only the set elements. Since they don't need to lazily create elements that are written to, they are: Random Access Traversal Iterator and Readable and Writable and Lvalue Iterator I also need const versions of both, which are not writable. I can fill in the blanks, but not sure how to use boost::iterator_adaptor to start out. Here's what I have so far: template<typename T> class sparse_vector { public: typedef size_t size_type; typedef T value_type; private: typedef T& true_reference; typedef const T* const_pointer; typedef sparse_vector<T> self_type; struct ElementType { ElementType(size_type i, T const& t): index(i), value(t) {} ElementType(size_type i, T&& t): index(i), value(t) {} ElementType(size_type i): index(i) {} ElementType(ElementType const&) = default; size_type index; value_type value; }; typedef vector<ElementType> array_type; public: typedef T* pointer; typedef T& reference; typedef const T& const_reference; private: size_type size_; mutable typename array_type::size_type sorted_filled_; mutable array_type data_; // lots of code for various algorithms... public: class sparse_iterator : public boost::iterator_adaptor< sparse_iterator // Derived , array_type::iterator // Base (the internal array) (this paramater does not compile! -- says expected a type, got 'std::vector::iterator'???) , boost::use_default // Value , boost::random_access_traversal_tag? // CategoryOrTraversal > class iterator_proxy { ??? }; class iterator : public boost::iterator_facade< iterator // Derived , ????? // Base , ????? // Value , boost::?????? // CategoryOrTraversal > { }; };

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  • Handling exceptions raised in observers

    - by sparky
    I have a Rails (2.3.5) application where there are many groups, and each Group has_many People. I have a Group edit form where users can create new people. When a new person is created, they are sent an email (the email address is user entered on the form). This is accomplished with an observer on the Person model. The problem comes when ActionMailer throws an exception - for example if the domain does not exist. Clearly that cannot be weeded out with a validation. There would seem to be 2 ways to deal with this: A begin...rescue...end block in the observer around the mailer. The problem with this is that the only way to pass any feedback to the user would be to set a global variable - as the observer is out of the MVC flow, I can't even set a flash[:error] there. A rescue_from in the Groups controller. This works fine, but has 2 problems. Firstly, there is no way to know which person threw the exception (all I can get is the 503 exception, no way to know which person caused the problem). This would be useful information to be able to pass back to the user - at the moment, there is no way for me to let them know which email address is the problem - at the moment, I just have to chuck the lot back at them, and issue an unhelpful message saying that one of them is not correct. Secondly (and to a certain extent this make the first point moot) it seems that it is necessary to call a render in the rescue_from, or it dies with a rather bizarre "can't convert Array into String" error from webbrick, with no stack trace & nothing in the log. Thus, I have to throw it back to the user when I come across the first error and have to stop processing the rest of the emails. Neither of the solutions are optimal. It would seem that the only way to get Rails to do what I want is option 1, and loathsome global variables. This would also rely on Rails being single threaded. Can anyone suggest a better solution to this problem?

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  • Need help accessing PHP DOM elements

    - by Michael Pasqualone
    Hey guys, I have the following HTML structure that I am trying to pull information from: // Product 1 <div class="productName"> <span id="product-name-1">Product Name 1</span> </div> <div class="productDetail"> <span class="warehouse">Warehouse 1, ACT</span> <span class="quantityInStock">25</span> </div> // Product 2 <div class="productName"> <span id="product-name-2">Product Name 2</span> </div> <div class="productDetail"> <span class="warehouse">Warehouse 2, ACT</span> <span class="quantityInStock">25</span> </div> … // Product X <div class="productName"> <span id="product-name-X">Product Name X</span> </div> <div class="productDetail"> <span class="warehouse">Warehouse X, ACT</span> <span class="quantityInStock">25</span> </div> I don't have control of the source html and as you'll see productName and it's accompanying productDetail are not contained within a common element. Now, I am using the following php code to try and parse the page. $html = new DOMDocument(); $html->loadHtmlFile('product_test.html'); $xPath = new DOMXPath($html); $domQuery = '//div[@class="productName"]|//div[@class="productDetail"]'; $entries = $xPath->query($domQuery); foreach ($entries as $entry) { echo "Detail: " . $entry->nodeValue) . "<br />\n"; } Which prints the following: Detail: Product Name 1 Detail: Warehouse 1, ACT Detail: 25 Detail: Product Name 2 Detail: Warehouse 2, ACT Detail: 25 Detail: Product Name X Detail: Warehouse X, ACT Detail: 25 Now, this is close to what I want. But I need to do some processing on each Product, Warehouse and Quantity stock and can't figure out how to parse it out into separate product groups. The final output I am after is something like: Product 1: Name: Product Name 1 Warehouse: Warehouse 1, ACT Stock: 25 Product 2: Name: Product Name 2 Warehouse: Warehouse 2, ACT Stock: 25 I can't just figure it out, and I can't wrap my head around this DOM stuff as the elements don't quite work the same as a standard array. If anyone can assist, or point me in the right direction I will be ever appreciative.

