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  • Get directory path by fd

    - by tylerl
    I've run into the need to be able refer to a directory by path given its file descriptor in Linux. The path doesn't have to be canonical, it just has to be functional so that I can pass it to other functions. So, taking the same parameters as passed to a function like fstatat(), I need to be able to call a function like getxattr() which doesn't have a f-XYZ-at() variant. So far I've come up with these solutions; though none are particularly elegant. The simplest solution is to avoid the problem by calling openat() and then using a function like fgetxattr(). This works, but not in every situation. So another method is needed to fill the gaps. The next solution involves looking up the information in proc: if (!access("/proc/self/fd",X_OK)) { sprintf(path,"/proc/self/fd/%i/",fd); } This, of course, totally breaks on systems without proc, including some chroot environments. The last option, a more portable but potentially-race-condition-prone solution, looks like this: DIR* save = opendir("."); fchdir(fd); getcwd(path,PATH_MAX); fchdir(dirfd(save)); closedir(save); The obvious problem here is that in a multithreaded app, changing the working directory around could have side effects. However, the fact that it works is compelling: if I can get the path of a directory by calling fchdir() followed by getcwd(), why shouldn't I be able to just get the information directly: fgetcwd() or something. Clearly the kernel is tracking the necessary information. So how do I get to it?

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  • Monads and custom traversal functions in Haskell

    - by Bill
    Given the following simple BST definition: data Tree x = Empty | Leaf x | Node x (Tree x) (Tree x) deriving (Show, Eq) inOrder :: Tree x -> [x] inOrder Empty = [] inOrder (Leaf x) = [x] inOrder (Node root left right) = inOrder left ++ [root] ++ inOrder right I'd like to write an in-order function that can have side effects. I achieved that with: inOrderM :: (Show x, Monad m) => (x -> m a) -> Tree x -> m () inOrderM f (Empty) = return () inOrderM f (Leaf y) = f y >> return () inOrderM f (Node root left right) = inOrderM f left >> f root >> inOrderM f right -- print tree in order to stdout inOrderM print tree This works fine, but it seems repetitive - the same logic is already present in inOrder and my experience with Haskell leads me to believe that I'm probably doing something wrong if I'm writing a similar thing twice. Is there any way that I can write a single function inOrder that can take either pure or monadic functions?

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  • PayPal return URL

    - by Sam
    Here's the code for my Paypal button: <form action="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_xclick"> <input type="hidden" name="business" value="[email protected]"> <input type="hidden" name="lc" value="GB"> <input type="hidden" name="button_subtype" value="products"> <input type="hidden" name="no_note" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name="no_shipping" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name="rm" value="0"> <input type="hidden" name="return" value="http://www.example.com"> <input type="hidden" name="item_name" value="My Item"> <input type="hidden" name="amount" value="25.00"> <input type="hidden" name="currency_code" value="GBP"> <input type="hidden" name="bn" value="PP-BuyNowBF:proceed_btn.gif:NonHosted"> <input type="hidden" name="item_number" value="4BD9569402CDE"> <input type="image" src="http://www.example.com/image.gif" border="0" name="submit" alt="PayPal - The safer, easier way to pay online."> <img alt="" border="0" src="https://www.paypal.com/en_GB/i/scr/pixel.gif" width="1" height="1"> </form> Is it possible to add the item_number to the return URL? For example, after completing the payment within PayPal the user gets sent back to http://www.example.com?item_number=4BD9569402CDE

