Search Results

Search found 30819 results on 1233 pages for 'software security'.

Page 1054/1233 | < Previous Page | 1050 1051 1052 1053 1054 1055 1056 1057 1058 1059 1060 1061  | Next Page >

  • How to deploy SQL Reporting 2005 when Data Sources are locked?

    - by spoulson
    The DBAs here maintain all SQL Server and SQL Reporting servers. I have a custom developed SQL Reporting 2005 project in Visual Studio that runs fine on my local SQL Database and Reporting instances. I need to deploy to a production server, so I had a folder created on a SQL Reporting 2005 server with permissions to upload files. Normally, a deploy from within Visual Studio is all that is needed to upload the report files. However, for security purposes, data sources are maintained explicitly by DBAs and stored in a separated locked down common folder on the reporting server. I had them create the data source for me. When I attempt to deploy from VS, it gives me the error "The item '/Data Sources' already exists." I get this whether I'm deploying the whole project or just a single report file. I already set OverwriteDataSources=false in the project properties. The TargetServer URL and folder are verified correct. I suppose I could copy the files manually, but I'd like to be able to deploy from within VS. What could I be doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • MYSQL not running on Ubuntu OS - Error 2002.

    - by mgj
    Hi, I am a novice to mysql DB. I am trying to run the MYSQL Server on Ubuntu 10.04. Through Synaptic Package Manager I am have installed the mysql version: mysql-client-5.1 I wonder that how was the database password set for the mysql-client software that I installed through the above way.It would be nice if you could enlighten me on this. When I tried running this database, I encountered the error given below: mohnish@mohnish-laptop:/var/lib$ mysql ERROR 2002 (HY000): Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/var/run/mysqld/mysqld.sock' (2) mohnish@mohnish-laptop:/var/lib$ I referred to a similar question posted by another user. I didn't find a solution through the proposed answers. For instance when I tried the solutions posted for the similar question I got the following: mohnish@mohnish-laptop:/var/lib$ service start mysqld start: unrecognized service mohnish@mohnish-laptop:/var/lib$ ps -u mysql ERROR: User name does not exist. ********* simple selection ********* ********* selection by list ********* -A all processes -C by command name -N negate selection -G by real group ID (supports names) -a all w/ tty except session leaders -U by real user ID (supports names) -d all except session leaders -g by session OR by effective group name -e all processes -p by process ID T all processes on this terminal -s processes in the sessions given a all w/ tty, including other users -t by tty g OBSOLETE -- DO NOT USE -u by effective user ID (supports names) r only running processes U processes for specified users x processes w/o controlling ttys t by tty *********** output format ********** *********** long options *********** -o,o user-defined -f full --Group --User --pid --cols --ppid -j,j job control s signal --group --user --sid --rows --info -O,O preloaded -o v virtual memory --cumulative --format --deselect -l,l long u user-oriented --sort --tty --forest --version -F extra full X registers --heading --no-heading --context ********* misc options ********* -V,V show version L list format codes f ASCII art forest -m,m,-L,-T,H threads S children in sum -y change -l format -M,Z security data c true command name -c scheduling class -w,w wide output n numeric WCHAN,UID -H process hierarchy mohnish@mohnish-laptop:/var/lib$ which mysql /usr/bin/mysql mohnish@mohnish-laptop:/var/lib$ mysql ERROR 2002 (HY000): Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/var/run/mysqld/mysqld.sock' (2) I even tried referring to http://forums.mysql.com/read.php?11,27769,84713#msg-84713 but couldn't find anything useful. Please let me know how I could tackle this error. Thank you very much..