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  • log4net initialisation

    - by Ruben Bartelink
    I've looked hard for duplicates but have to ask the following, no matter how basic it may seem, to get it clear once and for all! In a fresh Console app using log4net version 1.2.10.0 on VS28KSP1 on 64 bit W7, I have the following code:- using log4net; using log4net.Config; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static readonly ILog _log = LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Program)); static void Main(string[] args) { _log.Info("Ran"); } } } In my app.config, I have: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler, log4net" /> </configSections> <log4net> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <file value="Program.log" /> <lockingModel type="log4net.Appender.FileAppender+MinimalLock" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <rollingStyle value="Size" /> <maxSizeRollBackups value="10" /> <maximumFileSize value="1MB" /> <staticLogFileName value="true" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="[%username] %date [%thread] %-5level %logger [%property{NDC}] - %message%newline" /> </layout> </appender> <root> <level value="DEBUG" /> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender" /> </root> </log4net> </configuration> This doesnt write anything, unless I either add an attribute: [ assembly:XmlConfigurator ] Or explicitly initialise it in Main(): _log.Info("This will not go to the log"); XmlConfigurator.Configure(); _log.Info("Ran"); This raises the following questions: I'm almost certain I've seen it working somewhere on some version of log4net without the addition of the assembly attribute or call in Main. Can someone assure me I'm not imagining that? Can someone please point me to where in the doc it explicitly states that both the config section and the initialisation hook are required - hopefully with an explanation of when this changed, if it did? I can easily imagine why this might be the policy -- having the initialisation step explicit to avoid surprises etc., it's just that I seem to recall this not always being the case... (And normally I have the config in a separate file, which generally takes configsections out of the picture)

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  • Add Access-Control-Allow-Origin to header in PHP

    - by SANDeveloper
    I am trying to workaround CORS restriction on a WebGL application. I have a Web Service which resolves URL and returns images. Since this web service is not CORS enabled, I can't use the returned images as textures. I was planning to: Write a PHP script to handle image requests Image requests would be sent through the query string as a url parameter The PHP Script will: Call the web service with the query string url Fetch the image response (web service returns a content-type:image response) Add the CORS header (Add Access-Control-Allow-Origin) to the response Send the response to the browser I tried to implement this using a variety of techniques including CURL, HTTPResponse, plain var_dump etc. but got stuck at some point in each. So I have 2 questions: Is the approach good enough? Considering the approach is good enough: I made the most progress with CURL. I could get the image header and data with: $ch = curl_init(); $url = $_GET["url"]; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, array('Content-Type:image/jpeg')); //Execute request $response = curl_exec($ch); //get the default response headers $headers = curl_getinfo($ch); //close connection curl_close($ch); But this doesn't actually change set the response content-type to image/jpeg. It dumps the header + response into a new response of content-type text/html and display the header and the image BLOB data in the browser. How do I get it to send the response in the format I want? Managed to get it working: $ch = curl_init(); $url = $_GET["url"]; curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, false); //Execute request $response = curl_exec($ch); //get the default response headers $headers = curl_getinfo($ch); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); header('Content-Type: image/jpeg'); header("Access-Control-Allow-Origin: *"); // header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 2017 05:00:00 GMT"); //close connection curl_close($ch); flush();

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  • Creating a music catalog and extracting first 30 seconds as soon as the first words are sung

    - by Rad
    I already read a question: Separation of singing voice from music. I don’t need this complex audio processing. I only need some detection mechanism that would detect that there is some voice/vocal playing while the music is playing (or not playing) I need to extract first 30 seconds when a vocalist starts singing along with full band music. See question 2 below. I want to create a music catalog using ASP.NET MVC 2 and Silverlight clients and C#.NET 4.0 programming language that would be front store. On the backend I would also like to create a desktop WPF/Windows application to create the music catalog from already existing music files, most of which have metadata in them ID3v1, ID3v2.3, ID3v2.4, iTunes MP4, WMA, Vorbis Comments and APE Tags etc. I would possibly like to create a web service that would allow catalog contributors to upload a zipped album and trigger metadata extraction of music data and extraction of music segments as described below. I would be happy if I achieve no. 1 below. Let's say I have 1000ths of songs in mp3 (or other formats) grouped in subfolders using some classification (Genre, Artists, Albums, Composers or other groupings). I want to create tables in DB that would organize songs so they can be searched based on different criteria (year, length, above classification or by song title, description etc) like what iTune store allows to their customers. I want to extract metadata from various formats (I will try to get songs in mp3 format, but there may be other popular formats) and allow music Catalog manager person to add missing data from either desktop or web applications. He or other contributors can upload zipped music via an HTML or Silverlight upload or WPF. Can anybody suggest open source libraries, articles, code snippets that can do that in an automatic way using .NET and possibly SQL Server DB? My main questions are these. This is an audio processing challenge. I want to extract 2 segments of music (questions 1 and 2): 1. How to extract a music segment: 1-2 seconds before a vocal starts singing and up to 30 seconds from that point in time and 2. Much more challenging is to find repeating segments (One would usually find or recognize the names of the songs and songs are usually known by these refrains. How would I go about creating a list of songs that go great together like what Genius from iTune does? Is there any characteristics of music that can be used to match songs? The goal is for people quickly scan and recognize songs i.e. associate melody, words with a title/album so they can make intelligent decisions like buying a song, create similar mood songs.

