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  • E-commerce platform for custom application integration

    - by Zach Smith
    We are building an online subscription-based website and I'm looking for recommendations on which e-commerce platform to use for the checkout process. Requirements include: Only four products. The sign-up process of the site is heavily customized, and after checkout the user should automatically get logged into the subscriber area. Subscriptions will last one year and can be renewed manually. Support for coupons/discount codes at a later point. Since the entire application is custom, we've weighed building a custom checkout but are strongly leaning towards using existing software to avoid having to build lots of admin reporting as well as a coupon engine down the road. The two questions we're pondering are: Is it better to a) build our application custom and use whatever e-commerce software we select just for the payment piece, or b) use the e-commerce software as the basis and build our application around it/as a module/etc? Which e-commerce platform should we use? I've looked into a variety of off the shelf e-commerce software, but it's not clear to me which would be easiest to integrate with. I've researched on the Web and looked at many of the threads on SO to compiled a list of potential candidates: www.magentocommerce.com/ (seems difficult to integrate with) www.prestashop.com/ www.nopcommerce.com/ www.opencart.com/ www.cubecart.com/ www.spreecommerce.com/ www.interspire.com/ www.tradingeye.com/ We're most concerned with the level of effort required with ramping up on the software and then doing the integration with our custom functionality. We're most proficient with PHP, ASP.NET and some ROR and are only considering those technologies. We prefer open source, but would be open to commercial if there's a significant upside. Any experiences with similar projects and advice is greatly appreciated.

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  • VB.Net Custom Object Master-Detail Data Binding

    - by clawson
    Since beginning to use VB.Net some years ago I have become slowly familiar with using the data binding features of .Net, however I often find my self bewildered by it's behavior and instead of discover the correct way it should work I find some dirty work around to suit my needs and continue on. Needless to say my problems continue to arise. I am using Custom Objects as the Data Sources for by controls and often entire forms. I find it frustrating to separate business logic and the graphical interface. (That could be a new question entirely.) So for a lot of objects I generate a form which has the DataBindingSource for the object. When I create each from using the New Constructor I explicitly pass to it the object to which it should be bound, and then set this passed object as the DataSource of the BindingSource. (That's a mouthful!) Now the Master object (say, bound to each form) often contains a List of objects which I like to have displayed in a DataGridView. I (sometimes) create and modify these child objects in their own form (again creating a databind the same way as the master form) but when I add them to the List in the master object the DataGridView won't update with the new items. So my question really has a few layers: How can I easily/efficiently/correctly update this DataGridView with the list of Detail objects when I add them to the list of the Master object. Is this approach to DataBinding good/viable. What's the best way to separate business logic from graphical interface. Thanks for the help!

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  • Create Keyword Object Perl Microsoft::AdCenter

    - by toobsco42
    So I looked at the perldoc for the Microsoft::AdCenter module and it shows this as an example of how to create a keyword object: ~$ perldoc Microsoft::AdCenter #Create a Keyword object my $keyword = Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Keyword->new ->Text("some text") ->BroadMatchBid(Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Bid->new->Amount(0.1)) ->ExactMatchBid(Microsoft::AdCenter::V7::CampaignManagementService::Bid->new->Amount(0.1)); However, doesn't this violate the new policy of using only one match type per keyword? Campaign Management changes: "Previously, you would create a single Keyword object and specify a bid value for each match that you wanted to bid on (for example, exact match or phrase match). If you did not specify a bid value at the keyword-level, adCenter used the default bid value specified at the ad group level. Now, you must create a Keyword object for each match type that you want to bid on. For example, to bid on the keyword car by using exact match and phrase match, create a Keyword object and set the Text element to car and the ExactMatchBid element to a bid amount. Then, create a second Keyword object and set the Text element to car and PhraseMatchBid to a bid amount. When you add the keywords, you’ll get a unique keyword ID for each keyword and match-type combination."