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  • paypal verify payment

    - by yozhik
    I am testing PayPal payments through Sandbox. So what do I do: Make a payment from my Android device, using SDK AppID: "APP-80W284485P519543T". Receive RESULT_OK in applicationResult and receive response on server side through IPN service. Now I am taking all responce from IPN and send it to paypal verification sandbox server to verify payment. It cat return (VERIFIED or INVALID). But the problem is that it is return INVALID. So whats can be the problem? What I am doing wrong? Thanks. This is what I send to verify: https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_notify-validate&payment_request_date=Mon+Mar+26+02%3A37%3A10+PDT+2012&fees_payer=EACHRECEIVER&transaction[0].is_primary_receiver=false&memo=Buy+1500+coins&transaction_type=Adaptive+Payment+PAY&verify_sign=AWimjEpfvS2eR6IgBwHtiwM0rMDUA.b2twU2ADjkAY-kg5szeluxcqKb&log_default_shipping_address_in_transaction=false&pay_key=AP-2YR77828AV574621G&transaction[0].amount=USD+1.99&reverse_all_parallel_payments_on_error=true&ipn_notification_url=http%3A%2F%2Fdev-vs.upiter.com%2Fvspayment%2Fproviders%2Fvs%2Ffb%2Fpaypalcallback&action_type=CREATE&notify_version=UNVERSIONED&transaction[0].status_for_sender_txn=Pending&test_ipn=1&cancel_url=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.paypal.com&transaction[0].pending_reason=UNILATERAL&status=COMPLETED&charset=windows-1252&transaction[0].paymentType=GOODS&request_body=&request_url=http%3A%2F%2Fdev-vs-mobile.stagika.com%2Fvspayment%2Fproviders%2Fvs%2Ffb%2Fpaypalcallback&return_url=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.paypal.com&transaction[0].receiver=a.merchant1.kv%40gmail.com&request_method=POST&transaction[0].id_for_sender_txn=0X355330VH030952T&sender.useCredentials=true

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  • Email Tracking - GMail

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I am creating my own email tracking system for email marketing tracking. I have been able to determine each persons email client they are using by using the http referrer but for some reason GMAIL does not send a HTTP_REFERRER at all! So I am trying to find another way of identifying when gmail requests a transparent image from my server. I get the following headers print_r($_SERVER);: DOCUMENT_ROOT = /usr/local/apache/htdocs GATEWAY_INTERFACE = CGI/1.1 HTTP_ACCEPT = */* HTTP_ACCEPT_CHARSET = ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.3 HTTP_ACCEPT_ENCODING = gzip,deflate,sdch HTTP_ACCEPT_LANGUAGE = en-GB,en-US;q=0.8,en;q=0.6 HTTP_CONNECTION = keep-alive HTTP_COOKIE = __utmz=156230011.1290976484.1.1.utmcsr=(direct)|utmccn=(direct)|utmcmd=(none); __utma=156230011.422791272.1290976484.1293034866.1293050468.7 HTTP_HOST = xx.xxx.xx.xxx HTTP_USER_AGENT = Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US) AppleWebKit/534.10 (KHTML, like Gecko) Chrome/8.0.552.237 Safari/534.10 PATH = /bin:/usr/bin QUERY_STRING = i=MTA= REDIRECT_STATUS = 200 REMOTE_ADDR = xx.xxx.xx.xxx REMOTE_PORT = 61296 REQUEST_METHOD = GET Is there anything of use in that list? Or is there something else I can do to actually get the http referrer, if not how are other ESPs managing to find whether gmail was used to view an email? Btw, I appreciate it if we can hold back on whether this is ethical or not as many ESPs do this already, I just don't want to pay for their service and I want to do it internally. Thanks all for any implementation advice. Update Just thought I would update this question and make it clearer in light of the bounty. I would like to find out when a user opens my email when sent to a GMail inbox. Assume, I have the usual transparent image tracking and the user does not block images. I would like to do this with the single request and the header details I get when the transparent image is requested.

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  • JQuery Autocomplete plugin not working with JQuery 1.4.1

    - by Russ Clark
    I've been using the JQuery Autocomplete plugin with JQuery version 1.3.2, and it has been working great. I recently updated JQuery in my project to version 1.4.2, and the Autocomplete plugin is now broken. The JQuery code to add items to a textbox on my web page doesn't seem to be getting called at all. Does anyone know if the JQuery Autocomplete plugin is incompatible with JQuery version 1.4.2, and if there is a fix for this problem? Here is some sample code I've built in an ASP.Net web site (which works fine if I change the JQuery file to jquery-1.3.2.js, but nothing happens using jquery-1.4.2.js): <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.4.2.js" ></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.autocomplete.js" ></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var data = "Core Selectors Attributes Traversing Manipulation CSS Events Effects Ajax Utilities".split(" "); $(':input:text:id$=sapleUser').autocomplete(data); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> API Reference: <input id="sapleUser" autocomplete="off" type="text" runat="server" /> (try "C" or "E") </form> </body> </html>

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  • Code Own Socket Server or Use Red5/ElectroServer on Amazon EC2?