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  • Openlayers - LayerRedraw() / Feature rotation

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR: I have an Openlayers map with a layer called 'track' I want to remove track and add track back in. I have an image 'imageFeature' on a layer that rotates on load to the direction being set. I want it to update this rotation that is set in 'styleMap' on a layer called 'tracking'. I set the var 'stylemap' to apply the external image & rotation. The 'imageFeature' is added to the layer at the coords specified. 'imageFeature' is removed. 'imageFeature' is added again in its new location. Rotation is not applied.. As the 'styleMap' applies to the layer I think that I have to remove the layer and add it again rather than just the 'imageFeature' Layer: var tracking = new OpenLayers.Layer.GML("Tracking", "coordinates.json", { format: OpenLayers.Format.GeoJSON, styleMap: styleMap }); styleMap: var styleMap = new OpenLayers.StyleMap({ fillOpacity: 1, pointRadius: 10, rotation: heading, }); Now wrapped in a timed function the imageFeature: map.layers[3].addFeatures(new OpenLayers.Feature.Vector( new OpenLayers.Geometry.Point(longitude, latitude), {rotation: heading, type: parseInt(Math.random() * 3)} )); Type refers to a lookup of 1 of 3 images.: styleMap.addUniqueValueRules("default", "type", lookup); var lookup = { 0: {externalGraphic: "Image1.png", rotation: heading}, 1: {externalGraphic: "Image2.png", rotation: heading}, 2: {externalGraphic: "Image3.png", rotation: heading} } I have tried the 'redraw()' function: but it returns "tracking is undefined" or "map.layers[2]" is undefined. tracking.redraw(true); map.layers[2].redraw(true); Heading is a variable: from a JSON feed. var heading = 13.542; But so far can't get anything to work it will only rotate the image onload. The image will move in coordinates as it should though. So what am I doing wrong with the redraw function or how can I get this image to rotate live? Thanks in advance -Ozaki Add: I managed to get map.layers[2].redraw(true); to sucessfully redraw layer 2. But it still does not update the rotation. I am thinking because the stylemap is updating. But it runs through the style map every n sec, but no updates to rotation and the variable for heading is updating correctly if i put a watch on it in firebug.

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  • How to define an extern, C struct returning function in C++ using MSVC?

    - by DK
    The following source file will not compile with the MSVC compiler (v15.00.30729.01): /* stest.c */ #ifdef __cplusplus extern "C" { #endif struct Test; extern struct Test make_Test(int x); struct Test { int x; }; extern struct Test make_Test(int x) { struct Test r; r.x = x; return r; } #ifdef __cplusplus } #endif Compiling with cl /c /Tpstest.c produces the following error: stest.c(8) : error C2526: 'make_Test' : C linkage function cannot return C++ class 'Test' stest.c(6) : see declaration of 'Test' Compiling without /Tp (which tells cl to treat the file as C++) works fine. The file also compiles fine in DigitalMars C and GCC (from mingw) in both C and C++ modes. I also used -ansi -pedantic -Wall with GCC and it had no complaints. For reasons I will go into below, we need to compile this file as C++ for MSVC (not for the others), but with functions being compiled as C. In essence, we want a normal C compiler... except for about six lines. Is there a switch or attribute or something I can add that will allow this to work? The code in question (though not the above; that's just a reduced example) is being produced by a code generator. As part of this, we need to be able to generate floating point nans and infinities as constants (long story), meaning we have to compile with MSVC in C++ mode in order to actually do this. We only found one solution that works, and it only works in C++ mode. We're wrapping the code in extern "C" {...} because we want to control the mangling and calling convention so that we can interface with existing C code. ... also because I trust C++ compilers about as far as I could throw a smallish department store. I also tried wrapping just the reinterpret_cast line in extern "C++" {...}, but of course that doesn't work. Pity. There is a potential solution I found which requires reordering the declarations such that the full struct definition comes before the function foward decl., but this is very inconvenient due to the way the codegen is performed, so I'd really like to avoid having to go down that road if I can.

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  • When I really need to use [NSThread sleepForTimeInterval:1];

    - by Timbo
    Hi there, I have a program that needs to use sleep. Like really needs to. In lieu of spending ages explaining why, suffice to say that it needs it. Now I'm told to split off my code into a separate thread if it requires sleep so I don't lose interface responsiveness, so I've started learning how to use NSThread. I've created a brand new program that is conceptual so to solve the issue for this example will help me in my real program. Short story is I have a class, it has instance variables and I need a loop with a sleep to be depended on the value of that instance variable. Here's what I've put together anyway, your help is very much appreciated :) Cheers Tim /// Start Test1ViewController.h /// #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface Test1ViewController : UIViewController { UILabel* label; } @property (assign) IBOutlet UILabel *label; @end /// End Test1ViewController.h /// /// Start Test1ViewController.m /// #import "Test1ViewController.h" #import "MyClass.h" @implementation Test1ViewController @synthesize label; - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; label.text = @"1"; [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(backgroundProcess) toTarget:self withObject:nil]; } - (void)backgroundProcess { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; // Create an instance of a class that will eventually store a whole load of variables MyClass *aMyClassInstance = [MyClass new]; [aMyClassInstance createMyClassInstance:(@"Timbo")]; while (aMyClassInstance.myVariable--) { NSLog(@"blah = %i",aMyClassInstance.myVariable); label.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"blah = %d", aMyClassInstance.myVariable]; //how do I pass the new value out to the updateLabel method, or reference aMyClassInstance.myVariable? [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(updateLabel) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; //the sleeping of the thread is absolutely mandatory and must be worked around. The whole point of using NSThread is so I can have sleeps [NSThread sleepForTimeInterval:1]; } [pool release]; } - (void)updateLabel {label.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"blah = %d", aMyClassInstance.myVariable]; // be nice if i could } - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning {[super didReceiveMemoryWarning];} - (void)viewDidUnload {} - (void)dealloc {[super dealloc];} @end /// End Test1ViewController.m /// /// Start MyClass.h /// #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface MyClass : NSObject { NSString* name; int myVariable; } @property int myVariable; @property (assign) NSString *name; - (void) createMyClassInstance: (NSString*)withName; - (int) changeVariable: (int)toAmount; @end /// End MyClass.h /// /// Start MyClass.h /// #import "MyClass.h" @implementation MyClass @synthesize name, myVariable; - (void) createMyClassInstance: (NSString*)withName{ name = withName; myVariable = 10; } - (int) changeVariable: (int)toAmount{ myVariable = toAmount; return toAmount; } @end /// End MyClass.h ///