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  • Python metaclass for enforcing immutability of custom types

    - by Mark Lehmacher
    Having searched for a way to enforce immutability of custom types and not having found a satisfactory answer I came up with my own shot at a solution in form of a metaclass: class ImmutableTypeException( Exception ): pass class Immutable( type ): ''' Enforce some aspects of the immutability contract for new-style classes: - attributes must not be created, modified or deleted after object construction - immutable types must implement __eq__ and __hash__ ''' def __new__( meta, classname, bases, classDict ): instance = type.__new__( meta, classname, bases, classDict ) # Make sure __eq__ and __hash__ have been implemented by the immutable type. # In the case of __hash__ also make sure the object default implementation has been overridden. # TODO: the check for eq and hash functions could probably be done more directly and thus more efficiently # (hasattr does not seem to traverse the type hierarchy) if not '__eq__' in dir( instance ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must implement __eq__.' ) if not '__hash__' in dir( instance ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must implement __hash__.' ) if _methodFromObjectType( instance.__hash__ ): raise ImmutableTypeException( 'Immutable types must override object.__hash__.' ) instance.__setattr__ = _setattr instance.__delattr__ = _delattr return instance def __call__( self, *args, **kwargs ): obj = type.__call__( self, *args, **kwargs ) obj.__immutable__ = True return obj def _setattr( self, attr, value ): if '__immutable__' in self.__dict__ and self.__immutable__: raise AttributeError( "'%s' must not be modified because '%s' is immutable" % ( attr, self ) ) object.__setattr__( self, attr, value ) def _delattr( self, attr ): raise AttributeError( "'%s' must not be deleted because '%s' is immutable" % ( attr, self ) ) def _methodFromObjectType( method ): ''' Return True if the given method has been defined by object, False otherwise. ''' try: # TODO: Are we exploiting an implementation detail here? Find better solution! return isinstance( method.__objclass__, object ) except: return False However, while the general approach seems to be working rather well there are still some iffy implementation details (also see TODO comments in code): How do I check if a particular method has been implemented anywhere in the type hierarchy? How do I check which type is the origin of a method declaration (i.e. as part of which type a method has been defined)?

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  • HP QTP 10: Web-app testing - SomeObj.FireEvent("OnCLick") works, SomeObj.Object.FireEvent("OnCLick") doesn't

    - by Vitaliy
    Hi all! I have rich web app btuil with ExtJS. It has multi-select list control (created with JS+CSS). I want to click on some item in that list using HP QuickTest Pro 10 with Internet Explorer 6. I added that item into Object repository and found that following code works - selects some item: Browser("blah").Page("blah").WebElement("SomeElem").Click next code also works: Browser("blah").Page("blah").WebElement("SomeElem").FireEvent("onMouseDown") Browser("blah").Page("blah").WebElement("SomeElem").FireEvent("onMouseUp") Browser("blah").Page("blah").WebElement("SomeElem").FireEvent("onClick") But I want to select several items using shift+click method. I don't know to do that :( So I have a few questions: How can perform click with mouse on several web elements with Shift key pressed? I tried to do that using CreateEventObject + shiftKey set to true, but the method (perform fireEvent on DOM object, not object from Object repository) doesn't work: Browser("blah").Page("blah").WebElement("SomeElem").Object.FireEvent("onClick") What the difference between WebElement("Element").FireEvent("OnClick") and WebElement("Element").Object.FireEvent("OnClick") ? Plsease, help someone, because I fought with that problem a lot, but had no result. Thanks!

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  • Asp.Net Cache, modify an object from cache and it changes the cached value

    - by Glen
    Hi, I'm having an issue when using the Asp.Net Cache functionality. I add an object to the Cache then at another time I get that object from the Cache, modify one of it's properties then save the changes to the database. But, the next time I get the object from Cache it contains the changed values. So, when I modify the object it modifies the version which is contained in cache even though I haven't updated it in the Cache specifically. Does anyone know how I can get an object from the Cache which doesn't reference the cached version? i.e. Step 1: Item item = new Item(); item.Title = "Test"; Cache.Insert("Test", item, null, DateTime.Now.AddHours(1), System.Web.Caching.Cache.NoSlidingExpiration); Step 2: Item item = (Item)Cache.Get("test"); item.Title = "Test 1"; Step 3: Item item = (Item)Cache.Get("test"); if(item.Title == "Test 1"){ Response.Write("Object has been changed in the Cache."); } I realise that with the above example it would make sense that any changes to the item get reflected in cache but my situation is a bit more complicated and I definitely don't want this to happen.