    - by Travis
    I've been thinking for a long time about working on a multiplayer game in Flash. I need updates frequently enough that ajax requests won't work so I need to use a socket server. The system will eventually have enough objects/players that I would consider it an MMO. I would like to set up a scalable system on Amazon's EC2. (Which probably effects my choice of server) This architecture would hopefully allow the game to grow without many changes over time. (Using a domain decomposition technique or something similar) Heres my internal debate: Should I a. Code my own socket server in C++ or Java? b. Use the free and open source Red5 socket server for Flash? or c. Pay the licensing fees and go for Electroserver? I consider myself a decent developer, but am at an impasse as to what road to go down. I'm not sure if I, could develop/would need, the features of one of the prepackaged socket servers. I'm also not sure if the prepackaged servers would work well in an Amazon EC2 environment and take full advantage of its features. Any help or guidance would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Cocoa/Objective-C - Child window with text input without main window becoming inactive

    - by Josh
    Hello All, I have a need to spawn a window that will hover just above my main window in a cocoa application. I want this main window to allow the user to enter some text in an input box. All is well until the text input box actually gains focus. The main window becomes "deactivated." This window is borderless and is a slightly custom shape -- its more like a hover card than anything else, I suppose. Basically, I'd like this thing to work almost exactly like Spotlight (Apple + Space) -- you can enter text, but this is such an an ancillary operation that in the context of the greater UX, you don't want the jarring effect of the main window graying out (becoming inactive). You'll notice when you have some application open and in-focus, spotlight will not cause the window of that application to become inactive. This problem arises because text input seems to REQUIRE that the child window become the key window (it will not let you place the cursor in the text input field). When it becomes key, the main window becomes inactive. So far I've tried: Subclassing NSWindow for my main application and overriding isKeyWindow such that it only loses key when the application is no longer the users focus (as opposed to the window). This had the unintended effect of colliding with key status of the child window and having very strange effects on the keyboard input (some keys are not captured, like delete) Creating a view instead of a window. Doesn't work because of this problem -- you cannot draw over a Webkit WebView these days. Anybody Cocoa/OSX wizards have any ideas? I've become a little obsessed with this one. An itch I can't scratch.

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  • How to persist objects between requests in PHP

    - by SztupY
    I've been using rails, merb, django and asp.net mvc applications in the past. What they have common (that is relevant to the question) is that they have code that sets up the framework. This usually means creating objects and state that is persisted until the web server is recycled (like setting up routing, or checking which controllers are available, etc). As far as I know PHP is more like a CGI script that gets compiled to some bytecode each time it's run, and after the request it's discarded. Of course you can have sessions, to persist data between requests from the same user, and as I see there are extensions like APC, with which you can persist objects between requests at the server level. My question is: how can one create a PHP application that works like rails and such? I mean an application that on the first requests sets up the framework, then on the 2nd and later requests use the objects that are already set up. Is there some built in caching facility in mod_php? (for example that stores the compiled bytecode of the executed php applications) Or is using APC or some similar extensions the only way to solve this problem? How would you do it? Thanks.

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  • How Can I: Generate 40/64 Bit WEP Key In Python?

    - by Aktariel
    So, I've been beating my head against the wall of this issue for several months now, partly because it's a side interest and partly because I suck at programming. I've searched and researched all across the web, but have not had any luck (except one small bit of success; see below), so I thought I might try asking the experts. What I am trying to do is, as the title suggests, generate a 40/64 bit WEP key from a passphrase, according to the "de facto" standard. (A site such as [http://www.powerdog.com/wepkey.cgi] produces the expected outputs.) I have already written portions of the script that take inputs and write them to a file; one of the inputs would be the passphrase, sanitized to lower case. For the longest time I had no idea what the defacto standard was, much less how to even go about implementing it. I finally stumbled across a paper (http://www.lava.net/~newsham/wlan/WEP_password_cracker.pdf) that sheds as much light as I've had yet on the issue (page 18 has the relevant bits). Apparently, the passphrase is "mapped to a 32-bit value with XOR," the result of which is then used as the seed for a "linear congruential PRNG (which one of the several PRNGs Python has would fit this description, I don't know), and then from that result several bits of the result are taken. I have no idea how to go about implementing this, since the description is rather vague. What I need is help in writing the generator in Python, and also in understanding how exactly the key is generated. I'm not much of a programmer, so explanations are appreciated as well. (Yes, I know that WEP isn't secure.)