    Read the article

  • Handle multiple db updates from c# in SQL Server 2008

    - by joeriks
    I like to find a way to handle multiple updates to a sql db (with one singe db roundtrip). I read about table-valued parameters in SQL Server 2008 http://www.codeproject.com/KB/database/TableValueParameters.aspx which seems really useful. But it seems I need to create both a stored procedure and a table type to use it. Is that true? Perhaps due to security? I would like to run a text query simply like this: var sql = "INSERT INTO Note (UserId, note) SELECT * FROM @myDataTable"; var myDataTable = ... some System.Data.DataTable ... var cmd = new System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand(sql, conn); var param = cmd.Parameters.Add("@myDataTable", System.Data.SqlDbType.Structured); param.Value=myDataTable; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); So A) do I have to create both a stored procedure and a table type to use TVP's? and B) what alternative method is recommended to send multiple updates (and inserts) to SQL Server?

    Read the article

  • Strategy for WCF server with .Net clients and Android clients?

    - by D.H.
    I am using WCF to write a server that should be able to communicate with .Net clients, Android clients and possibly other types of clients. The main type of client is a desktop application that will be written in .Net. This client will usually be on the same intranet as the server. It will make an initial call to the server to get the current state of the system and will then receive updates from the server whenever a value changes. These updates are frequent, perhaps once a second. The Android clients will connect over the Internet. This client is also interested in updates, but it is not as critical as for the desktop client so a (less frequent) polling scenario might be acceptable. All clients will have to login to use the services, and when connecting over the Internet the connection should be secure. I am familiar with WCF but I am not sure what bindings are most appropriate for the scenario and what security solution to use. Also, I have not used Android, but I would like to make it as simple as possible for the person implementing the Android client to consume my services. So, what is my strategy?

    Read the article

  • Domain Transfer Protection - need advice

    - by Jack
    Hey, I am about to purchase a domain name for a bit of money. I do not personally know the person who I am purchasing the domain name from, we have only chatted via email. The proposed process for the transfer is: The owner of the domain lowest the domain name security and emails me the domain password, I request the transfer After the request, I transfer the money via PayPal When the money has been cleared the current domain name owner confirms the transfer via the link that he receives in that email I wait for it to be transferred. The domain is currently registered with DirectNIC - http://www.directnic.com/ Is this the best practice? Seeing I am paying a bit of money for this domain name, I am worried that after the money has been cleared that I won't see the domain name or hear from the current domain name owner again. Is there a 'domain governing body' which I can report to if this is the case? Is the proposed transfer process the best solution? Any advice would be awesome. Thanks! Jack

    Read the article

  • sql statement supposed to have 2 distinct rows, but only 1 is returned. for C# windows

    - by jello
    yeah so I have an sql statement that is supposed to return 2 rows. the first with psychological_id = 1, and the second, psychological_id = 2. here is the sql statement select * from psychological where patient_id = 12 and symptom = 'delire'; But with this code, with which I populate an array list with what is supposed to be 2 different rows, two rows exist, but with the same values: the second row. OneSymptomClass oneSymp = new OneSymptomClass(); ArrayList oneSympAll = new ArrayList(); string connStrArrayList = "Data Source=.\\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\\PatientMonitoringDatabase.mdf; " + "Initial Catalog=PatientMonitoringDatabase; " + "Integrated Security=True"; string queryStrArrayList = "select * from psychological where patient_id = " + patientID.patient_id + " and symptom = '" + SymptomComboBoxes[tag].SelectedItem + "';"; using (var conn = new SqlConnection(connStrArrayList)) using (var cmd = new SqlCommand(queryStrArrayList, conn)) { conn.Open(); using (SqlDataReader rdr = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { while (rdr.Read()) { oneSymp.psychological_id = Convert.ToInt32(rdr["psychological_id"]); oneSymp.patient_history_date_psy = (DateTime)rdr["patient_history_date_psy"]; oneSymp.strength = Convert.ToInt32(rdr["strength"]); oneSymp.psy_start_date = (DateTime)rdr["psy_start_date"]; oneSymp.psy_end_date = (DateTime)rdr["psy_end_date"]; oneSympAll.Add(oneSymp); } } conn.Close(); } OneSymptomClass testSymp = oneSympAll[0] as OneSymptomClass; MessageBox.Show(testSymp.psychological_id.ToString()); the message box outputs "2", while it's supposed to output "1". anyone got an idea what's going on?