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  • Ruby custom class to and from YAML;

    - by Sanarothe
    Hi. I'm having trouble deserializing a ruby class that I wrote to YAML. Where I want to be I want to be able to pass one object around as a full 'question' which includes the question text, some possible answers (For multi. choice) and the correct answer. One module (The encoder) takes input, builds a 'question' class out of it and appends it to the question pool. Another module reads a question pool and builds an array of 'question' objects. Where I am currently Sample Question Pool --- | --- !ruby/object:MultiQ a: "no" answer: "no" b: "no" c: "no" d: "no" text: "yes?" Encoder dump to YAML file. Object is a MultiQ filled up with input. (See below.) def dump(file, object) File.open(file, 'a') do |out| YAML.dump(object.to_yaml, out) end object = nil end MultiQ Class definition class MultiQ attr_accessor :text, :answer, :a, :b, :c, :d def initialize(text, answer, a, b, c, d) @text = text @answer = answer @a = a @b = b @c = c @d = d end end The decoder (I've been trying different things, so what's here wasn't my first or best guess. But I'm at a loss and the documentation doesn't really explain things thoroughly enough.) File.open( "test_set.yaml" ) do |yf| YAML.load_documents( yf ) { |item| new = YAML.object_maker( MultiQ, item) puts new } end Questions you can answer How do I achieve my goal? What methods should I use, between parsing, loading files or documents, to successfully deserialize a Ruby class? I've already looked over the YAML Rdoc, and I didn't absorb very much, so please don't just link me to it. What other methods would you suggest using? Is there a better way to store questions like this? Should I be using document db, relational db, xml? Some other format?

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  • Object created in Interface Builder getting dealloc'ed too soon

    - by Collin Allen
    The Project I'm working on a relatively simple iPhone OS project that's navigation controller based, with a root table view and a detail table view. Tap an item in the main list to see its details in a pushed table view. The Setup I broke out the data source for both views into their own objects so as not to muddy the purpose of a view controller. Having done this, the table views no longer have data sources since those methods are now in separate files, so I created an instance of each data source class in the appropriate XIB files with the Object item (dragged it in, then set its class). Then, to actually connect the tableviews to their data sources, I set the dataSource outlet of each tableview to the yellow data source object in Interface Builder. The table view delegates are still set to their view controllers. The Problem The root table view works just fine, but when you tap a row to push to the detail view, the data source object gets instantiated as expected, then immediately dealloc'ed, causing a crash (numberOfSectionsInTableView: gets called on the freed object). I can't figure out why the data source is getting automatically dealloc-ed when I need it right then and there for the detail view, as indicated by my data source object creation and tableview connection in Interface Builder. What's more perplexing is that the very approach works fine for the root tableview! The Question Is there anything obvious I'm missing that would cause this to happen? Or, is this even the right way to instantiate a data source for a table view controller? It seems like poor object oriented programming to do it from within the view controller, which should only be concerned with the view. I could cram everything in two table view controller classes and it would probably work, but it would not be as modular as I'd like. Thanks!

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  • Implementing custom Matlab functions in Simulink

    - by niko
    Hi, I would like to use custom Matlab function in Simulink. So far I have done it by placing Embedded Matlab Fuction block. However if the custom function contains another custom function the compile process fails. Here is the example of function I am trying to embed in the simulation: function [c, d, iterationsCount] = decodeLDPC(y, H, variance) Lci = initializeLq(y, H, variance); Lr = getLr(Lci); [Lq, c] = getLq(Lci, H, Lr); iterationsCount = 1; while(sum(mod(c * H', 2)) ~= 0) Lr = getLr(Lq); [Lq, c] = getLq(Lq, H, Lr); iterationsCount = iterationsCount + 1; end; G = getGeneratorMatrix(H); d = c/G; where initializeLq and getLr are custom functions as well. I would be very thankful if anyone could suggest a method to implement the above function in the simulation. Thank you.

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  • Hibernate overriding database modifications with detached object state

    - by EugeneP
    I'm gonna go with this design: create an object and keep it alive during all web-app session. And I need to synchronize its state with database state. What I want to achieve is that : IF between my db operations, that is, modifications that I persist to a db someone intentionally spoils table rows, then on next saving to a database all those changes WOULD BE OVERWRITTEN with the object state, that always contains valid data. What Hibernate methods do you recommend me to use to persist the modifications in a database? saveOrUpdate() is a possible solution, but maybe there's anything better? Again, I repeat how it looks. First I create an object without collections. Persist it (save()). Then user provides us with additional data. In a serviceLayer, again, we modify our object in memory (say, populate it with collections) and then, persist it again. So every serviceLayer operation of the next step must simply guarantee that database contains the exact persistent copy of this object that we have in memory. If data in a database differ, it MUST BE OVERRIDDEN with the object (kept in memory) state. What Session operations do you recommend?