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  • XSP2 crashes serving static images

    - by Dawkins
    Hi, Requesting a simple HTML page with a jpg image makes XSP2 crash. If I remove the image from the HTML then the page is served OK all the time. The version is XSP2 2.0 mono 2.6.1. the version 2.4.2.2 in the same machine works fine. I have tested it in two different machines, both Windows Vista Business SP1. Anyone has experienced the same? Any clue of what can be the problem? Below is the stack trace displayed by the console: (The line in Spanish says "it has been forced the interruption of an existing connection by the remote host") EDIT: since another user is having the same problem I have submited a bug to Novell and created a litle zip to reproduce the problem: https://bugzilla.novell.com/show_bug.cgi?id=582162 Peer unexpectedly closed the connection on write. Closing our end. System.IO.IOException: Write failure ---> System.Net.Sockets.SocketException: Se ha forzado la interrupción de una conexión existente por el host remoto. at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.Send (System.Byte[] buf, Int32 offset, Int32 size , SocketFlags flags) [0x00000] in <filename unknown>:0 at System.Net.Sockets.NetworkStream.Write (System.Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) [0x00000] in <filename unknown>:0 --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Net.Sockets.NetworkStream.Write (System.Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) [0x00000] in <filename unknown>:0 at Mono.WebServer.XSPWorker.Write (System.Byte[] buffer, Int32 position, Int32 size) [0x00000] in <filename unknown>:0 Peer unexpectedly closed the connection on write. Closing our end. System.ObjectDisposedException: The object was used after being disposed. at System.Net.Sockets.NetworkStream.CheckDisposed () [0x00000] in <filename un known>:0 at System.Net.Sockets.NetworkStream.Write (System.Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) [0x00000] in <filename unknown>:0 at Mono.WebServer.XSPWorker.Write (System.Byte[] buffer, Int32 position, Int32 size) [0x00000] in <filename unknown>:0 Thank you.

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  • How to copy x and y coordinate from one Flex component to another

    - by Tam
    Hi, I would like to base one component's x and y cooridnates according to another, I tried using the binding notation but it doesn't seem to work! <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:VGroup xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/halo" xmlns:vld ="com.lal.validators.*" xmlns:effect="com.lal.effects.*" xmlns:components="com.lal.components.*" width="400" height="100%" right="0" horizontalAlign="right" verticalCenter="0"> ...... <s:VGroup width="125" height="100%" horizontalAlign="right" gap="0" width.normal="153" x.normal="247" width.expanded="199" x.expanded="201"> ...... <s:Panel includeIn="expanded" id="buttonsGroup" mouseOut="changeStateToNormal();" mouseOver="stopChangeToNormal();" skinClass="com.lal.skins.TitlelessPanel" title="hi" right="0" width="125" height="700" > ..... <s:Label text="Jump To Date" paddingTop="20" /> <s:TextInput id="wholeDate" width="100" mouseOver="stopChangeToNormal();" click="date1.visible = true" focusOut="date1.visible = false"/> ... </s:Panel> </s:VGroup> <mx:DateChooser id="date1" change="useDate(event); this.visible = false; " visible="false" mouseOver="stopChangeToNormal();" y="{wholeDate.y}" x="{wholeDate.x}" /> </s:VGroup>

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  • Child sProc cannot reference a Local temp table created in parent sProc

    - by John Galt
    On our production SQL2000 instance, we have a database with hundreds of stored procedures, many of which use a technique of creating a #TEMP table "early" on in the code and then various inner stored procedures get EXECUTEd by this parent sProc. In SQL2000, the inner or "child" sProc have no problem INSERTing into #TEMP or SELECTing data from #TEMP. In short, I assume they can all refer to this #TEMP because they use the same connection. In testing with SQL2008, I find 2 manifestations of different behavior. First, at design time, the new "intellisense" feature is complaining in Management Studio EDIT of the child sProc that #TEMP is an "invalid object name". But worse is that at execution time, the invoked parent sProc fails inside the nested child sProc. Someone suggested that the solution is to change to ##TEMP which is apparently a global temporary table which can be referenced from different connections. That seems too drastic a proposal both from the amount of work to chase down all the problem spots as well as possible/probable nasty effects when these sProcs are invoked from web applications (i.e. multiuser issues). Is this indeed a change in behavior in SQL2005 or SQL2008 regarding #TEMP (local temp tables)? We skipped 2005 but I'd like to learn more precisely why this is occuring before I go off and try to hack out the needed fixes. Thanks.

