Search Results

Search found 27606 results on 1105 pages for 'javascript disabled'.

Page 1037/1105 | < Previous Page | 1033 1034 1035 1036 1037 1038 1039 1040 1041 1042 1043 1044  | Next Page >

• Headless, scriptable Firefox/Webkit on linux?

  - by Parand

  I'm looking to automate some web interactions, namely periodic download of files from a secure website. This basically involves entering my username/password and navigating to the appropriate URL. I tried simple scripting in Python, followed by more sophisticated scripting, only to discover this particular website is using some obnoxious javascript and flash based mechanism for login, rendering my methods useless. I then tried HTMLUnit, but that doesn't seem to want to work either. I suspect use of Flash is the issue. I don't really want to think about it any more, so I'm leaning towards scripting an actual browser to log in and grab the file I need. Requirements are: Run on linux server (ie. no X running). If I really need to have X I can make that happen, but I won't be happy. Be reliable. I want to start this thing and never think about it again. Be scriptable. Nothing too sophisticated, but I should be able to tell the browser the various steps to take and pages to visit. Are there any good toolkits for a headless, X-less scriptable browser? Have you tried something like this and if so do you have any words of wisdom?

  Read the article

• Prototype's Ajax.Updater not actually updating on IE7.

  - by Ben S

  I am trying to submit a form using Ajax.Updater and have the result of that update a div element in my page. Everything works great in IE6, FF3, Chrome and Opera. However, In IE7 it sporadically works, but more often than not, it just doesn't seem to do anything. Here's the javascript: function testcaseHistoryUpdate(testcase, form) { document.body.style.cursor = 'wait'; var param = Form.serialize(form); new Ajax.Updater("content", "results/testcaseHistory/" + testcase, { onComplete: function(transport) {document.body.style.cursor = 'auto'}, parameters: param, method: 'post' } ); } I've verified using alert() calls that param is set to what I expect. I've read in many places that IE7 caches aggressively and that it might be the root cause, however every after adding the following to my php response, it still doesn't work. header("Last-Modified: " . gmdate("D, d M Y H:i:s") . " GMT"); header("Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate"); header("Cache-Control: post-check=0, pre-check=0", false); header("Pragma: no-cache"); To further try to fix a caching issue I've tried adding a bogus parameter which just gets filled with a random value to have different parameters for every call, but that didn't help. I've also found this, where UTF-8 seemed to be causing an issue with IE7, but my page is clearly marked: <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" /> Does anyone have any idea what could be wrong with IE7 as opposed to the other browsers I tested to cause this kind of issue?

  Read the article

• App session cookie not being created in Rails, sporadically

  - by James

  Hi everyone, This is an issue sporadically for very few users, however we haven't been able to replicate it. However I have now got a Chrome instance (Mac) which is reproducing the error (for some unknown reason), and I hope to not restart it until I have this nailed! Rails application, using memcached for session store. While the bug manifests in the _app_session_id cookie not being created, our javascript-generated cookie test and app-generated language cookies are being created successfully. This means that InvalidAuthenticityToken errors are thrown for every form that is submitted by those afflicted - people can't log into the app. The error occurs across all browsers - had reports for IE7 and Firefox (which most users use). Switching to another browser often fixes the issue (though not always), and standard cache-cookie-clear tactics do not. So now that I have got Chrome open which is having the same issue - in development, staging and live environments (meaning http and https). All other browsers are fine. I've restarted the servers and restarted memcached. I don't really want to restart Chrome - in the risk that the issue does go away with that (having said that, it hasn't worked for users). I've been tcpdumping the requests - and although I'll keep digging, I'd love it if anyone had any suggestions, places to start looking, anything. This is really painful ;) Thanks!

  Read the article

• documentFragment.cloneNode(true) doesn't clone jQuery data

  - by taber

  I have a documentFragment with several child nodes containing some .data() added like so: myDocumentFragment = document.createDocumentFragment(); for(...) { myDocumentFragment.appendChild( $('').addClass('button') .attr('href', 'javascript:void(0)') .html('click me') .data('rowData', { 'id': 103, 'test': 'testy' }) .get(0) ); } When I try to append the documentFragment to a div on the page: $('#div').append( myDocumentFragment ); I can access the data just fine: alert( $('#div a:first').data('rowData').id ); // alerts '103' But if I clone the node with cloneNode(true), I can't access the node's data. :( $('#div').append( myDocumentFragment.cloneNode(true) ); ... alert( $('#div a:first').data('rowData').id ); // alerts undefined Has anyone else done this or know of a workaround? I guess I could store the row's data in jQuery.data('#some_random_parent_div', 'rows', [array of ids]), but that kinda defeats the purpose of making the data immediately/easily available to each row. I've also read that jQuery uses documentFragments, but I'm not sure exactly how, or in what methods. Does anyone have any more details there? Thanks!