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  • Event OnClick for a button in a custom notification

    - by Simone
    I have a custom notification with a button. To set the notification and use the event OnClick on my button I've used this code: //Notification and intent of the notification Notification notification = new Notification(R.drawable.stat_notify_missed_call, "Custom Notification", System.currentTimeMillis()); Intent mainIntent = new Intent(getBaseContext(), NotificationActivity.class); PendingIntent pendingMainIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(getBaseContext(), 0, mainIntent , 0); notification.contentIntent = pendingMainIntent; //Remoteview and intent for my button RemoteViews notificationView = new RemoteViews(getBaseContext().getPackageName(), R.layout.remote_view_layout); Intent activityIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_CALL, Uri.parse("tel:190")); PendingIntent pendingLaunchIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(getBaseContext(), 0, activityIntent, PendingIntent.FLAG_UPDATE_CURRENT); notificationView.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.button1, pendingLaunchIntent); notification.contentView = notificationView; notificationManager.notify(CUSTOM_NOTIFICATION_ID, notification); With this code I've a custom notification with my custom layout...but I can't click the button! every time I try to click the button I click the entire notification and so the script launch the "mainIntent" instead of "activityIntent". I have read in internet that this code doesn't work on all terminals. I have tried it on the emulator and on an HTC Magic but I have always the same problem: I can't click the button! My code is right? someone can help me? Thanks, Simone

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  • How to use DLL reference with an ActiveX <object> via JavaScript

    - by John Factorial
    My question: how can I set an ActiveX object's property via JavaScript to an enum value found in a non-ActiveX DLL? Problem description: I am instantiating an ActiveX object with the following object tag: <object classid="clsid:F338193D-2491-4D7B-80CE-03487041A278" id="VideoCapture1" width="500" height="500"></object> (This is the guid for the 3rd party ActiveX I'm using, "VisioForge_Video_Capture_4.VFVideoCapture4X") I have example C# code for using this ActiveX, which I am porting to JavaScript. Code like this works just fine: VideoCapture1.Debug_Mode = true; var devcount = VideoCapture1.Video_CaptureDevices_GetCount(); var devs = []; for (var i =0; i < devcount; ++i) { devs[devs.length] = VideoCapture1.Video_CaptureDevices_GetItem(i); } ... etc ... However, VideoCapture1 has some settings which refer to a DLL enum, like so (C# code): VideoCapture1.Mode = VisioForge_Video_Capture_4.TxVFMode.Mode_Video_Preview; I can see in Visual Web Developer that TxVFMode.Mode_Video_Preview is value 1 in the enum. However, the following JS does not appear to set the Mode properly: VideoCapture1.Mode = 1; Does anyone know how I can set VideoCapture1.Mode to the enum value found in the TxVFMode? PS: In Visual Web Developer, when I "Go to definition" on TxVFMode, I get the Guid for the enum. I thought I could create an with this Guid or instantiate a VisioForge_Video_Capture_4.TxVFMode in JS, but neither gives me a usable object.

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  • binding nested json object value to a form field

    - by Jack
    I am building a dynamic form to edit data in a json object. First, if something like this exists let me know. I would rather not build it but I have searched many times for a tool and have found only tree like structures that require entering quotes. I would be happy to treat all values as strings. This edit functionality is for end users so it needs to be easy an not intimidating. So far I have code that generates nested tables to represent a json object. For each value I display a form field. I would like to bind the form field to the associated nested json value. If I could store a reference to the json value I would build an array of references to each value in a json object tree. I have not found a way to do that with javascript. My last resort approach will be to traverse the table after edits are made. I would rather have dynamic updates but a single submit would be better than nothing. Any ideas? // the json in files nests only a few levels. Here is the format of a simple case, { "researcherid_id":{ "id_key":"researcherid_id", "description":"Use to retrieve bibliometric data", "url_template" :[ { "name": "Author Detail", "url": "http://www.researcherid.com/rid/${key}" } ] } } $.get('file.json',make_json_form); function make_json_form(response) { dataset = $.secureEvalJSON(response); // iterate through the object and generate form field for string values. } // Then after the form is edited I want to display the raw updated json (then I want to save it but that is for another thread) // now I iterate through the form and construct the json object // I would rather have the dataset object var updated on focus out after each edit. function show_json(form_id){ var r = {}; var el = document.getElementById(form_id); table_to_json(r,el,null); $('body').html(formattedJSON(r)); }