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  • using paypals html api is safe?

    - by ajsie
    im trying out paypals html api where you specify price, item_name, customer information and so on in the html: <form action="https://www.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" method="post" id="payPalForm"> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_cart" /> <input type="hidden" name="upload" value="1" /> <input type="hidden" name="no_note" value="1" /> <input type="hidden" name="business" value="[email protected]" /> <input type="hidden" name="currency_code" value="SEK" /> <input type="hidden" name="return" value="http://freelanceswitch.com/payment-complete/" /> <input type="hidden" name="tax_rate" value="25" /> <input type="hidden" name="item_name_1" value="Apple Macpro" /> <input type="hidden" name="item_number_1" value="01 - Product 1" /> <input type="hidden" name="amount_1" value="25000" /> <input type="hidden" name="item_name_2" value="Apple Macbook" /> <input type="hidden" name="item_number_2" value="02 - Product 2" /> <input type="hidden" name="amount_2" value="12500" /> <input type="hidden" name="item_name_3" value="Apple Macbook Air" /> <input type="hidden" name="item_number_3" value="03 - Product 3" /> <input type="hidden" name="amount_3" value="12500" /> <input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit" /> </form> when the user clicks submit it takes him/her to paypals payment page. but doesn't this mean that a hacker could change the order by manipulating the html code? i can´t figure out how paypal prevents this security problem.

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  • localhost not going to desired VirtualHost

    - by ladaghini
    I have several VirtalHosts set up on my computer. I'd like to visit the site I'm currently working on from a different PC using the my comp's ip address, but every config i've tried keeps taking me to a different virtual host (in fact the first virtualhost I set up on my comp). How do I set up the apache virtualhost configs to ensure that the ip address takes me to the site I want it to. /etc/apache2/sites-available/site-i-want-to-show-up-with-ip-address.conf contains: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin webmaster@localhost ServerAlias currentsite.com DocumentRoot /path/to/root/of/site-i-want-to-show-up ServerName localhost ScriptAlias /awstats/ /usr/lib/cgi-bin/ CustomLog /var/log/apache2/current-site-access.log combined </VirtualHost> And /etc/apache2/sites-available/site-that-keeps-showing-up.conf contains: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin webmaster@localhost ServerAlias theothersite.com DocumentRoot /path/to/it <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None </Directory> </VirtualHost> I'd appreciate anyone's help. Also, I don't know too much about configuring web servers, and I used tutorials to get the above code.

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  • Warning in image_graphviz

    - by garcon1986
    Hello, I have got a warning in image_graphviz, i have viewed a post, who has a similar error. I have installed pear image_graphviz package(Image_GraphViz-1.2.1), I also installed graphviz.msi(Graphviz2.25.msi) in windows(But i don't know if does something with image_graphviz and if it does have some effects when i use image_graphviz). Do i need to do something else? Here is my code from pear image_graphviz site. <?php require_once 'Image/GraphViz.php'; error_reporting(E_ALL ^ E_NOTICE); //Added E_NOTICE $gv = new Image_GraphViz(); $gv->addEdge(array('wake up' => 'visit bathroom')); $gv->addEdge(array('visit bathroom' => 'make coffee')); $gv->image(); ?> This is the warning: Warning: fopen(C:\WINDOWS\Temp\gra50.tmp.svg) [function.fopen]: failed to open stream: No such file or directory in C:\wamp\bin\php\php5.3.0\PEAR\Image\GraphViz.php on line 210 Notice: Undefined variable: data in C:\wamp\bin\php\php5.3.0\PEAR\Image\GraphViz.php on line 218 Thanks Pekka Gaiser, I used error_reporting(E_ALL ^ E_NOTICE);. I don't know how to change the temp directory, but c:/windows/temp exists in my computer. I haven't solve the problem. Thanks all for advice.