  Read the article

• JQuery Cycle fails on Page Refresh

  - by Darknight

  In a similar issue as this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1719475/jquery-cycle-firefox-squishing-images I've managed to overcome the initial problem using Jeffs answer in the above link. However now I have noticed a new bug, upon page refresh it simply does not work. I have tried a hard refresh (ctrl+F5) but this does not work. However when you come page to the page it loads fine. here is my modified version (taken from Jeff's): <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var imagesRemaining = $('#slideshow img').length; $('#slideshow img').bind('load', function(e) { imagesRemaining = imagesRemaining - 1; if (imagesRemaining == 0) { $('#slideshow').show(); $('#slideshow').cycle({ fx: 'shuffle', speed: 1200 }); } }); }); </script> Any ideas? I've also tried JQuery Live but could not implement it correctly. I've also tried Meta tags to force images to load. But it only works first time round.

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC Facebook

  - by durilai

  I am trying to do a seemingly simple thing, but having trouble accomplishing it. I am trying to automate the posting on my Facebook wall. Basically I have a ASP.NET MVC website that I post updates on, and I want to automatically submit the post to my wall. I see a lot of stuff on FB Connect and getting data, I just want to post. Thanks for any help or guidance. UPDATE: Just trying to resurrect, and be a little more clear in my description as I am not getting anywhere. I have a page that I want with a text box and a button. When I submit the form I want the message to post to my Facebook wall. I thought it was Facebook Connect, but I am getting no where as to how to automatically authenticate myself and post to my wall. I would like to use C# rather than JavaScript. private const string ApplicationKey = "XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX"; private const string SecretKey = "XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX"; private Facebook.Rest.Api _facebookAPI; private Facebook.Session.ConnectSession _connectSession; [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Index(FormCollection form) { _connectSession = new Facebook.Session.ConnectSession(ApplicationKey, SecretKey); if (_connectSession.IsConnected()) { _facebookAPI = new Facebook.Rest.Api(_connectSession); string response = _facebookAPI.Stream.Publish("This is a generated test"); } return View(); } } The IsConnected() is returning false. Any help is appreciated.

  Read the article

• Google Chrome Extension - Help needed

  - by Jim-Y

  Im new on Google Chrome Extensions coding, and i have some basic questions. I want to make a Chrome Extension, and the scheme is the following: -a popup window, containing buttons and result fields (popup.html) -when a button is clicked, i want to trigger an event, this event should connect to a webserver (i make the servlet too), and gather information from the server. (XMLHttpRequest()) -after that, i want my extension to load the gathered information into one of the result fields. Simple, isn't it? But i have several problems, right at the beginning:( I started developing with reading tutorials, but i have fog on the main structure of an extension. Now, i started an app, containing a popup.html, manifest.json ... In popup.html theres a result field, and a button <div id="extension_container"> <div id="header"> <p id="intro">Result here</p> <button type="button" id="button">Click Me!</button> </div> <!-- END header --> <div id="content"> </div> <!-- END content --> When button is clicked, i trigger an event, handeled with jquery, code here: <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#button").click(function(){ $("#intro").text("Hello, im added"); alert("Clicked"); }); }); </script> And here comes the problem, in popup.html this doesnt work, if i load it to Chrome, nothing happens. Otherwise, if i open popup.html in browser, not as an extension, everything works fine. So, i think i have basic misunderstandings on extension structures, starting with background pages, background javascript and so on.. :( Could anyone help me?

  Read the article

• How can I get jQuery validation plugin Ketchup to stop an Ajax form submission when validation fails?

  - by Marshall Sontag

  I'm using Ruby on Rails, Formtastic gem, jQuery and ketchup to validate my form. I'm submitting the form created by Formtastic inside a modal box using ajax: <% semantic_form_remote_for @contact_form, :url => '/request/contact' do |f| %> I have a validation plugin verifying the fields on the form: $(document).ready(function() { $("#new_contact_form").ketchup(); }); The problem is that semantic_form_remote_for generates an onSubmit ajax request that the jQuery validation plugins won't prevent, since it's not a normal form submission. One question on stackoverflow suggests using :condition on the remote form declaration to fire a javascript function, but I can't do that since I'm not using a function, but rather relying on a jQuery handler. I also tried putting ketchup within a submit event handler: $(document).ready(function() { $("#new_contact_form").submit(function() { $('#new_contact_form').ketchup(); }); }); No luck. Form still submits. I also tried using the beforeSend option of jQuery.ajax: $(document).ready(function() { jQuery.ajax( { beforeSend: function(){ $('#new_contact_form').ketchup(); } }); }); Validation fires off, but form is still submitted. I switched to jQuery Validation plugin just to see if it was due to some limitation in Ketchup. It turns out that Validation has a submitHandler option: $(document).ready(function() { $('#new_contact_form').validate({ submitHandler: function(form) { jQuery.ajax({ data:jQuery.param(jQuery('#new_contact_form').serializeArray()), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/request/contact' }); return false; } }); }); This works when I use a regular semantic_form_for instead of semantic_form_remote_for, but alas, I would rather use Ketchup. Is Ketchup just woefully lacking? Am I forced to use jQuery Validation?