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  • Runtime Exception when using Custom Healthmonitoring event in medium trust

    - by Elementenfresser
    Hi, I'm using custom healthmonitoring events in ASP.NET We recently moved to a new server with default High Trust Permissions. Literature says that healthmonitoring and custom events should work under Medium or higher trust (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb398933.aspx). Problem is it doesn't. In less than high trust I get a SecurityException saying The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy It works in Full trust or when I remove the inheritance of System.Web.Management.WebErrorEvent. Any suggestions anyone? Here is the super simple code behind with a custom event defined: public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CallCustomEvent(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); throw ex; } } /// <summary> /// this metho is never called due to lacking permissions... /// </summary> private void CallCustomEvent() { try { //do something useful here } catch (Exception) { //code to instantiate the forbidden inheritance... WebBaseEvent.Raise(new CustomEvent()); } } } /// <summary> /// custom error inheriting WebErrorEvent which is not allowed in high trust? can't believe that... /// </summary> public class CustomEvent : WebErrorEvent { public CustomEvent() : base("test", HttpContext.Current.Request, 100001, new ApplicationException("dummy")) { } } and the Web Config excerpt for high trust: <system.web> <trust level="High" originUrl="" />

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  • Custom Model Validator for MVC

    - by scottrakes
    I am trying to add a custom model validation at the property level but need to pass in two values. Below is my class definition and validation implementation. When it runs, the "value" in the IsValid method is always null. I can get this working at the class level but the property level is causing me issues. What am I missing? Event Class: public class Event { public int? EventID {get;set;} [ValidPURL("EventID", "PURLValue")] public string PURLValue { get; set; } ... } Validation Class [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.All, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class ValidPURL : ValidationAttribute { private const string _defaultErrorMessage = "Web address already exist."; private readonly object _typeId = new object(); public ValidPURL(int eventID, string purlValue) : base(_defaultErrorMessage) { EventID = eventID; PURLValue = purlValue; } public int EventID { get; private set; } public string PURLValue { get; private set; } public override object TypeId { get { return _typeId; } } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return String.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture, ErrorMessageString, EventID, PURLValue); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { PropertyDescriptorCollection properties = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(value); object eventIDValue = properties.Find(EventID, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); object purlValue = properties.Find(PURLValue, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); [Some Validation Logic against the database] return true; } } Thank for the help!

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  • InstallExecuteSequence cache interferes with custom action operation

    - by Dima G
    I need to upgrade a product that could be installed in per-user context to a new version that is always in per-machine context. The requirements are: Whether the old version was installed in a Per-User (no matter who) or Per-Machine context should be completely seamless to an administrator user that performs the upgrade. The MSI upgrade should succeed without the need to know the password of the user that originally installed the previous version of the product in a Per-User context. The installation should be performed from a single .msi file (no setup.exe is allowed). The installation should be able to run in a silent (non-UI) mode. No reboots are allowed during installation. My strategy is to find in the beginning of the installation whether the product is already installed in per-user context, and if so, to transform the registry keys manually to Per-Machine context (I checked: no additional changes such as file system changes etc. are needed except this transform). I figured out how to move all appropriate keys in the registry from the user settings to the machine settings (pre-loaded appropriate user hive in case it didn't appear in HKEY_USERS) and created custom action that does it - and it does work when I run it as a stand-alone executable before running the MSI. The problem, however, is that when Windows Installer runs InstallExecuteSequence it first creates a 'cached product context' for all products. So when my custom action runs in the course of InstallExecuteSequence, this cache has already been created. Thus FindRelatedProducts action that determines if older product with same upgrade code exists looks on that cache and ignores the changes that my custom action applied. If before running the MSI the previous product was in per-user context, FindRelatedProducts will look at the cache and not apply the upgrade and remove the previous version, because the new product is in per-machine context, even though the previous product version is already configured to per-machine context in the registry by that time by my custom action. What can be done to solve this problem without violating the requirements stated above?