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  • Changing html content of a div before and after ajax request

    - by R27
    I am trying to change the button "ADD" (in a div) to some text/img as soon as it is clicked. And after the ajax request is processed, in the success block , I want the div to get the button back. I see the ajax request is itself not getting processed. Can someone explain whats my mistake. I just removed the jsfiddle link and pasting the script here to avoid confusion about the dependencies. JS script var ajax_load = "Please wait..."; jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("#add_button").click(function(event){ var st = $("#add_div").html(); $("#add_div").html(ajax_load); $("#sform").validate({ errorClass: "error", submitHandler: function (form) { alert('inside submit'); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: 'form.cgi', data: $("#sform").serialize(), success: function (msg) { alert('msg'); $("#add_div").html(st); $("#sform")[0].reset(); } }); } }); }); }); And the html piece is <form id=sform>LABEL <input id=field1 type=text> <div id="add_div"> <input type="button" value="ADD" id="add_button"> </div> </form> I have jquery.validate.min.js script included.

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  • Controlling the order of PicoContainer startup

    - by Trejkaz
    I have been tasked with doing some refactoring work on how we start up applications. Basically we have a bunch of console apps which were depending on the GUI application startup code, causing bogus dependencies which have kick-on effects for which libraries we need to ship, and which dependencies other modules need to declare. So I have written a simple startup framework where I basically just throw a bunch of Runnable objects into a list and then run them in order - and it works. But I was thinking - we already have PicoContainer in our project, so all these things that need to be run on startup could potentially be thrown into a PicoContainer, and if they implement Startable they will start... But in some cases we want to specify the ordering between them. For example, I don't want any other component writing to the log before we write a header into the log indicating that the application is starting up. I know I can introduce ordering by introducing injection dependencies, but this feels like a hack in this case - I would need to add the log header writer as a dependency for every other component which might write to the log, which isn't great at all. Nonetheless it seems like it would be nice to control the order of PicoContainer startup, so is there perhaps some other way? Alternatively I could just keep it simple and stick to my list of Runnable. It does, after all, work.

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  • Performance question: Inverting an array of pointers in-place vs array of values

    - by Anders
    The background for asking this question is that I am solving a linearized equation system (Ax=b), where A is a matrix (typically of dimension less than 100x100) and x and b are vectors. I am using a direct method, meaning that I first invert A, then find the solution by x=A^(-1)b. This step is repated in an iterative process until convergence. The way I'm doing it now, using a matrix library (MTL4): For every iteration I copy all coeffiecients of A (values) in to the matrix object, then invert. This the easiest and safest option. Using an array of pointers instead: For my particular case, the coefficients of A happen to be updated between each iteration. These coefficients are stored in different variables (some are arrays, some are not). Would there be a potential for performance gain if I set up A as an array containing pointers to these coefficient variables, then inverting A in-place? The nice thing about the last option is that once I have set up the pointers in A before the first iteration, I would not need to copy any values between successive iterations. The values which are pointed to in A would automatically be updated between iterations. So the performance question boils down to this, as I see it: - The matrix inversion process takes roughly the same amount of time, assuming de-referencing of pointers is non-expensive. - The array of pointers does not need the extra memory for matrix A containing values. - The array of pointers option does not have to copy all NxN values of A between each iteration. - The values that are pointed to the array of pointers option are generally NOT ordered in memory. Hopefully, all values lie relatively close in memory, but *A[0][1] is generally not next to *A[0][0] etc. Any comments to this? Will the last remark affect performance negatively, thus weighing up for the positive performance effects?