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  • USB windows xp final USB access issues

    - by Lex Dean
    I basically understand you C++ people, Please do not get distracted because I'm writing in Delphi. I have a stable USB Listing method that accesses all my USB devices I get the devicepath, and this structure: TSPDevInfoData = packed record Size: DWORD; ClassGuid: TGUID; DevInst: DWORD; // DEVINST handle Reserved: DWord; end; I get my ProductID and VenderID successfully from my DevicePath Lists all USB devices connected to the computer at the time That enables me to access the registry data to each device in a stable way. What I'm lacking is a little direction Is friendly name able to be written inside the connected USB Micro chips by the firmware programmer? (I'm thinking of this to identify the device even further, or is this to help identify Bulk data transfer devices like memory sticks and camera's) Can I use SPDRP_REMOVAL_POLICY_OVERRIDE to some how reset these polices What else can I do with the registry details. Identifying when some one unplugs a device The program is using (in windows XP standard) I used a documented windows event that did not respond. Can I read a registry value to identify if its still connected? using CreateFileA (DevicePath) to send and receive data I have read when some one unplugs in the middle of a data transfer its difficult clearing resources. what can IoCreateDevice do for me and how does one use it for that task This two way point of connection status and system lock up situations is very concerning. Has some one read anything about this subject recently? My objectives are to 1. list connected USB devices identify a in development Micro Controller from everything else send and receive data in a stable and fast way to the limits of the controller No lock up's transferring data Note I'm not using any service packs I understand everything USB is in ANSI when windows xp is not and .Net is all about ANSI (what a waste of memory) I plan to continue this project into a .net at a later date as an addition. MSDN gives me Structures and Functions and what should link to what ok but say little to what they get used for. What is available in my language Delphi is way over priced that it needs a major price drop.

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  • JSF inner datatable not respecting rendered condition of outer table.

    - by Marc
    <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="OuterItems" value="#{valueList.values}" var="item" border="0"> <h:column rendered="#{item.typeA"> <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="InnerItems" value="#{item.options}" var="option" border="0"> <h:column > <h:outputText value="Option: #{option.displayValue}"/> </h:column> </h:dataTable> </h:column> <h:column rendered="#{item.typeB"> <h:dataTable cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" styleClass="list_table" id="InnerItems" value="#{item.demands}" var="demand" border="0"> <h:column > <h:outputText value="Demand: #{demand.displayValue}"/> </h:column> </h:dataTable> </h:column> </h:dataTable> public class Item{ ... public boolean isTypeA(){ return this instanceof TypeA; } public boolean isTypeB(){ return this instanceof TypeB; } ... } public class typeA extends Item(){ ... public List getOptions(){ .... } ... } public class typeB extends Item(){ ... public List getDemands(){ ... } .... } I'm having an issue with JSF. I've abstracted the problem out here, and I'm hoping someone can help me understand how what I'm doing fails. I'm looping over a list of Items. These Items are actually instances of the subclasses TypeA and TypeB. For Type A, I want to display the options, for Type B I want to display the demands. When rendering the page for the first time, this works fine. However, when I post back to the page for some action, I get an error: [3/26/10 12:52:32:781 EST] 0000008c SystemErr R javax.faces.FacesException: Error getting property 'options' from bean of type TypeB at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.ApplyRequestValuesPhase.execute(ApplyRequestValuesPhase.java:89) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.LifecycleImpl.phase(LifecycleImpl.java(Compiled Code)) at com.sun.faces.lifecycle.LifecycleImpl.execute(LifecycleImpl.java:91) at com.ibm.faces.portlet.FacesPortlet.processAction(FacesPortlet.java:193) My grasp on the JSF lifecyle is very rough. At this point, i understand there is an error in the ApplyRequestValues Phases which is very early and so the previous state is restored and nothing changes. What I don't understand is that in order to fufill the condition for rendering "item.typeA" that object has to be an instance of TypeA. But here, it looks like that object passed the condition even though it was an instance of TypeB. It is like it is evaluating the inner dataTable (InnerItems) before evaluating the outer (outerItems). My working assumption is that I just don't understand how/when the rendered attribute is actually evaluated.

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  • HTML5 Video Tag in Chrome - Why is currentTime ignored when video downloaded from my webserver?

    - by larson4
    I want to be able to play back video from a specific time using the HTML5 video tag (and currently only need to worry about Chrome). This is possible by setting the currentTime property of a video element. That works fine in Chrome with a video sourced from html5rocks.com, but is ignored when the same file is loaded from my own local webserver. Using the sample code from http://playground.html5rocks.com/#video_tag, I have arrived at the following HTML: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <body> <video id="video1" width="320" height="240" volume=".7" controls preload=true autobuffer> <source src="http://playground.html5rocks.com/samples/html5_misc/chrome_japan.webm" type='video/webm; codecs="vp8, vorbis"'/> </video> <input type=button onclick="play()" value="play"> <input type=button onclick="setTime()" value="setTime"> <input type=button onclick="pause()" value="pause"> <script> var play=function() { document.getElementById("video1").play(); } var setTime=function() { document.getElementById("video1").currentTime=2; } var pause=function() { document.getElementById("video1").pause(); } </script> </body> </html> Using Chrome, if you Wait for the video to download for a bit (until the progress bar is about 10% in) Press setTime - you should notice the time jump to 2 seconds press play ...the video will start at 2 seconds in. But if I download the webm file in the source src to my local webserver, and change src to point locally: <source src="chrome_japan.webm" type='video/webm; codecs="vp8, vorbis"'/> ...then setting currentTime is complete ignored. No errors are showing in the developer tools console. Now, my webserver is serving this with mime type "video/webm", but it will be served like any old file -- not streamed. Do I need a webserver that streams in some specific way? What else could be at fault here? Note: The webserver is a proprietary platform and won't have any of the same exact settings or controls one might expect of Tomcat or some other commonly used webserver, though there may be other ways to achieve the same effect.