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  • sharing message object between web applications

    - by jezhilvalan
    I need to share java mail message objects between two web applications(A and B). WebApplication A obtains the message and write it to the outputStream for(int i=0;i<messagesArr.length;i++){ uid = pop3FolderObj.getUID(messagesArr[i]); //storing messages with uid names inorder to maintain uniqueness File f = new File("F:/PersistedMessagesFolder" + uid); FileOutputStream fos = new FileOutputStream(f); messagesArr[i].writeTo(fos); fos.flush(); fos.close(); } Is FileOutputStream the best output stream for persisting message objects? Is it possible to use ObjectOutputStream for message object persistence? WebApplication B reads the message object via InputStream FileInputStream fis = new FileInputStream("F:/MessagesPersistedFolder"+uid); MimeMessage mm = new MimeMessage(sessionObj,fis); What if the mail message object which is already written via WebApplication A is not a MimeMessage? How can I read non-mime messages using input stream? MimeMessage constructor mandates sessionObj as the first parameter? How can I obtain this sessionObj in WebApplicationB? Do I have to again establish store connection with the same emailid,emailpassword,popserver and port(already used in WebApplication A) with the email server inorder to obtain this session object? Even if obtained, will this session object remains the same as that of the session object which is priorly obtained in WebApplicationA? Since I am using uids to name Message objects (inorder to maintain uniqueness of file names) how can I share these uids between WebApplication A and WebApplication B? WebApplication B needs the uid inorder to access the specific file which is present in "F:/MessagesPersistedFolder" Please help me in resolving the aforeseen issues.

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  • filter by value in object of array

    - by zahir hussain
    hi i want to know how to filter the value in object of array... i just display the below is one data of my object array Object ( [_fields:private] => Array ( [a] => c7b920f57e553df2bb68272f61570210 [index_date] => 2010/05/11 12:00:58 [b] => i am zahir [c] => google.com [d] => 23c4a1f90fb577a006bdef4c718f5cc2 ) ) Object ( [_fields:private] => Array ( [a] => c7b920f57e553df2bb68272f61570210 [index_date] => 2010/05/11 12:00:58 [b] => i am zahir [c] => yahoo.com [d] => 23c4a1f90fb577a006bdef4c718f5cc2 ) ) Object ( [_fields:private] => Array ( [a] => c7b920f57e553df2bb68272f61570210 [index_date] => 2010/05/11 12:00:58 [b] => i am beni [c] => google.com [d] => 23c4a1f90fb577a006bdef4c718f5cc2 ) ) . . . Object ( [_fields:private] => Array ( [a] => c7b920f57e553df2bb68272f61570210 [index_date] => 2010/05/11 12:00:58 [b] => i am sani [c] => yahoo.com [d] => 23c4a1f90fb577a006bdef4c718f5cc2 ) ) i have to filter the [c] value... thanks and advance

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  • Security Exception when using Custom ASP.NET Healthmonitoring event in medium trust

    - by Elementenfresser
    Hi, I'm using custom healthmonitoring events in ASP.NET We recently moved to a new server with default High Trust Permissions. Literature says that healthmonitoring and custom events should work under Medium or higher trust (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb398933.aspx). Problem is - it doesn't. In less than full trust I get a SecurityException saying The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy It works in Full trust or when I remove the inheritance of System.Web.Management.WebErrorEvent. Any suggestions anyone? Here is the super simple code behind with a custom event defined: public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CallCustomEvent(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); throw ex; } } /// <summary> /// this metho is never called due to lacking permissions... /// </summary> private void CallCustomEvent() { try { //do something useful here } catch (Exception) { //code to instantiate the forbidden inheritance... WebBaseEvent.Raise(new CustomEvent()); } } } /// <summary> /// custom error inheriting WebErrorEvent which is not allowed in high trust? can't believe that... /// </summary> public class CustomEvent : WebErrorEvent { public CustomEvent() : base("test", HttpContext.Current.Request, 100001, new ApplicationException("dummy")) { } } and the Web Config excerpt for high trust: <system.web> <trust level="High" originUrl="" />

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  • [Ruby] Object assignment and pointers