  Read the article

• Event OnClick ASP:LinkButton not firing with jquery overlay

  - by rolando

  Hi there, So i have this: <asp:LinkButton runat="server" id="lkbTomeChichi" class="modalInput contratacionVinculos" rel="#prueba" OnClick="PruebaBrava" >LinkPrueba</asp:LinkButton> <div id="prueba" class="simple_overlayFondoBlanco" style="margin: auto; z-index: 99;"> hola como está todo ;) </div> and i have this: <script type="text/javascript"> function pageLoad() { var triggers = $("a.modalInput").overlay({ // some expose tweaks suitable for modal dialogs expose: { color: '#333', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.3, zIndex: 99 }, top: '25%', closeOnClick: true }); } </script> as you can see i'm using a LinkButton who transforms into an 'a' tag on rendering so jquery pageLoad function can use it to show an overlay. My problem is i need the 'OnClick="PruebaBrava' to execute before the overlay shows. If i use a button instead of a LinkButton it works perfectly but i need to use the linkbutton and with it that event is not firing. What can i do? Thankyou all very much for your answers ;)

  Read the article

• Best pratice: How do I implement a list that can be rendered both server-side and client-side?

  - by André Pena

  Technologies involved: ASP.NET Web-forms Javascript (jQuery for instance) Case To make it clearer let's give the Stackoverflow authors list as an example. This list can be manipulated at client-side. I can search, page and so forth. So obviously we would need to call jQuery.ajax to retrieve the HTML of each page given a search. Alright. Now this leaves me with the first question: What is the best way to render the response for the jQuery.ajax at server-side? I can't use templates I suppose, so the most obvious solution I think is to create the HTML tags as server-controls and render them as the result of an ASHX request? Is this is best approach? Nice. That solved we have yet another problem: When the user first enters the Authors List the first list page should already come from the server completely rendered alright? Of course we could render the first page as well as an ajax call but I don't think it's better. This time I CAN use templates to render the list but this template couldn't be reused in case 1. What do I do? Now the final question: Now we have 2 rendering strategies: 1) Client and 2) Server. How do I reuse code for the 2 renderings? What are the best pratices for solving these problems?

  Read the article

• chrome extension login security with iframe

  - by Weaver

  I should note, I'm not a chrome extension expert. However, I'm looking for some advice or high level solution to a security concern I have with my chrome extension. I've searched quite a bit but can't seem to find a concrete answer. The situation I have a chrome extension that needs to have the user login to our backend server. However, it was decided for design reasons that the default chrome popup balloon was undesirable. Thus I've used a modal dialog and jquery to make a styled popup that is injected with content scripts. Hence, the popup is injected into the DOM o the page you are visiting. The Problem Everything works, however now that I need to implement login functionality I've noticed a vulnerability: If the site we've injected our popup into knows the password fields ID they could run a script to continuously monitor the password and username field and store that data. Call me paranoid, but I see it as a risk. In fact,I wrote a mockup attack site that can correctly pull the user and password when entered into the given fields. My devised solution I took a look at some other chrome extensions, like Buffer, and noticed what they do is load their popup from their website and, instead, embed an iFrame which contains the popup in it. The popup would interact with the server inside the iframe. My understanding is iframes are subject to same-origin scripting policies as other websites, but I may be mistaken. As such, would doing the same thing be secure? TLDR To simplify, if I embedded an https login form from our server into a given DOM, via a chrome extension, are there security concerns to password sniffing? If this is not the best way to deal with chrome extension logins, do you have suggestions with what is? Perhaps there is a way to declare text fields that javascript can simply not interact with? Not too sure! Thank you so much for your time! I will happily clarify anything required.

  Read the article

• PHP APC and Pecl upload progress returning false/null.