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  • Overwhelmed by design patterns... where to begin?

    - by Pete
    I am writing a simple prototype code to demonstrate & profile I/O schemes (HDF4, HDF5, HDF5 using parallel IO, NetCDF, etc.) for a physics code. Since focus is on IO, the rest of the program is very simple: class Grid { public: floatArray x,y,z; }; class MyModel { public: MyModel(const int &nip1, const int &njp1, const int &nkp1, const int &numProcs); Grid grid; map<string, floatArray> plasmaVariables; }; Where floatArray is a simple class that lets me define arbitrary dimensioned arrays and do mathematical operations on them (i.e. x+y is point-wise addition). Of course, I could use better encapsulation (write accessors/setters, etc.), but that's not the concept I'm struggling with. For the I/O routines, I am envisioning applying simple inheritance: Abstract I/O class defines read & write functions to fill in the "myModel" object HDF4 derived class HDF5 HDF5 using parallel IO NetCDF etc... The code should read data in any of these formats, then write out to any of these formats. In the past, I would add an AbstractIO member to myModel and create/destroy this object depending on which I/O scheme I want. In this way, I could do something like: myModelObj.ioObj->read('input.hdf') myModelObj.ioObj->write('output.hdf') I have a bit of OOP experience but very little on the Design Patterns front, so I recently acquired the Gang of Four book "Design Patterns: Elements of Reusable Object-Oriented Software". OOP designers: Which pattern(s) would you recommend I use to integrate I/O with the myModel object? I am interested in answering this for two reasons: To learn more about design patterns in general Apply what I learn to help refactor an large old crufty/legacy physics code to be more human-readable & extensible. I am leaning towards applying the Decerator pattern to myModel, so I can attach the I/O responsibilities dynamically to myModel (i.e. whether to use HDF4, HDF5, etc.). However, I don't feel very confident that this is the best pattern to apply. Reading the Gang of Four book cover-to-cover before I start coding feels like a good way to develop an unhealthy caffeine addiction. What patterns do you recommend?

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  • On Redirect - Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server...

    - by Craig Russell
    Hello (this is a long post sorry), I am writing a application in ASP.NET MVC 2 and I have reached a point where I am receiving this error when I connect remotely to my Server. Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server due to failure in retrieving the user's local application data path. Please make sure the user has a local user profile on the computer. The connection will be closed. I thought I had worked around this problem locally, as I was getting this error in debug when site was redirected to a baseUrl if a subdomain was invalid using this code: protected override void Initialize(RequestContext requestContext) { string[] host = requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); _siteProvider.Initialise(host, LiveMeet.Properties.Settings.Default["baseUrl"].ToString()); base.Initialize(requestContext); } protected override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { if (Site == null) { string[] host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); string newUrl; if (host.Length == 2) newUrl = "http://sample.local:" + host[1]; else newUrl = "http://sample.local"; Response.Redirect(newUrl, true); } ViewData["Site"] = Site; base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } public Site Site { get { return _siteProvider.GetCurrentSite(); } } The Site object is returned from a Provider named siteProvider, this does two checks, once against a database containing a list of all available subdomains, then if that fails to find a valid subdomain, or valid domain name, searches a memory cache of reserved domains, if that doesn't hit then returns a baseUrl where all invalid domains are redirected. locally this worked when I added the true to Response.Redirect, assuming a halting of the current execution and restarting the execution on the browser redirect. What I have found in the stack trace is that the error is thrown on the second attempt to access the database. #region ISiteProvider Members public void Initialise(string[] host, string basehost) { if (host[0].Contains(basehost)) host = host[0].Split('.'); Site getSite = GetSites().WithDomain(host[0]); if (getSite == null) { sites.TryGetValue(host[0], out getSite); } _site = getSite; } public Site GetCurrentSite() { return _site; } public IQueryable<Site> GetSites() { return from p in _repository.groupDomains select new Site { Host = p.domainName, GroupGuid = (Guid)p.groupGuid, IsSubDomain = p.isSubdomain }; } #endregion The Linq query ^^^ is hit first, with a filter of WithDomain, the error isn't thrown till the WithDomain filter is attempted. In summary: The error is hit after the page is redirected, so the first iteration is executing as expected (so permissions on the database are correct, user profiles etc) shortly after the redirect when it filters the database query for the possible domain/subdomain of current redirected page, it errors out.