    Read the article

  • Using Client Application Services in windows forms not working

    - by Nickson
    i am trying to implement asp.net membership, profile and role based security in a windows application by configuring client Application Services for my windows forms application. I have followed both these articles http://www.dotnetbips.com/articles/e863aa3c-0dd6-468d-bd35-120a334c5030.aspx and http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb546195.aspx step-by-step but for some reason i can't get the authentication working. I have a deployed intranet asp.net website which is already using an asp.net membership database for authentication and want to use that same database for authenitcation in my windows forms application. The site URL is http://myServer_Name:My_Port and i am specifying that URL as the both the Authentication service location and Roles service location in the windows application services property tab. But in the windows application login form, when i say Dim msg As String = "Welcome " If Not Membership.ValidateUser(UsernameTextBox.Text), PasswordTextBox.Text)) Then MessageBox.Show("Invalid User ID or Password!") Else msg = msg + UsernameTextBox.Text End If i get my "Invalid User ID or Password!" message even when i supply a valid user name with the corresponding password. i am able to login with the same credentials from the asp.net site. How can i test if the Authentication service location is being reached from the windows application?? Or what other information can i provide here such that one is able to help me get this working??

    Read the article

  • Second Thread Holding Up Entire Program in C# Windows Form Application

    - by Brandon
    In my windows form application, I'm trying to test the user's ability to access a remote machine's shared folder. The way I'm doing this (and I'm sure that there are better ways...but I don't know of them) is to check for the existence of a specific directory on the remote machine (I'm doing this because of firewall/other security restrictions that I'm confronted with in my organization). If the user has rights to access the shared folder, then it returns in no time at all, but if they don't, it hangs forever. To solve this, I threw the check into another thread and wait only 1000 milliseconds before determining that the share can't be hit by the user. However, when I do this, it still hangs as if it was never run in the same thread. What is making it hang and how do I fix it? I would think that the fact that it is in a separate thread would allow me to just let the thread finish on it's own in the background. Here is my code: bool canHitInstallPath = false; Thread thread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(() => { canHitInstallPath = Directory.Exists(compInfo.InstallPath); })); thread.Start(); thread.Join(1000); if (canHitInstallPath == false) { throw new Exception("Cannot hit folder: " + compInfo.InstallPath); }

    Read the article

  • How to secure login and member area with SSL certificate?

    - by citronas
    Background: I have a asp.net webapplication project that should contain a public and a member area. Now I want to implement a SSL decription to secure communication between the client and the server. (In the university we have a unsecured wireless network and you can use a wlan sniffer to read username/password. I do not want to have this security problem for my application, so I thought of a ssl decription) The application is running on a IIS 7.5. It it possible to have one webapp that has unsecured pages (like the public area) and a secured area (like the member area, which requires a login)? If yes, how can I relealise the communication between these too areas? Example: My webapp is hosted on http://foo.abc. I have pages like http://foo.abc/default.aspx and http://foo.abc/foo.aspx. In the same project is page like /member/default.aspx which is protected by a login on the page http://foo.abc/login.aspx. So I would need to implement SSL for the page /login.aspx and all pages in /member/ How can I do that? I just found out how to create SSL certificates in IIS 7.5 and how to add such a binding to a webapp. How how can I tell my webapp which page should be called with https and not with http. What is the best practise there?

    Read the article

  • Runtime Exception when using Custom Healthmonitoring event in medium trust

    - by Elementenfresser
    Hi, I'm using custom healthmonitoring events in ASP.NET We recently moved to a new server with default High Trust Permissions. Literature says that healthmonitoring and custom events should work under Medium or higher trust (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb398933.aspx). Problem is it doesn't. In less than high trust I get a SecurityException saying The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy It works in Full trust or when I remove the inheritance of System.Web.Management.WebErrorEvent. Any suggestions anyone? Here is the super simple code behind with a custom event defined: public partial class Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { CallCustomEvent(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); throw ex; } } /// <summary> /// this metho is never called due to lacking permissions... /// </summary> private void CallCustomEvent() { try { //do something useful here } catch (Exception) { //code to instantiate the forbidden inheritance... WebBaseEvent.Raise(new CustomEvent()); } } } /// <summary> /// custom error inheriting WebErrorEvent which is not allowed in high trust? can't believe that... /// </summary> public class CustomEvent : WebErrorEvent { public CustomEvent() : base("test", HttpContext.Current.Request, 100001, new ApplicationException("dummy")) { } } and the Web Config excerpt for high trust: <system.web> <trust level="High" originUrl="" />

    Read the article

  • Is "Server not found" error related to Activclient?