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  • .Net Finalizer Order / Semantics in Esent and Ravendb

    - by mattcodes
    Help me understand. I've read that "The time and order of execution of finalizers cannot be predicted or pre-determined" Correct? However looking at RavenDB source code TransactionStorage.cs I see this ~TransactionalStorage() { try { Trace.WriteLine( "Disposing esent resources from finalizer! You should call TransactionalStorage.Dispose() instead!"); Api.JetTerm2(instance, TermGrbit.Abrupt); } catch (Exception exception) { try { Trace.WriteLine("Failed to dispose esent instance from finalizer because: " + exception); } catch { } } } The API class (which belongs to Managed Esent) which presumable takes handles on native resources presumably using a SafeHandle? So if I understand correctly the native handles SafeHandle can be finalized before TransactionStorage which could have undesired effects, perhaps why Ayende has added an catch all clause around this? Actually diving into Esent code, it does not use SafeHandles. According to CLR via C# this is dangerous? internal static class SomeType { [DllImport("Kernel32", CharSet=CharSet.Unicode, EntryPoint="CreateEvent")] // This prototype is not robust private static extern IntPtr CreateEventBad( IntPtr pSecurityAttributes, Boolean manualReset, Boolean initialState, String name); // This prototype is robust [DllImport("Kernel32", CharSet=CharSet.Unicode, EntryPoint="CreateEvent")] private static extern SafeWaitHandle CreateEventGood( IntPtr pSecurityAttributes, Boolean manualReset, Boolean initialState, String name) public static void SomeMethod() { IntPtr handle = CreateEventBad(IntPtr.Zero, false, false, null); SafeWaitHandle swh = CreateEventGood(IntPtr.Zero, false, false, null); } } Managed Esent (NativeMEthods.cs) looks like this (using Ints vs IntPtrs?): [DllImport(EsentDll, CharSet = EsentCharSet, ExactSpelling = true)] public static extern int JetCreateDatabase(IntPtr sesid, string szFilename, string szConnect, out uint dbid, uint grbit); Is Managed Esent handling finalization/dispoal the correct way, and second is RavenDB handling finalizer the corret way or compensating for Managed Esent?

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  • PayPal integration woes: PDT hangs on return to site

    - by Tom
    Hi, I'm implementing PayPal IPN & PDT. After some headache & time at the sandbox, IPN is working well and PDT returns the correct $_GET data. The implementation is as follows: Pass user ID in form to PayPal User buys product and triggers IPN which updates database for given user ID PDT returns transaction ID when user returns to site The return page says "please wait" and repeat-Ajax-checks for the transaction status User is redirected to success/failure page Everything works well, EXCEPT that when using the PayPal ready PHP code for PDT to do a return POST, the page hangs. PayPal waits for a response and the user never gets back to my site. I'm not getting a fail status, just nothing. The funny thing is that once the unknown error occurs, my test domain becomes unresponsive for a short period. The code (PHP): https://www.paypal.com/us/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=p/xcl/rec/pdt-code-outside If I comment out the POST back, it all works fine. I'm able to pin down the problem to once the code enters the while{} loop. Unfortunately, I'm not experienced enough to write a replacement from scratch for the PayPal code, so would really appreciate any ideas on what might be wrong. The POST back goes to ssl://www.sandbox.paypal.com, and I'm using button code and an authorisation token that have all been created via a sandbox test account. Thanks in advance.

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  • How do I stop ValueConverters from firing when swapping the content of a ContentControl

    - by DanM
    I thought what I was doing was right out of the Josh Smith MVVM handbook, but I seem to be having a lot of problems with value converters firing when no data in the view-model has changed. So, I have a ContentControl defined in XAML like this: <ContentControl Grid.Row="0" Content="{Binding CurrentViewModel}" /> The Window containing this ContentControl references a resource dictionary that looks something like this: <ResourceDictionary ...> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type lib_vm:SetupPanelViewModel}"> <lib_v:SetupPanel /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type lib_vm:InstructionsPanelViewModel}"> <lib_v:InstructionsPanel /> </DataTemplate> </ResourceDictionary> So, basically, the two data templates specify which view to show with which view-model. This switches the views as expected whenever the CurrentViewModel property on my window's view-model changes, but it also seems to cause value converters on the views to fire even when no data has changed. It's a particular problem with IMultiValueConverter classes, because the values in the value array get set to DependencyProperty.UnsetValue, which causes exceptions unless I specifically check for that. But I'm getting other weird side effects too. This has me wondering if I shouldn't just do everything manually, like this: Instantiate each view. Set the DataContext of each view to the appropriate view-model. Give the ContentControl a name and make it public. Handle the PropertyChanged event for the window. In the event handler, manually set the Content property of the ContentControl to the appropriate view, based the CurrentViewModel (using if statements). This seems to work, but it also seems very inelegant. I'm hoping there's a better way. Could you please advise me the best way to handle view switching so that value converters don't fire unnecessarily?