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  • How can I have a Makefile automatically rebuild source files that include a modified header file? (I

    - by Nicholas Flynt
    I have the following makefile that I use to build a program (a kernel, actually) that I'm working on. Its from scratch and I'm learning about the process, so its not perfect, but I think its powerful enough at this point for my level of experience writing makefiles. AS = nasm CC = gcc LD = ld TARGET = core BUILD = build SOURCES = source INCLUDE = include ASM = assembly VPATH = $(SOURCES) CFLAGS = -Wall -O -fstrength-reduce -fomit-frame-pointer -finline-functions \ -nostdinc -fno-builtin -I $(INCLUDE) ASFLAGS = -f elf #CFILES = core.c consoleio.c system.c CFILES = $(foreach dir,$(SOURCES),$(notdir $(wildcard $(dir)/*.c))) SFILES = assembly/start.asm SOBJS = $(SFILES:.asm=.o) COBJS = $(CFILES:.c=.o) OBJS = $(SOBJS) $(COBJS) build : $(TARGET).img $(TARGET).img : $(TARGET).elf c:/python26/python.exe concat.py stage1 stage2 pad.bin core.elf floppy.img $(TARGET).elf : $(OBJS) $(LD) -T link.ld -o $@ $^ $(SOBJS) : $(SFILES) $(AS) $(ASFLAGS) $< -o $@ %.o: %.c @echo Compiling $<... $(CC) $(CFLAGS) -c -o $@ $< #Clean Script - Should clear out all .o files everywhere and all that. clean: -del *.img -del *.o -del assembly\*.o -del core.elf My main issue with this makefile is that when I modify a header file that one or more C files include, the C files aren't rebuilt. I can fix this quite easily by having all of my header files be dependencies for all of my C files, but that would effectively cause a complete rebuild of the project any time I changed/added a header file, which would not be very graceful. What I want is for only the C files that include the header file I change to be rebuilt, and for the entire project to be linked again. I can do the linking by causing all header files to be dependencies of the target, but I cannot figure out how to make the C files be invalidated when their included header files are newer. I've heard that GCC has some commands to make this possible (so the makefile can somehow figure out which files need to be rebuilt) but I can't for the life of me find an actual implementation example to look at. Can someone post a solution that will enable this behavior in a makefile? EDIT: I should clarify, I'm familiar with the concept of putting the individual targets in and having each target.o require the header files. That requires me to be editing the makefile every time I include a header file somewhere, which is a bit of a pain. I'm looking for a solution that can derive the header file dependencies on its own, which I'm fairly certain I've seen in other projects.

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  • Any socket programmers out there? How can I obtain the IPv4 address of the client?

    - by Dr Dork
    Hello! I'm prepping for a simple work project and am trying to familiarize myself with the basics of socket programming in a Unix dev environment. At this point, I have some basic server side code setup to listen for incoming TCP connection requests from clients after the parent socket has been created and is set to listen... int sockfd, newfd; unsigned int len; socklen_t sin_size; char msg[]="Test message sent"; char buf[MAXLEN]; int st, rv; struct addrinfo hints, *serverinfo, *p; struct sockaddr_storage client; char ip[INET6_ADDRSTRLEN]; . . //parent socket creation and listen code omitted for simplicity . //wait for connection requests from clients while(1) { //Returns the socketID and address of client connecting to socket if( ( newfd = accept(sockfd, (struct sockaddr *)&client, &len) ) == -1 ){ perror("Accept"); exit(-1); } if( (rv = recv(newfd, buf, MAXLEN-1, 0 )) == -1) { perror("Recv"); exit(-1); } struct sockaddr_in *clientAddr = ( struct sockaddr_in *) get_in_addr((struct sockaddr *)&client); inet_ntop(client.ss_family, clientAddr, ip, sizeof ip); printf("Receive from %s: query type is %s\n", ip, buf); if( ( st = send(newfd, msg, strlen(msg), 0)) == -1 ) { perror("Send"); exit(-1); } //ntohs is used to avoid big-endian and little endian compatibility issues printf("Send %d byte to port %d\n", ntohs(clientAddr->sin_port) ); close(newfd); } } I found the get_in_addr function online and placed it at the top of my code and use it to obtain the IP address of the client connecting... // get sockaddr, IPv4 or IPv6: void *get_in_addr(struct sockaddr *sa) { if (sa->sa_family == AF_INET) { return &(((struct sockaddr_in*)sa)->sin_addr); } return &(((struct sockaddr_in6*)sa)->sin6_addr); } but the function always returns the IPv6 IP address since thats what the sa_family property is set as. My question is, is the IPv4 IP address stored anywhere in the data I'm using and, if so, how can I access it? Thanks so much in advance for all your help!

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  • Starting company and getting a good deal

    - by Dan
    Hi, I'm having the possibility to start a small company with someone else. I'm a software programmer and been working on a field where there isn't much competition, at least in the platform I'm developing, which is the one with highest market share. This other person comes from marketing so he would find / provide clients and be in charge of the business side. So initially it would be me, the tech guy with the knowledge to develop our product and products based on my development, and this person who would become CEO (basically a 50/50 share). The idea is getting a product on our own, but also perform projects for others in order to get some cash. The problem is that his idea is doing this without initial capital. He tells me that he could get some customers from past business (which is mostly true as he has been in the business for some time) and then with the money obtained from such development, we could hire some freelance developers and build our own platform. I've already discussed with him that I don't find this the best way, provided that we need to compete against other companies some of who are VC funded and have many developers working fulltime. But most of all, I'm thinking of whether this is a fair deal to do, provided that this person is not providing anything other than clients, and I'd be the one having to do the work and dedicate time, thus also taking most of the risks. In all fairness, I'd expect him to put some initial capital, given that initially I'm putting some of my code which in some way is money given the time I've dedicated to it. So the question here is, does this seem fair to you? Is this the way it is usually done? My only concern here is that I don't have previous experience with such deals, and I ignore whether this is the usual thing to do in other cases. Certainly having a marketing person helps a lot. As you probably know being a programmer doesn't make me the most indicated person for marketing ;-) but at the same time I'm not sure if this could be a good deal or I'd just be making a pretty inconvenient deal. Hope I made my point clear, but feel free to let me know if more details are needed. Thanks in advance