    - by Kent
    Users are getting sporadic "Server not found" errors after idling in the browser. We have a HTTPS web application (Apache/Tomcat) using NSS for authentication on the server. The error occurs when a user opens the application and later lets it sit idle/untouched for 15 minutes. When they try to access the application they can get a "Server not found" error. Users use CAC cards with ActivClient software and our web application uses the certificates for authentication and authorization. We have been able to recreate the problem but have been unable to diagnose it. In recreating the problem the server is getting a series of "Unable to find the certificate or key necessary for authentication" errors in the NSS log associated with the browser error. These erros don't occur until the user tries to access the idle application. When the application is idle for 15 minutes the PIN is not requested yet the PIN Cache timeout in ActivClient is set at 15 minutes. All our server side timeout parameters are set to hours not minutes. IE 6 is our browser and NSS is using TLS. We have tried modifying "SetEnvIf User-Agent ".MSIE." ssl-unclean-shutdown" with no improvement. I understand that the PIN cache timeout and SSL session don't have a 1:1 relationship but the timing is suspicious. Can't find anything in the windows error logs that indicates a problem (security logs are not accessible to us). Any suggestions as to how to identify the cause of the problem would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Grails XOM linkageerror - SAXParserException

    - by Stefan Kendall
    Possibly related: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2762439/grails-attempting-to-include-htppbuilder-linkage-error I'm trying to include XOM in my grails project. How do I know which dependency library I need to exclude? I'm lost here. dependencies { build('xom:xom:1.1') { excludes "xml-apis" } } Error: java.lang.LinkageError: loader constraint violation: loader (instance of <bootloader>) previously initiated loading for a different type with name "org/xml/sax/SAXParseException" at java.lang.Class.getDeclaredMethods0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.privateGetDeclaredMethods(Class.java:2427) at java.lang.Class.getDeclaredMethods(Class.java:1791) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at org.codehaus.groovy.util.LazyReference.getLocked(LazyReference.java:33) at org.codehaus.groovy.util.LazyReference.get(LazyReference.java:20) at grails.util.PluginBuildSettings.getPluginInfos(PluginBuildSettings.groovy:124) at grails.util.PluginBuildSettings.getPluginInfos(PluginBuildSettings.groovy) at grails.util.PluginBuildSettings$getPluginInfos.callCurrent(Unknown Source) at grails.util.PluginBuildSettings.getPluginInfo(PluginBuildSettings.groovy:160) at grails.util.PluginBuildSettings$getPluginInfo.callCurrent(Unknown Source) at grails.util.PluginBuildSettings.getPluginInfoForSource(PluginBuildSettings.groovy:195) at org.codehaus.groovy.transform.ASTTransformationVisitor$3.call(ASTTransformationVisitor.java:303) at org.codehaus.groovy.control.CompilationUnit.applyToSourceUnits(CompilationUnit.java:820) at org.codehaus.groovy.control.CompilationUnit.doPhaseOperation(CompilationUnit.java:513) at org.codehaus.groovy.control.CompilationUnit.processPhaseOperations(CompilationUnit.java:489) at org.codehaus.groovy.control.CompilationUnit.compile(CompilationUnit.java:466) at _GrailsEvents_groovy.run(_GrailsEvents_groovy:54) at _GrailsEvents_groovy$run.call(Unknown Source) at _GrailsArgParsing_groovy$run.call(Unknown Source) at _GrailsArgParsing_groovy.run(_GrailsArgParsing_groovy:29) at _GrailsArgParsing_groovy$run.call(Unknown Source) at _GrailsInit_groovy$run.call(Unknown Source) at _GrailsInit_groovy.run(_GrailsInit_groovy:38) at _GrailsInit_groovy$run.call(Unknown Source) at Help_.run(Help_.groovy:27) at Help_$run.call(Unknown Source) at gant.Gant.processTargets(Gant.groovy:494) at gant.Gant.processTargets(Gant.groovy:480)