    - by Jergason
    I am a little confused about object assignment and pointers in Ruby, and coded up this snippet to test my assumptions. class Foo attr_accessor :one, :two def initialize(one, two) @one = one @two = two end end bar = Foo.new(1, 2) beans = bar puts bar puts beans beans.one = 2 puts bar puts beans puts beans.one puts bar.one I had assumed that when I assigned bar to beans, it would create a copy of the object, and modifying one would not affect the other. Alas, the output shows otherwise. ^_^[jergason:~]$ ruby test.rb #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> #<Foo:0x100155c60> 2 2 I believe that the numbers have something to do with the address of the object, and they are the same for both beans and bar, and when I modify beans, bar gets changed as well, which is not what I had expected. It appears that I am only creating a pointer to the object, not a copy of it. What do I need to do to copy the object on assignment, instead of creating a pointer? Tests with the Array class shows some strange behavior as well. foo = [0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5] baz = foo puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo.pop puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" foo += ["a hill of beans is a wonderful thing"] puts "foo is #{foo}" puts "baz is #{baz}" This produces the following wonky output: foo is 012345 baz is 012345 foo is 01234 baz is 01234 foo is 01234a hill of beans is a wonderful thing baz is 01234 This blows my mind. Calling pop on foo affects baz as well, so it isn't a copy, but concatenating something onto foo only affects foo, and not baz. So when am I dealing with the original object, and when am I dealing with a copy? In my own classes, how can I make sure that assignment copies, and doesn't make pointers? Help this confused guy out.

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  • C# struct with object as data member

    - by source-energy
    As we know, in C# structs are passed by value, not by reference. So if I have a struct with the following data members: private struct MessageBox { // data members private DateTime dm_DateTimeStamp; // a struct type private TimeSpan dm_TimeSpanInterval; // also a struct private ulong dm_MessageID; // System.Int64 type, struct private String dm_strMessage; // an object (hence a reference is stored here) // more methods, properties, etc ... } So when a MessageBox is passed as a parameter, a COPY is made on the stack, right? What does that mean in terms of how the data members are copied? The first two are struct types, so copies should be made of DateTime and TimeSpan. The third type is a primitive, so it's also copied. But what about the dm_strMessage, which is a reference to an object? When it's copied, another reference to the same String is created, right? The object itself resides in the heap, and is NOT copied (there is only one instance of it on the heap.) So now we have to references to the same object of type String. If the two references are accessed from different threads, it's conceivable that the String object could be corrupted by being modified from two different directions simultaneously. The MSDN documentation says that System.String is thread safe. Does that mean that the String class has a built-in mechanism to prevent an object being corrupted in exactly the type of situation described here? I'm trying to figure out if my MessageBox struct has any potential flaws / pitfalls being a structure vs. a class. Thanks for any input. Source.Energy.

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  • Object equality in context of hibernate / webapp

    - by bert
    How do you handle object equality for java objects managed by hibernate? In the 'hibernate in action' book they say that one should favor business keys over surrogate keys. Most of the time, i do not have a business key. Think of addresses mapped to a person. The addresses are keeped in a Set and displayed in a Wicket RefreshingView (with a ReuseIfEquals strategy). I could either use the surrogate id or use all fields in the equals() and hashCode() functions. The problem is that those fields change during the lifetime ob the object. Either because the user entered some data or the id changes due to JPA merge() being called inside the OSIV (Open Session in View) filter. My understanding of the equals() and hashCode() contract is that those should not change during the lifetime of an object. What i have tried so far: equals() based on hashCode() which uses the database id (or super.hashCode() if id is null). Problem: new addresses start with an null id but get an id when attached to a person and this person gets merged() (re-attached) in the osiv-filter. lazy compute the hashcode when hashCode() is first called and make that hashcode @Transitional. Does not work, as merge() returns a new object and the hashcode does not get copied over. What i would need is an ID that gets assigned during object creation I think. What would be my options here? I don't want to introduce some additional persistent property. Is there a way to explicitly tell JPA to assign an ID to an object? Regards

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  • NSDrawer delegate pointing to deallocated object?