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  • problem with select boxes - second options based on first selection

    - by Charles Marsh
    Hello All, I just posted a question about opening in a new window but if I use window.location it doesn't work?? is there a problem with my javascript? <script type="text/javascript"> function setOptions(chosen){ var selbox = document.formName.table; selbox.options.length = 0; if (chosen == " ") { selbox.options[selbox.options.length] = new Option('No diploma selected',' '); } if (chosen == "1") { selbox.options[selbox.options.length] = new Option('first choice - option one','http://www.pitman-training.com'); selbox.options[selbox.options.length] = new Option('first choice - option two','onetwo'); } if (chosen == "2") { selbox.options[selbox.options.length] = new Option('second choice - option one','twoone'); selbox.options[selbox.options.length] = new Option('second choice - option two','twotwo'); selbox.options[selbox.options.length] = new Option('second choice - option three','twothree'); selbox.options[selbox.options.length] = new Option('second choice - option four','twofour'); } if (chosen == "3") { selbox.options[selbox.options.length] = new Option('third choice - option one','threeone'); selbox.options[selbox.options.length] = new Option('third choice - option two','threetwo'); } } </script> Its a little messy I know... <form name="formName" method="post" action="<?php echo $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; ?>"> <select name="optone" size="1" onchange="setOptions(document.formName.optone.options[document.formName.optone.selectedIndex].value);"> <option value=" " selected="selected">Please select a diploma</option> <option value="1">First Choice</option> <option value="2">Second Choice</option> <option value="3">Third Choice</option> </select> <select name="table" size="1" > <option value=" " selected="selected">No diploma selected</option> </select> <input type="submit" onclick="ob=this.form.table;window.location(ob.options[ob.selectedIndex].value)"/> </form> to be honest I'm not happy with this anyway I want a way to hide the Submit button until the second selected box has been selected...but I'm no java expert! Can anyone point me in the right direction?

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  • SVN: Branches for Every Little Change?

    - by yar
    Hi. We have a client (who has a client, who has a client) who is driving us mad with change requests to a code base (in PHP). Our first response was to just work in a main trunk in SVN, but the client often comes back and requests that a certain change needs to get pushed to the live servers ASAP. On the other hand, other changes get reduced in priority suddenly, which originally came grouped with other changes (seemingly). We are thinking of using a branch for every change request. Is this mad? What other solutions might work? Thanks! Edit: This is a really hard question to choose the correct answer for. Thanks to everybody for your great answers. Edit: I know that the best answer I chose was not particularly popular. I too wanted to find a technical solution to this problem. But now I think that if the client wants software with features that can be deployed in a modular fashion... this problem should not be solved in our use of the version control system. It would have to be designed into the software. Edit: Now it's almost a month later and my coworker/client has convinced me that multiple branches is the way to go. This is not just due to the client's insanity, but also based on our need to be able to determine if a feature is "ready to go" or "needs more work" or whatever. I don't have the SVN with me, but we merge using the advice from the SVN Cookbook: you merge the branch from the revision it was branched to the head revision. Also, using this system, we merge all branches at some point and that becomes the new QA and then live build. Then we branch from that. Last Edit (Perhaps): Months later, this system is still working out for us. We create branches for every ticket and rarely have problems. On the other hand, we do try to keep things separate as far as what people are working on... Two Years Later: We use GIT now, and now this system is actually quite reasonable.

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  • How do I do high quality scaling of a image?

    - by pbhogan
    I'm writing some code to scale a 32 bit RGBA image in C/C++. I have written a few attempts that have been somewhat successful, but they're slow and most importantly the quality of the sized image is not acceptable. I compared the same image scaled by OpenGL (i.e. my video card) and my routine and it's miles apart in quality. I've Google Code Searched, scoured source trees of anything I thought would shed some light (SDL, Allegro, wxWidgets, CxImage, GD, ImageMagick, etc.) but usually their code is either convoluted and scattered all over the place or riddled with assembler and little or no comments. I've also read multiple articles on Wikipedia and elsewhere, and I'm just not finding a clear explanation of what I need. I understand the basic concepts of interpolation and sampling, but I'm struggling to get the algorithm right. I do NOT want to rely on an external library for one routine and have to convert to their image format and back. Besides, I'd like to know how to do it myself anyway. :) I have seen a similar question asked on stack overflow before, but it wasn't really answered in this way, but I'm hoping there's someone out there who can help nudge me in the right direction. Maybe point me to some articles or pseudo code... anything to help me learn and do. Here's what I'm looking for: 1. No assembler (I'm writing very portable code for multiple processor types). 2. No dependencies on external libraries. 3. I am primarily concerned with scaling DOWN, but will also need to write a scale up routine later. 4. Quality of the result and clarity of the algorithm is most important (I can optimize it later). My routine essentially takes the following form: DrawScaled( uint32 *src, uint32 *dst, src_x, src_y, src_w, src_h, dst_x, dst_y, dst_w, dst_h ); Thanks! UPDATE: To clarify, I need something more advanced than a box resample for downscaling which blurs the image too much. I suspect what I want is some kind of bicubic (or other) filter that is somewhat the reverse to a bicubic upscaling algorithm (i.e. each destination pixel is computed from all contributing source pixels combined with a weighting algorithm that keeps things sharp. EXAMPLE: Here's an example of what I'm getting from the wxWidgets BoxResample algorithm vs. what I want on a 256x256 bitmap scaled to 55x55. And finally: the original 256x256 image

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  • Move options between multiple lists