    Read the article

  • global asax error

    - by asksuperuser
    I've suddenly got this error: Server Error in '/' Application. Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Could not load type 'MyApp.Global'. Source Error: Line 1: <%@ Application Codebehind="Global.asax.cs" Inherits="MyApp.Global" Language="C#" %> Source File: /global.asax Line: 1 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:4.0.30319; ASP.NET Version:4.0.30319.1 I have not done anything to Global.asax. I tried to change the namespace from MyFramework to MyApp but It didn't work either so I put it back like it is below: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.SessionState; namespace MyFramework { public class Global : System.Web.HttpApplication { void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Code that runs on application startup } void Application_End(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Code that runs on application shutdown } void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Code that runs when an unhandled error occurs } void Session_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Code that runs when a new session is started } void Session_End(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Code that runs when a session ends. // Note: The Session_End event is raised only when the sessionstate mode // is set to InProc in the Web.config file. If session mode is set to StateServer // or SQLServer, the event is not raised. } } }

    Read the article

  • How do I sign requests reliably for the Last.fm api in C#?

    - by Arda Xi
    I'm trying to implement authorization through Last.fm. I'm submitting my arguments as a Dictionary to make the signing easier. This is the code I'm using to sign my calls: public static string SignCall(Dictionary<string, string> args) { IOrderedEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, string>> sortedArgs = args.OrderBy(arg => arg.Key); string signature = sortedArgs.Select(pair => pair.Key + pair.Value). Aggregate((first, second) => first + second); return MD5(signature + SecretKey); } I've checked the output in the debugger, it's exactly how it should be, however, I'm still getting WebExceptions every time I try. Here's my code I use to generate the URL in case it'll help: public static string GetSignedURI(Dictionary<string, string> args, bool get) { var stringBuilder = new StringBuilder(); if (get) stringBuilder.Append("http://ws.audioscrobbler.com/2.0/?"); foreach (var kvp in args) stringBuilder.AppendFormat("{0}={1}&", kvp.Key, kvp.Value); stringBuilder.Append("api_sig="+SignCall(args)); return stringBuilder.ToString(); } And sample usage to get a SessionKey: var args = new Dictionary<string, string> { {"method", "auth.getSession"}, {"api_key", ApiKey}, {"token", token} }; string url = GetSignedURI(args, true); EDIT: Oh, and the code references an MD5 function implemented like this: public static string MD5(string toHash) { byte[] textBytes = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(toHash); var cryptHandler = new System.Security.Cryptography.MD5CryptoServiceProvider(); byte[] hash = cryptHandler.ComputeHash(textBytes); return hash.Aggregate("", (current, a) => current + a.ToString("x2")); }

    Read the article

  • How can I execute a .sql from C#?

    - by J. Pablo Fernández
    For some integration tests I want to connect to the database and run a .sql file that has the schema needed for the tests to actually run, including GO statements. How can I execute the .sql file? (or is this totally the wrong way to go?) I've found a post in the MSDN forum showing this code: using System.Data.SqlClient; using System.IO; using Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Common; using Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { string sqlConnectionString = "Data Source=(local);Initial Catalog=AdventureWorks;Integrated Security=True"; FileInfo file = new FileInfo("C:\\myscript.sql"); string script = file.OpenText().ReadToEnd(); SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(sqlConnectionString); Server server = new Server(new ServerConnection(conn)); server.ConnectionContext.ExecuteNonQuery(script); } } } but on the last line I'm getting this error: System.Reflection.TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation. --- System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for '' threw an exception. --- .ModuleLoadException: The C++ module failed to load during appdomain initialization. --- System.DllNotFoundException: Unable to load DLL 'MSVCR80.dll': The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E). I was told to go and download that DLL from somewhere, but that sounds very hacky. Is there a cleaner way to? Is there another way to do it? What am I doing wrong? I'm doing this with Visual Studio 2008, SQL Server 2008, .Net 3.5SP1 and C# 3.0.