  - by Keyo

  This is a long shot. I believe this might be suhosin patch issue. Here is my php from codeigniter: public function uploadprogress($id) { if ($id) { header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); header("Expires: Mon, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); echo json_encode(apc_fetch('upload_'.$id)); exit(); } } public function uploader() { $this->load->view('myid/' . $this->router->class . '_uploader'); //phpinfo(); } script: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ var progress_key = $('#progress_key').val(); // this sets up the progress bar $('#uploadform').submit(function() { setTimeout(beginUpload,1500); return; }); function beginUpload() { $("#progressbar").progressbar({ value:0}).fadeIn(); var i = setInterval(function() { $.getJSON("/myid/videos/uploadprogress/" + progress_key, function(data) { alert('data'); if (data == null) { clearInterval(i); location.reload(true); return; } var response; eval ("response = " + data); if (!response) return; var percentage = Math.floor(100 * parseInt(response['bytes_uploaded']) / parseInt(response['bytes_total'])); $("#progressbar").progressbar({value:percentage}); }, 1500); }); } }); </script> Has anyone had strange troubles with this before? The upload key is the same on the view and the uploadprogress method. I've Tried apc and pecl upload-progress both return false or null. I wondering if it's just suhosin patch messing up everything?

  Read the article

• Hooking the http/https protocol in IE causes GET requests to be sequential

  - by watsonmw

  I'm using the PassthruAPP method to hook into HTTP/HTTPS requests made by IE. It's working well for the most part, however I noticed a problem. Only one download thread is active at a time. I can see two IInternetProtocol objects getting created, but IE uses only one at a time. This is happening with IE7. The odd thing is that the problem occurs when overriding the existing default HTTP/HTTPS handler, even if the handler is not the one being used to make the request. E.g. Registering a handler for the HTTPS protocol will cause HTTP requests to be made sequentially, even though HTTP requests are not hooked. I installed Google Gears and it has the same problem. This always happens for the first few items on the page, but it seems that after the document complete is issued, concurrent downloads can occur again. For example Javascript code that is executed after the page has finished loading can load images concurrently just fine. One option is to try to IAT patch the 'IInternetProtocol' registered for HTTP requests, but Google Gears does this already and it has the same problem. I know installing a HTTP Proxy is another option, but I don't want to monkey with the users' HTTP Proxy settings if there another option.

  Read the article

• Trying to return data asynchronously using jQuery AND jSon in MVC 2.0

  - by Calibre2010

  Hi, I am trying to use Jquerys getJSON method to return data server side to my browser, what happens is the url the getJSON method points to does get reached but upon the postback the result does not get returned to the browser for some odd reason. I wasen't sure if it was because I was using MVC 2.0 and jQuery 1.4.1 and it differs to the MVC 1.0 version and jQuerys 1.3.2 version. . this is the code sections Controller public JsonResult StringReturn() { NameDTO myName = new NameDTO(); myName.nameID = 1; myName.name= "James"; myName.nameDescription = "Jmaes"; return Json(myName); } View with JQuery <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#myButton").click(function () { $.getJSON("Home/StringReturn/", null, function (data) { alert(data.name); $("#show").append($("<div>" + data.name + "</div>")); }); }); }); </script> HTML <input type="button" value="clickMe" id="myButton"/> <div id="show">d</div>

  Read the article

• Questions about the MVC architecture

  - by ah123

  I started coding a considerably complicated web application, and it became quite a mess. So I figured I'd try to organize it in a better way. MVC seemed appropriate. I've never used MVC before, and researching about it I'm trying to consolidate a better perception of it (and my questions obviously reflect what I think I've learned so far). My questions are slightly JavaScript oriented: What object should make "AJAX" requests? The Controller or the Model? (seperation -- should the Model just store/manipulate the data, should it not care/know where the data came from, or should it be the one fetching it?) Should the Model call View functions providing them with data as arguments or should the View query (reference) the Model within itself? (seperation principles in mind, "the View shouldn't care/know where it gets the data from" -- is that correct?) In general, should the View "know" of the Model's existance, and vice-versa? Is the Controller the only thing gluing them together or is that simply incorrect? (I really doubt that statement is generally correct) There's a good chance I'd want to port this into a desktop/mobile application, so I would like to seperate components in a way that will allow me to achieve that task, replacing the current source of the data, HTTP requests, with DB access, and replacing the View. Maybe every approach that I've asked about is still "valid" MVC and it's just up to me to choose. I understand that nothing is set in stone, I'm just trying to have a (better) general idea in my head.

  Read the article

• What am I missing in IIS7?