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  • Why Illegal cookies are send by Browser and received by web servers (rfc 2109, 2965)?

    - by Artyom
    Hello, According to RFC 2109, 2965 cookie's value can be either HTTP token or quoted string, and token can't include non-ASCII characters. Cookie's RFC 2109 and RFC2965 HTTP's RFC 2068 token definition: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2068#page-16 However I had found that Firefox browser (3.0.6) sends cookies with utf-8 string as-is and three web servers I tested (apache2, lighttpd, nginx) pass this string as-is to the application. For example, raw request from browser: $ nc -l -p 8080 GET /hello HTTP/1.1 Host: localhost:8080 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux x86_64; en-US; rv:1.9.0.9) Gecko/2009050519 Firefox/2.0.0.13 (Debian-3.0.6-1) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1255,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? Cache-Control: max-age=0 And raw response of apache, nginx and lighttpd HTTP_COOKIE CGI variable: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? What do I miss? Can somebody explain me?

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  • Connecting to MS SQL Server 2005 via Web Service

    - by clear-cycle-corp
    Delphi 2010, dbExpress, and MS SQL Server 2005 DB Ok, I am trying to make a connection to a MS SQL 2005 DB using Delphi 2010 & DBExpress. If I create a standard delphi application and hard code my connection (IT WORKS!): procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var Conn: TSQLConnection; begin Conn:= TSQLConnection.Create(nil); Conn.ConnectionName:= 'VPUCDS_VPN_SE01'; Conn.LoadParamsOnConnect := True; Conn.LoginPrompt:=True; try Conn.Connected:= True; if Conn.Connected then ShowMessage('Connected!') else ShowMessage('NOT Connected!') finally Conn.Free; end; end; All the ini files, and DLLs reside in the same folder as my executable and yes, I have DBXMsSQL & MidasLib in the uses clause again, it works if its not a web service! However, if i then move the code over to a Web serices CGI module: function TTest.ConnectToDB: Boolean;stdcall; var Conn: TSQLConnection; begin Conn:= TSQLConnection.Create(nil); Conn.ConnectionName:= 'VPUCDS_VPN_SE01'; Conn.LoadParamsOnConnect := True; Conn.LoginPrompt:=True; try Conn.Connected:= True; result:= Conn.Connected; finally Conn.Free; end; end; Thanks

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  • Cocos2d shake/accelerometer issue.

    - by Ryan Poolos
    So I a little backstory. I wanted to implement a particle effect and sound effect that both last about 3 sec or so when the user shakes their iDevice. But first issue arrived when the build in UIEvent for shakes refused to work. So I took the advice of a few Cocos veterans to just use some script to get "violent" accelerometer inputs as shakes. Worked great until now. The problem is that if you keep shaking it just stacks the particle and sounds over and over. Now this wouldn't be that big of a deal except it happens even if you are careful to try and not do so. So what I am hoping to do is disable the accelerometer when the particle effect/sound effect start and then reenable it as soon as they finish. Now I don't know if I should do this by schedule, NStimer, or some other function. I am open to ALL suggestions. here is my current "shake" code. - (void)accelerometer:(UIAccelerometer *)accelerometer didAccelerate:(UIAcceleration *)acceleration { const float violence = 1; static BOOL beenhere; BOOL shake = FALSE; if (beenhere) return; beenhere = TRUE; if (acceleration.x > violence * 1.5 || acceleration.x < (-1.5* violence)) shake = TRUE; if (acceleration.y > violence * 2 || acceleration.y < (-2 * violence)) shake = TRUE; if (acceleration.z > violence * 3 || acceleration.z < (-3 * violence)) shake = TRUE; if (shake) { id particleSystem = [CCParticleSystemQuad particleWithFile:@"particle.plist"]; [self addChild: particleSystem]; // Super simple Audio playback for sound effects! [[SimpleAudioEngine sharedEngine] playEffect:@"Sound.mp3"]; shake = FALSE; } beenhere = FALSE; }

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