    Read the article

  • restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

    - by Justin Grant
    I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

    Read the article

  • svnserve not strictly required?

    - by Kev
    I was reading the Red Bean book and noticed this paragraph: Do not be seduced by the simple idea of having all of your users access a repository directly via file:// URLs. Even if the repository is readily available to everyone via a network share, this is a bad idea. It removes any layers of protection between the users and the repository: users can accidentally (or intentionally) corrupt the repository database, it becomes hard to take the repository offline for inspection or upgrade, and it can lead to a mess of file permission problems (see the section called “Supporting Multiple Repository Access Methods”). Note that this is also one of the reasons we warn against accessing repositories via svn+ssh:// URLs—from a security standpoint, it's effectively the same as local users accessing via file://, and it can entail all the same problems if the administrator isn't careful. I realized that, since I'm the only one accessing the repository, ever, none of these caveats seem to apply. Can I safely down svnserve then and only ever have to worry about upgrading my TortoiseSVN client, not both the client and the server whenever there's a new version out? (I've tried it already--just needed to use the Relocate feature to switch from svn:// to file://--but I wanted to make sure something wouldn't be sneaking up on me if I left it this way.)

    Read the article

  • How can get dtrace to run the traced command with non-root priviledges ?

    - by Gyom
    OS X lacks linux's strace, but it has dtrace which is supposed to be so much better. However, I miss the ability to do simple tracing on individual commands. For example, on linux I can write strace -f gcc hello.c to caputre all system calls, which gives me the list of all the filenames needed by the compiler to compile my program (the excellent memoize script is built upon this trick) I want to port memoize on the mac, so I need some kind of strace. What I actually need is the list of files gcc reads and writes into, so what I need is more of a truss. Sure enough can I say dtruss -f gcc hello.c and get somewhat the same functionality, but then the compiler is run with root priviledges, which is obviously undesirable (apart from the massive security risk, one issue is that the a.out file is now owned by root :-) I then tried dtruss -f sudo -u myusername gcc hello.c, but this feels a bit wrong, and does not work anyway (I get no a.out file at all this time, not sure why) All that long story tries to motivate my original question: how do I get dtrace to run my command with normal user priviledges, just like strace does in linux ? Edit: is seems that I'm not the only one wondering how to do this: question #1204256 is pretty much the same as mine (and has the same suboptimal sudo answer :-)

    Read the article

  • Global.asax parser errors when deploying MVC 1 application to remote server.

    - by mannish
    So we're having some issues deploying an ASP.NET MVC app to a client site. Basically when we try to test the app from localhost, we get the dreaded Global.asax parser error indicating it could not load the application global. Research indicates there are basically 4 possible reasons for this exception we're seeing: The solution hasn't been built. This clearly isn't the case since we can deploy it here and it runs fine on any machine we deploy to AND we had to build and publish the darn thing to deploy it anyway. The Global.asax namespace inheritance does not match the application global code file. Again we double checked this and since it runs just fine here that can't be the issue. Miscellaneous non-descript IIS/VS.NET mischief. Basically something get's wonky in IIS or VS.NET and the web server won't behave correctly for this application. We've done cleans and rebuilds, we've deleted virtual dir and recreated, and performed all of the IIS munging that we've found elsewhere online. Various combinations of IIS bounces, server reboots, virtual dir/application recreation, etc. Code level permissions issue. We've verified full trust in machine/web config in the framework directory, we've set .NET trust to full in IIS, we've granted Everyone full control on the directories just to hit it with the security hammer, etc. etc. The pertinent detials: Windows Server 2008 x64 IIS 7, 32 bit compatible app pool (app was written on 32 bit OS compiled for any cpu) App pool identity set to NetworkService Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 XCopy deployment We deployed another read-only app just fine. The significant difference in this app is the use of NHibernate and Log4Net which require full trust. Additionally, the actual project name of the web project differs from the default namespace however the Inherits namespace in Global.asax and the Global.asax.cs files match so this shouldn't be an issue. Anybody have any bright ideas? We're officially down to just the dim ones.