  - by faded19

  Hello All, Ok here is my dilemma, I have been developing on a shared host at discountasp.net (IIS 6)for some time now. All was going well, however now that app is complete we are moving it to its own dedicated server which is now server 2008 and IIS 7. I am currently using asp forms authentication (which again seems to work just fine on IIS6) The issue seems to occur after I click login, it pops the "Signing In" box..an error then arises in the JavaScript of Membership.js "Object Does not Support Membership.js" I verified that the code was making it to: membership.BeginLogin(uid, pwd, rememberme); and was in fact passing the correct variables. Another odd thing I noticed when setting the forms permissions is that when I went to select Users or Roles within the IIS 7 management console it would take forever, and then time out with the following error: A Network related or instance specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not or was not accessible, verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections (provider - named pipes provider: error 40 - could not open a connection to SQL Server.) I am rather weak on the hardware/configure side of the house so I am not really sure what the issue is, it’s almost as if IIS7 cannot see the DB. They both reside on the same server however. If anyone could help point me in the right direction as to how to resolve this I would be eternally grateful! Thanks in advance Bryan

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC Strongly Typed Widgets

  - by Ben

  I have developed a plugin system that makes it easy to plug in new logic to an application. Now I need to provide the ability to easily add UI widgets. There are already some good responses on how to create a portal system (like iGoogle) with ASP.NET MVC, and I'm fine about the overall concept. My question is really about how we make strongly typed widgets. Essentially when we set up a widget we define the controller and action names that are used to render that widget. We can use one controller action for widgets that are not strongly typed (since we just return PartialView(widgetControlName) without a model) For widgets that are strongly typed (for example to an IList) we would need to add a new controller action (since I believe it is not possible to use Generics with ActionResult e.g. ActionResult). The important thing is that the widget developers should not change the main application controllers. So my two thoughts are this: Create new controllers in a separate class library Create one partial WidgetController in the main web project and then extend this in other projects (is this even possible?) - not possible as per @mfeingold As far as the development of the widgets (user controls) go, we can just use post build events from our extension projects to copy these into the Views/Widgets directory. Is this a good approach. I am interested to here how others have handled this scenario. Thanks Ben P.S - in case it helps, an example of how we can render widgets - without using Javascript <%foreach (var widget in Model) {%> <%if (widget.IsStronglyTyped) { Html.RenderAction(widget.Action, widget.Controller); } else { Html.RenderPartial(widget.ControlName); } %> <%} %>

  Read the article

• Get Mechanize to handle cookies from an arbitrary POST (to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ progra

  - by Horace Loeb

  I want to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ programmatically. My first idea was to use Mechanize to submit the login form: However, it turns out that this isn't even a real form. Instead, when you click "Log in" some javascript grabs the values of the fields, creates a new form dynamically, and submits it. "Log in" button HTML: <button onclick="handleLogin(); return false;" class="btnBlue" id="myTMobile-login"><span>Log in</span></button> The handleLogin() function: function handleLogin() { if (ValidateMsisdnPassword()) { // client-side form validation logic var a = document.createElement("FORM"); a.name = "form1"; a.method = "POST"; a.action = mytmoUrl; // defined elsewhere as https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx var c = document.createElement("INPUT"); c.type = "HIDDEN"; c.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-phone").value; // the value of the phone number input field c.name = "txtMSISDN"; a.appendChild(c); var b = document.createElement("INPUT"); b.type = "HIDDEN"; b.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-password").value; // the value of the password input field b.name = "txtPassword"; a.appendChild(b); document.body.appendChild(a); a.submit(); return true } else { return false } } I could simulate this form submission by POSTing the form data to https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx with Net::HTTP#post_form, but I don't know how to get the resultant cookie into Mechanize so I can continue to scrape the UI available when I'm logged in. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• django : Serving static files through nginx

  - by PlanetUnknown

  I'm using apache+mod_wsgi for django. And all css/js/images are served through nginx. For some odd, reason when others/friends/colleagues try accessing the site, jquery/css is not getting loaded for them, hence the page looks jumbled up. My html files use code like this - <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="http://x.x.x.x:8000/css/custom.css"/> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://1x.x.x.x:8000/js/custom.js"></script> My nginx configuration in sites-available is like this - server { listen 8000; server_name localhost; access_log /var/log/nginx/aa8000.access.log; error_log /var/log/nginx/aa8000.error.log; location / { index index.html index.htm; } location /static/ { autoindex on; root /opt/aa/webroot/; } } There is a directory /opt/aa/webroot/static/ which have corresponding css & js directories. The odd thing is that the pages show fine when I access them. I have cleared my cache/etc, but the page loads fine for me, from various browsers. Also, I don't see 404 any error in the nginx log files. Any pointers would be great.