    - by Isaac
    A user has sent in a crash report with the stack trace listed below (I have not been able to reproduce the crash myself, but every other crash this user has reported has been a valid bug, even when I couldn't reproduce the effect). The application is a reference-counted Objective-C/Cocoa app. If I am interpreting it correctly, the crash is caused by attempting to send a drawerDidOpen: message to a deallocated object. The only object that should be receiving drawerDidOpen: is the drawer's delegate object (nowhere does any object register to receive drawer notifications), and the drawer's delegate object is instantiated via the XIB/NIB file, wired to the delegate outlet of the drawer, and not referenced anywhere else. Given that, how can I protect against the delegate getting dealloc'd before the drawer notification? Or, alternately, what have I misinterpreted that might be causing the crash? Crash log/stack trace: Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x0000000000000010 Crashed Thread: 0 Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread Application Specific Information: objc_msgSend() selector name: drawerDidOpen: Thread 0 Crashed: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00007fff8272011c objc_msgSend + 40 1 com.apple.Foundation 0x00007fff87d0786e _nsnote_callback + 167 2 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831bcaea __CFXNotificationPost + 954 3 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831a9098 _CFXNotificationPostNotification + 200 4 com.apple.Foundation 0x00007fff87cfe7d8 -[NSNotificationCenter postNotificationName:object:userInfo:] + 101 5 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff8512e944 _NSDrawerObserverCallBack + 840 6 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831d40d7 __CFRunLoopDoObservers + 519 7 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x00007fff831af8c4 CFRunLoopRunSpecific + 548 8 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b8ada RunCurrentEventLoopInMode + 333 9 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b883d ReceiveNextEventCommon + 148 10 com.apple.HIToolbox 0x00007fff839b8798 BlockUntilNextEventMatchingListInMode + 59 11 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84de8a2a _DPSNextEvent + 708 12 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84de8379 -[NSApplication nextEventMatchingMask:untilDate:inMode:dequeue:] + 155 13 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84dae05b -[NSApplication run] + 395 14 com.apple.AppKit 0x00007fff84da6d7c NSApplicationMain + 364 15 (my app's identifier) 0x0000000100001188 start + 52

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  • Titanium TableViewRow classname with custom rows

    - by pancake
    I would like to know in what way the 'className' property of a Ti.UI.TableViewRow helps when creating custom rows. For example, I populate a tableview with custom rows in the following way: function populateTableView(tableView, data) { var rows = []; var row; var title, image; var i; for (i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { title = Ti.UI.createLabel({ text : data[i].title, width : 100, height: 30, top: 5, left: 25 }); image = Ti.UI.createImage({ image : 'some_image.png', width: 30, height: 30, top: 5, left: 5 }); /* and, like, 5+ more views or whatever */ row = Ti.UI.createTableViewRow(); row.add(titleLabel); row.add(image); rows.push(row); } tableView.setData(rows); } Of course, this example of a "custom" row is easily created using the standard title and image properties of the TableViewRow, but that isn't the point. How is the allocation of new labels, image views and other child views of a table view prevented in favour of their reuse? I know in iOS this is achieved by using the method -[UITableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:] to fetch a row object from a 'reservoir' (so 'className' is 'identifier' here) that isn't currently being used for displaying data, but already has the needed child views laid out correctly in it, thus only requiring to update the data contained within (text, image data, etc). As this system is so unbelievably simple, I have a lot of trouble believing the method employed by the Titanium API does not support this. After reading through the API and searching the web, I do however suspect this is the case. The 'className' property is recommended as an easy way to make table views more efficient in Titanium, but its relation to custom table view rows is not explained in any way. If anyone could clarify this matter for me, I would be very grateful.

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  • Need an advice for unit testing using mock object

    - by Andree
    Hi there, I just recently read about "Mocking objects" for unit testing and currently I'm having a difficulties implementing this approach in my application. Please let me explain my problem. I have a User model class, which is dependent on 2 data sources (database and facebook web service). The controller class simply use this User model as an interface to access data and it doesn't care about where the data came from. Currently I never done any unit test to this User model because it is dependent on an external web service. But just a while ago, I read about object mocking and now I know that it is a common approach to unit test a class that depends on external resources (like in my case). Now I want to create a unit test for the User model, but then I encountered a design issue: In order for the User model to use a mocked Facebook SDK, I have to inject this mocked Facebook SDK to the User object (probably using a setter). Therefore I can't construct the Facebook SDK inside the User object. I have to construct it outside the User object, and inject the SDK into the User object. The real client of my User model is the application's controller. Therefore I have to construct the Facebook SDK inside the controller and inject it to the user object. Well, this is a problem because I want my controller to be as clean as possible. I want my controller to be ignorant about the application's data source. I'm not good at explaining something systematically, so you'll probably sleeping before reading this last paragraph. But anyway, I want to ask if anyone here ever encountered the same problem as mine? How do you solve this problem? Regards, Andree

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