    Read the article

  • Python - Why use anything other than uuid4() for unique strings?

    - by orokusaki
    I see quit a few implementations of unique string generation for things like uploaded image names, session IDs, et al, and many of them employ the usage of hashes like SHA1, or others. I'm not questioning the legitimacy of using custom methods like this, but rather just the reason. If I want a unique string, I just say this: >>> import uuid >>> uuid.uuid4() 07033084-5cfd-4812-90a4-e4d24ffb6e3d And I'm done with it. I wasn't very trusting before I read up on uuid, so I did this: >>> import uuid >>> s = set() >>> for i in range(5000000): # That's 5 million! >>> s.add(uuid.uuid4()) ... ... >>> len(s) 5000000 Not one repeater (I didn't expect one considering the odds are like 1.108e+50, but it's comforting to see it in action). You could even half the odds by just making your string by combining 2 uuid4()s. So, with that said, why do people spend time on random() and other stuff for unique strings, etc? Is there an important security issue or other regarding uuid?

    Read the article

  • Why is it not good to use $_SESSION in Restful Implementations?

    - by keisimone
    Original Question: i read that for RESTful websites. it is not good to use $_SESSION. Why is it not good? how then do i properly authenticate users without looking up database all the time to check for the user's roles? I read that it is not good to use $_SESSION. http://www.recessframework.org/page/towards-restful-php-5-basic-tips I am creating a WEBSITE, not web service in PHP. and i am trying to make it more RESTful. at least in spirit. right now i am rewriting all the action to use Form tags POST and add in a hidden value called _method which would be "delete" for deleting action and "put" for updating action. however, i am not sure why it is recommended NOT to use $_SESSION. i would like to know why and what can i do to improve. To allow easy authorization checking, what i did was to after logging in the user, the username is stored in the $_SESSION. Everytime the user navigates to a page, the page would check if the username is stored inside $_SESSION and then based on the $_SESSION retrieves all the info including privileges from the database and then evaluates the authorization to access the page based on the info retrieved. Is the way I am implementing bad? not RESTful? how do i improve performance and security? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Destroy process-less console windows left by Visual Studio debug sessions

    - by jon hanson
    A known bug with security update KB978037 can occur with Visual Studio 2003 (and 2008) where sometimes if you restart a debugging session on a console app then the console window doesn't get closed even though the owner process no longer exists. The problem is discussed further here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2402875/visual-studio-debug-console-sometimes-stays-open-and-is-impossible-to-close These zombie windows then can not be closed via the Taskbar or via the TaskManager, and typically require a power off/on to get rid of them. Over the period of even a single day you can accumulate quite a few of them, which clog up your TaskBar and are generally annoying. I thought I would knock up a simple C++ Win32 utility to attempt to call DestroyWindow() on these windows by passing the windows handle as a cmd-line argument and converting it to a HWND. I'm converting the handle from a string by parsing it as a DWORD then casting the DWORD to a HWND. This appears to be working as if I call GetWindowInfo() on the handle it succeeds. However calling DestroyWindow() on the handle fails with error 5 (access denied), presumably because the caller process (i.e. my app) doesn't own the window in question. Any ideas as to how I might get rid of the zombie windows, either via the above approach or any other alternative short of rebooting? I'm in a corporate environment so installing/uninstalling updates/service-packs etc isn't an option.