  Read the article

• vSphere ESX 5.5 hosts cannot connect to NFS Server

  - by Gerald

  Summary: My problem is I cannot use the QNAP NFS Server as an NFS datastore from my ESX hosts despite the hosts being able to ping it. I'm utilising a vDS with LACP uplinks for all my network traffic (including NFS) and a subnet for each vmkernel adapter. Setup: I'm evaluating vSphere and I've got two vSphere ESX 5.5 hosts (node1 and node2) and each one has 4x NICs. I've teamed them all up using LACP/802.3ad with my switch and then created a distributed switch between the two hosts with each host's LAG as the uplink. All my networking is going through the distributed switch, ideally, I want to take advantage of DRS and the redundancy. I have a domain controller VM ("Central") and vCenter VM ("vCenter") running on node1 (using node1's local datastore) with both hosts attached to the vCenter instance. Both hosts are in a vCenter datacenter and a cluster with HA and DRS currently disabled. I have a QNAP TS-669 Pro (Version 4.0.3) (TS-x69 series is on VMware Storage HCL) which I want to use as the NFS server for my NFS datastore, it has 2x NICs teamed together using 802.3ad with my switch. vmkernel.log: The error from the host's vmkernel.log is not very useful: NFS: 157: Command: (mount) Server: (10.1.2.100) IP: (10.1.2.100) Path: (/VM) Label (datastoreNAS) Options: (None) cpu9:67402)StorageApdHandler: 698: APD Handle 509bc29f-13556457 Created with lock[StorageApd0x411121] cpu10:67402)StorageApdHandler: 745: Freeing APD Handle [509bc29f-13556457] cpu10:67402)StorageApdHandler: 808: APD Handle freed! cpu10:67402)NFS: 168: NFS mount 10.1.2.100:/VM failed: Unable to connect to NFS server. Network Setup: Here is my distributed switch setup (JPG). Here are my networks. 10.1.1.0/24 VM Management (VLAN 11) 10.1.2.0/24 Storage Network (NFS, VLAN 12) 10.1.3.0/24 VM vMotion (VLAN 13) 10.1.4.0/24 VM Fault Tolerance (VLAN 14) 10.2.0.0/24 VM's Network (VLAN 20) vSphere addresses 10.1.1.1 node1 Management 10.1.1.2 node2 Management 10.1.2.1 node1 vmkernel (For NFS) 10.1.2.2 node2 vmkernel (For NFS) etc. Other addresses 10.1.2.100 QNAP TS-669 (NFS Server) 10.2.0.1 Domain Controller (VM on node1) 10.2.0.2 vCenter (VM on node1) I'm using a Cisco SRW2024P Layer-2 switch (Jumboframes enabled) with the following setup: LACP LAG1 for node1 (Ports 1 through 4) setup as VLAN trunk for VLANs 11-14,20 LACP LAG2 for my router (Ports 5 through 8) setup as VLAN trunk for VLANs 11-14,20 LACP LAG3 for node2 (Ports 9 through 12) setup as VLAN trunk for VLANs 11-14,20 LACP LAG4 for the QNAP (Ports 23 and 24) setup to accept untagged traffic into VLAN 12 Each subnet is routable to another, although, connections to the NFS server from vmk1 shouldn't need it. All other traffic (vSphere Web Client, RDP etc.) goes through this setup fine. I tested the QNAP NFS server beforehand using ESX host VMs atop of a VMware Workstation setup with a dedicated physical NIC and it had no problems. The ACL on the NFS Server share is permissive and allows all subnet ranges full access to the share. I can ping the QNAP from node1 vmk1, the adapter that should be used to NFS: ~ # vmkping -I vmk1 10.1.2.100 PING 10.1.2.100 (10.1.2.100): 56 data bytes 64 bytes from 10.1.2.100: icmp_seq=0 ttl=64 time=0.371 ms 64 bytes from 10.1.2.100: icmp_seq=1 ttl=64 time=0.161 ms 64 bytes from 10.1.2.100: icmp_seq=2 ttl=64 time=0.241 ms Netcat does not throw an error: ~ # nc -z 10.1.2.100 2049 Connection to 10.1.2.100 2049 port [tcp/nfs] succeeded! The routing table of node1: ~ # esxcfg-route -l VMkernel Routes: Network Netmask Gateway Interface 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 Local Subnet vmk0 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 Local Subnet vmk1 10.1.3.0 255.255.255.0 Local Subnet vmk2 10.1.4.0 255.255.255.0 Local Subnet vmk3 default 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.254 vmk0 VM Kernel NIC info ~ # esxcfg-vmknic -l Interface Port Group/DVPort IP Family IP Address Netmask Broadcast MAC Address MTU TSO MSS Enabled Type vmk0 133 IPv4 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 10.1.1.255 00:50:56:66:8e:5f 1500 65535 true STATIC vmk0 133 IPv6 fe80::250:56ff:fe66:8e5f 64 00:50:56:66:8e:5f 1500 65535 true STATIC, PREFERRED vmk1 164 IPv4 10.1.2.1 255.255.255.0 10.1.2.255 00:50:56:68:f5:1f 1500 65535 true STATIC vmk1 164 IPv6 fe80::250:56ff:fe68:f51f 64 00:50:56:68:f5:1f 1500 65535 true STATIC, PREFERRED vmk2 196 IPv4 10.1.3.1 255.255.255.0 10.1.3.255 00:50:56:66:18:95 1500 65535 true STATIC vmk2 196 IPv6 fe80::250:56ff:fe66:1895 64 00:50:56:66:18:95 1500 65535 true STATIC, PREFERRED vmk3 228 IPv4 10.1.4.1 255.255.255.0 10.1.4.255 00:50:56:72:e6:ca 1500 65535 true STATIC vmk3 228 IPv6 fe80::250:56ff:fe72:e6ca 64 00:50:56:72:e6:ca 1500 65535 true STATIC, PREFERRED Things I've tried/checked: I'm not using DNS names to connect to the NFS server. Checked MTU. Set to 9000 for vmk1, dvSwitch and Cisco switch and QNAP. Moved QNAP onto VLAN 11 (VM Management, vmk0) and gave it an appropriate address, still had same issue. Changed back afterwards of course. Tried initiating the connection of NAS datastore from vSphere Client (Connected to vCenter or directly to host), vSphere Web Client and the host's ESX Shell. All resulted in the same problem. Tried a path name of "VM", "/VM" and "/share/VM" despite not even having a connection to server. I plugged in a linux system (10.1.2.123) into a switch port configured for VLAN 12 and tried mounting the NFS share 10.1.2.100:/VM, it worked successfully and I had read-write access to it I tried disabling the firewall on the ESX host esxcli network firewall set --enabled false I'm out of ideas on what to try next. The things I'm doing differently from my VMware Workstation setup is the use of LACP with a physical switch and a virtual distributed switch between the two hosts. I'm guessing the vDS is probably the source of my troubles but I don't know how to fix this problem without eliminating it.