    - by Martha
    We currently have a form with the standard multi-select functionality of "here are the available options, here are the selected options, here are some buttons to move stuff back and forth." However, the client now wants the ability to not just select certain items, but to also categorize them. For example, given a list of books, they want to not just select the ones they own, but also the ones they've read, the ones they would like to read, and the ones they've heard about. (All examples fictional.) Thankfully, a selected item can only be in one category at a time. I can find many examples of moving items between listboxes, but not a single one for moving items between multiple listboxes. To add to the complication, the form needs to have two sets of list+categories, e.g. a list of movies that need to be categorized in addition to the aforementioned books. EDIT: Having now actually sat down to try to code the non-javascripty bits, I need to revise my question, because I realized that multiple select lists won't really work from the "how do I inform the server about all this lovely new information" standpoint. So the html code is now a pseudo-listbox, i.e. an unordered list (ul) displayed in a box with a scrollbar, and each list item (<li>) has a set of five radio buttons (unselected/own/read/like/heard). My task is still roughly the same: how to take this one list and make it easy to categorize the items, in such a way that the user can tell at a glance what is in what category. (The pseudo-listbox has some of the same disadvantages as a multi-select listbox, namely it's hard to tell what's selected if the list is long enough to scroll.) The dream solution would be a drag-and-drop type thing, but at this point even buttons would be OK. Another modification (a good one) is that the client has revised the lists, so the longest is now "only" 62 items long (instead of the many hundreds they had before). The categories will still mostly contain zero, one, or two selected items, possibly a couple more if the user was overzealous. As far as OS and stuff, the site is in classic asp (quit snickering!), the server-side code is VBScript, and so far we've avoided the various Javascript libraries by the simple expedient of almost never using client-side scripting. This one form for this one client is currently the big exception. Give 'em an inch and they want a mile... Oh, and I have to add: I suck at Javascript, or really at any C-descendant language. Curly braces give me hives. I'd really, really like something I can just copy & paste into my page, maybe tweak some variable names, and never look at it again. A girl can dream, can't she? :) [existing code deleted because it's largely irrelevant.]

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  • Reliable session faulting for unknown reason

    - by Scarfman007
    I am trying to achieve the following - one client-side proxy instance (kept open) accessed by multiple threads using a reliable session. What I have managed so far is to have either A) a reliable session with a client-side proxy which is created and disposed per call or B) what I aim for, but without a reliable session. When I enable reliable sessions on my binding however, the following behaviour is exhibited: Client-side Upon application startup everything appears to work fine until roughly 18 messages in to the WCF session. I firstly get the proxy.InnerChannel.Faulted event raised, then an exception is caught at the point where I am calling the method on the proxy. The exception is a System.TimeoutException, with message: "The request channel timed out while waiting for a reply after 00:00:59.9062512. Increase the timeout value passed to the call to Request or increase the SendTimeout value on the Binding. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout." The inner exception has a similar message: "The request operation did not complete within the allotted timeout of 00:01:00. The time allotted to this operation may have been a portion of a longer timeout." With the method at the top of the inner stack trace being: System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableRequestSessionChannel.SyncRequest.WaitForReply(TimeSpan timeout) I then call proxy.Close followed by proxy.Abort (catching and ignoring exceptions). If I utilize the default settings (i.e. have simply <reliableSession/>), then calling proxy. Close results in another System.Timeout exception (although this time the allotted timeout is 00:00:00), however if I override the defaults as specified above no exception is thrown. Service-side Utilizing WCF tracing I get a System.ServiceModel.CommunicationException, with message: "The sequence has been terminated by the remote endpoint. The session has stopped waiting for a particular reply. Because of this the reliable session cannot continue. The reliable session was faulted." And a stack trace ending at: System.ServiceModel.AsyncResult.End[TAsyncResult](IAsyncResult result) When remotely attaching to the server I get the same message, which occurs when code execution steps over the return statement of my service in the service call which causes the error. The puzzling thing to me is that the service is stable and runs with options A) or B) as decribed at the beginning of my post, and occurs after a varying number of messages (around 18). The former fact points to there being nothing wrong with the code (indeed I have checked that no exceptions are thrown), and the latter just serves to confuse me and is why I modified the settings on the reliable session binding. I am quite stuck on this. Can anyone suggest why the reliable session would fault in such a way?

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  • Is Delete cascade possible in ravendb

    - by user1811801
    Still just a starter in ravendb. I have a doubt whether raven db supports some kind of referential integrity. Here is my doubt and work.. I have document type screens as below public class Screens { public String Id { get; set; } public String ScreenName { get; set; } } And Another document named RightsDeclaration as below public class RightsDeclaration { public RightsDeclaration() { _screenrights = new List<ScreenRight>(); } public String Id { get; set; }// Role Name List<ScreenRight> _screenrights; public List<ScreenRight> ScreenRights { get { return _screenrights; } set { _screenrights = value; } } } Now the screen rights class looks like below with the screen name field as below public class ScreenRight : { public String ScreenName { get; set; } public Boolean Create { get; set; } public Boolean Read { get; set; } public Boolean Update { get; set; } public Boolean Delete { get; set; } public Boolean Approve { get; set; } public Boolean Access { get; set; } public Boolean Print { get; set; } public Boolean Email { get; set; } } Now first i will create some list of screens and then i assign rights for each role with mentioning what is the screen name and list of rights. up to this point everything goes fine. Now in a scenario where if i would delete the screen name in screens class but then the screen rights for that screen still exists in the rights declaration. is it possible to delete the corresponding screen rights from userrights document too? if so please mention the query or idea to do the above.. Thanks in advance..

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