    Read the article

  • Handling form from different view and passing form validation through session in django

    - by Mo J. Mughrabi
    I have a requirement here to build a comment-like app in my django project, the app has a view to receive a submitted form process it and return the errors to where ever it came from. I finally managed to get it to work, but I have doubt for the way am using it might be wrong since am passing the entire validated form in the session. below is the code comment/templatetags/comment.py @register.inclusion_tag('comment/form.html', takes_context=True) def comment_form(context, model, object_id, next): """ comment_form() is responsible for rendering the comment form """ # clear sessions from variable incase it was found content_type = ContentType.objects.get_for_model(model) try: request = context['request'] if request.session.get('comment_form', False): form = CommentForm(request.session['comment_form']) form.fields['content_type'].initial = 15 form.fields['object_id'].initial = 2 form.fields['next'].initial = next else: form = CommentForm(initial={ 'content_type' : content_type.id, 'object_id' : object_id, 'next' : next }) except Exception as e: logging.error(str(e)) form = None return { 'form' : form } comment/view.py def save_comment(request): """ save_comment: """ if request.method == 'POST': # clear sessions from variable incase it was found if request.session.get('comment_form', False): del request.session['comment_form'] form = CommentForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): obj = form.save(commit=False) if request.user.is_authenticated(): obj.created_by = request.user obj.save() messages.info(request, _('Your comment has been posted.')) return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: request.session['comment_form'] = request.POST return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: raise Http404 the usage is by loading the template tag and firing {% comment_form article article.id article.get_absolute_url %} my doubt is if am doing the correct approach or not by passing the validated form to the session. Would that be a problem? security risk? performance issues? Please advise Update In response to Pol question. The reason why I went with this approach is because comment form is handled in a separate app. In my scenario, I render objects such as article and all I do is invoke the templatetag to render the form. What would be an alternative approach for my case? You also shared with me the django comment app, which am aware of but the client am working with requires a lot of complex work to be done in the comment app thats why am working on a new one.

    Read the article

  • MANIFEST.MF issue

    - by dhananjay
    hi I have created a jar inside this folder: '/usr/local/bin/niidle.jar' in eclipse. And I have another jar inside /usr/local/bin/niidle.jar. In my niidle.jar file,there is one 'lib' folder and in that 'lib' folder,there is another jar file 'hector-0.6.0-17.jar'. I have added this 'hector-0.6.0-17.jar' file in MANIFEST.MF as follows: Manifest-Version: 1.0 Main-Class: com.ensarm.niidle.web.scraper.NiidleScrapeManager Class-Path: hector-0.6.0-17.jar But when I run this using command: >>java -jar /usr/local/bin/niidle.jar arguments... It is not working.. It is showing error message:- Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: me/prettyprint/hector/api/Serializer at com.ensarm.niidle.web.scraper.NiidleScrapeManager.main(NiidleScrapeManager.java:21) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: me.prettyprint.hector.api.Serializer at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:320) ... 1 more What is the problem,Please tell me solution for this Exception...

    Read the article

  • are there java based auto-updating tools other than WebStart & Eclipse P2?

    - by DaddyB
    Hi, I am working on a java based application and we are looking to ease our deployment of updates. Up until now, we've always simply sent out new install packs & had the sysadmin's on our customer sites roll out the upgrades - painful for a large number of users. what I'd like to do is something similar to java webstart (or eclipse p2) - when the application starts, it checks for updates in a specified location and then downloads the updates prior to starting. But here's my problem - I want more control over what's done outside of the scope of plugins & jar files. For example: I'd like to be able to upate my JVM (we ship a modified version with additional security features). I need to install DLL's - possibly local to the jar files, sometimes to windows Occasiontally run MSI's to install windows components (e.g. printer drivers). I need to modify config files & the registry. I have found a few applications that support this (such as AppLifeUpdate at http://www.kineticjump.com/) but they tend to be .NET focused and it seems a bit perverse to introduce a .NET dependancy on a java application ;) I know I could write my own here, but if there is already a 3rd party library out there that supports this kind of facility, then it would make my life a lot easier. So, has anyone else had a similar problem & knows of some products I could look at? Thanks, Brian.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 1050 1051 1052 1053 1054 1055 1056 1057 1058 1059 1060 1061  | Next Page >