  Read the article

• Passing JSON object from Controller to View(jsp)

  - by user752233

  I am trying to send JSON object to my view from controller but unable to send it. Please help me out! I am using following code public class SystemController extends AbstractController{ protected ModelAndView handleRequestInternal(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView mav = new ModelAndView("SystemInfo", "System", "S"); response.setContentType("application/json;charset=UTF-8"); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); JSONObject jsonResult = new JSONObject(); jsonResult.put("JVMVendor", System.getProperty("java.vendor")); jsonResult.put("JVMVersion", System.getProperty("java.version")); jsonResult.put("JVMVendorURL", System.getProperty("java.vendor.url")); jsonResult.put("OSName", System.getProperty("os.name")); jsonResult.put("OSVersion", System.getProperty("os.version")); jsonResult.put("OSArchitectire", System.getProperty("os.arch")); response.getWriter().write(jsonResult.toString()); // response.getWriter().close(); return mav; // return modelandview object } } and in the view side I am using <script type="text/javascript"> Ext.onReady(function(response) { //Ext.MessageBox.alert('Hello', 'The DOM is ready!'); var showExistingScreen = function () { Ext.Ajax.request({ url : 'system.htm', method : 'POST', scope : this, success: function ( response ) { alert('1'); var existingValues = Ext.util.JSON.decode(response.responseText); alert('2'); } }); }; return showExistingScreen(); });

  Read the article

• web browser become slow or no response after several ajax calls

  - by Patrick

  I'm totally newbie to jquery and ajax, my recently project is to help the representatives (reps) to manage customer quotations online. I have a page which displays all the quotations in a big table. I've managed to use ajax to fetch and display the quotations which associate to a particular rep after i click that rep's name. But the only problem is the speed of response. The first few clicks are ok and very smooth. But after several tries, the response become slow and I cant even scroll down the webpage, and later on the web browser craches.... Please have a look at my ajax code. here it is: <!-- AJAX FETCH QUOTES DATA + Tablesorter + FIXED TABLE HEADER--> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ $(function(){ $("a.repID").click(function(){ $('div#loader').append("<p align='center'><img src='images/loadingbar2.gif' id='loading' /></p>"); var repID = $(this).attr("title"); $.ajax({ type:'POST', url:'quote_info.php', data:'repID=' + repID, cache: false, success:function(data) { $("#container").html('<div id="content">' + data + '</div>'); $("#loading").fadeOut(500, function() {$(this).remove();}); $("#sortme").tablesorter(); $('.tbl').fixedtableheader(); } }); return false; }); }); </script> <!-- AJAX FETCH QUOTES DATA + Tablesorter + FIXED TABLE HEADER-->

  Read the article

• using jquery (json) to get ajax database entries in wordpress - PHP not working

  - by Matt Facer

  I'm writing a plugin for my wordpress site and am having trouble understanding the jquery ajax requests. In a nutshell, I am trying to get some user meta data loaded when the page loads. So in my javascript file I have a line: $.getJSON("http://mysite.co.uk/wp-content/plugins/myplugin/ajax/ajax.php?action=test", function(json) { // do stuff }); So the above DOES get called, but it's the PHP code I'm having trouble with. In the file ajax.php, I am making a database call, but NONE of the usual class information is available. I've tried including the admin ajax page, various other pages from my own plugin (which does work).... not sure what else to do! The database call method works OK in my plugin code.. but I guess that the ajax.php file is outside the WP framework so that's why it's not working... but I don't know how to get it IN the framework!? I just need to use the $wpdb->get_results($sql); command to get my SQL. The error returned from firebug is that I am making a call to an undefined function. Thanks for any help... $.getJSON("http://www.offbeatattractions.co.uk/wp-content/plugins/wp-geo-extended/ajax/change_location.php?action=listpoints", function(json) { alert(json.Locations.length);

  Read the article

• Disable antialiasing for a specific GDI device context

  - by Jacob Stanley

  I'm using a third party library to render an image to a GDI DC and I need to ensure that any text is rendered without any smoothing/antialiasing so that I can convert the image to a predefined palette with indexed colors. The third party library i'm using for rendering doesn't support this and just renders text as per the current windows settings for font rendering. They've also said that it's unlikely they'll add the ability to switch anti-aliasing off any time soon. The best work around I've found so far is to call the third party library in this way (error handling and prior settings checks ommitted for brevity): private static void SetFontSmoothing(bool enabled) { int pv = 0; SystemParametersInfo(Spi.SetFontSmoothing, enabled ? 1 : 0, ref pv, Spif.None); } // snip Graphics graphics = Graphics.FromImage(bitmap) IntPtr deviceContext = graphics.GetHdc(); SetFontSmoothing(false); thirdPartyComponent.Render(deviceContext); SetFontSmoothing(true); This obviously has a horrible effect on the operating system, other applications flicker from cleartype enabled to disabled and back every time I render the image. So the question is, does anyone know how I can alter the font rendering settings for a specific DC? Even if I could just make the changes process or thread specific instead of affecting the whole operating system, that would be a big step forward! (That would give me the option of farming this rendering out to a separate process- the results are written to disk after rendering anyway) EDIT: I'd like to add that I don't mind if the solution is more complex than just a few API calls. I'd even be happy with a solution that involved hooking system dlls if it was only about a days work. EDIT: Background Information The third-party library renders using a palette of about 70 colors. After the image (which is actually a map tile) is rendered to the DC, I convert each pixel from it's 32-bit color back to it's palette index and store the result as an 8bpp greyscale image. This is uploaded to the video card as a texture. During rendering, I re-apply the palette (also stored as a texture) with a pixel shader executing on the video card. This allows me to switch and fade between different palettes instantaneously instead of needing to regenerate all the required tiles. It takes between 10-60 seconds to generate and upload all the tiles for a typical view of the world. EDIT: Renamed GraphicsDevice to Graphics The class GraphicsDevice in the previous version of this question is actually System.Drawing.Graphics. I had renamed it (using GraphicsDevice = ...) because the code in question is in the namespace MyCompany.Graphics and the compiler wasn't able resolve it properly. EDIT: Success! I even managed to port the PatchIat function below to C# with the help of Marshal.GetFunctionPointerForDelegate. The .NET interop team really did a fantastic job! I'm now using the following syntax, where Patch is an extension method on System.Diagnostics.ProcessModule: module.Patch( "Gdi32.dll", "CreateFontIndirectA", (CreateFontIndirectA original) => font => { font->lfQuality = NONANTIALIASED_QUALITY; return original(font); }); private unsafe delegate IntPtr CreateFontIndirectA(LOGFONTA* lplf); private const int NONANTIALIASED_QUALITY = 3; [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] private struct LOGFONTA { public int lfHeight; public int lfWidth; public int lfEscapement; public int lfOrientation; public int lfWeight; public byte lfItalic; public byte lfUnderline; public byte lfStrikeOut; public byte lfCharSet; public byte lfOutPrecision; public byte lfClipPrecision; public byte lfQuality; public byte lfPitchAndFamily; public unsafe fixed sbyte lfFaceName [32]; }

  Read the article

• HTML button to NOT submit form

  - by arik-so

  Hello, I have a form. Outside that form, I have a button. A simple button, like this: <button>My Button</button> Nevertheless, when I click it, it submits the form. Here's the code: <form id="myform"> <input /> </form> <button>My Button</button> All this button should do is some JavaScript. But even when it looks just like in the code above, it submits the form. When I change the tag button to span, it works perfectly. But unfortunately, it needs to be a button. Is there any way to block that button from submitting the form? Like e. g. <button onclick="document.getElementById('myform').doNotSubmit();">My Button</button> Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 1033 1034 1035 1036 1037 1038 1039 1040 1041 1042 1043 1044  | Next Page >