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  • Passing a parameter in a Report's Open Event to a parameter query (Access 2007)

    - by JPM
    Hi there, I would like to know if there is a way to set the parameters in an Access 2007 query using VBA. I am new to using VBA in Access, and I have been tasked with adding a little piece of functionality to an existing app. The issue I am having is that the same report can be called in two different places in the application. The first being on a command button on a data entry form, the other from a switchboard button. The report itself is based on a parameter query that has requires the user to enter a Supplier ID. The user would like to not have to enter the Supplier ID on the data entry form (since the form displays the Supplier ID already), but from the switchboard, they would like to be prompted to enter a Supplier ID. Where I am stuck is how to call the report's query (in the report's open event) and pass the SupplierID from the form as the parameter. I have been trying for a while, and I can't get anything to work correctly. Here is my code so far, but I am obviously stumped. Private Sub Report_Open(Cancel As Integer) Dim intSupplierCode As Integer 'Check to see if the data entry form is open If CurrentProject.AllForms("frmExample").IsLoaded = True Then 'Retrieve the SupplierID from the data entry form intSupplierCode = Forms![frmExample]![SupplierID] 'Call the parameter query passing the SupplierID???? DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams" Else 'Execute the parameter query as normal DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams"????? End If End Sub I've tried Me.SupplierID = intSupplierCode, and although it compiles, it bombs when I run it. And here is my SQL code for the parameter query: PARAMETERS [Enter Supplier] Long; SELECT Suppliers.SupplierID, Suppliers.CompanyName, Suppliers.ContactName, Suppliers.ContactTitle FROM Suppliers WHERE (((Suppliers.SupplierID)=[Enter Supplier])); I know there are ways around this problem (and probably an easy way as well) but like I said, my lack of experience using Access and VBA makes things difficult. If any of you could help, that would be great!

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  • Sqlite3 prompting `...>` instead of `sqlite>`

    - by Imray
    I'm following a beginners tutorial to sqlite3. The first step is creating a new database. So I enter a name (movies.db). I'm expecting to get another sqlite> prompt on the next line, and continue with the tutorial, but instead I get a lame ...> after which I can type any gibbersish I want. Clearly, this is not good. What my command prompt looks like: SQLite version 3.8.1 2013-10-17 12:57:35 Enter ".help" for instructions Enter SQL statements terminated with a ";" sqlite> $ sqlite3 movies.db ...> gibberish ...> dsds ...> sdada ...> gfgys ...> a ...> Aaaaarrrgh! ...> How do I get sqlite3 to work normally for me? Pardon my newbie-ness. I hope I've phrased this question in a way that might help other newbs too.

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  • Java-Hibernate: How can I translate these tables to hibernate annotations?

    - by penas
    I need to create a simple application using these tables: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2612848/are-these-tables-respect-the-3nf-database-normalization I have created the application using simple old JDBC, but I would like to see how the application would look like using Hibernate, but I don't know how to put the sql code in java. I have found LOTS of examples, but I'm pretty much confused about using Hibernate and I don't know If I made such a good joob. For example, for the first three tables: AUTHOR table * Author_ID, PK * First_Name * Last_Name TITLES table * TITLE_ID, PK * NAME * Author_ID, FK DOMAIN table * DOMAIN_ID, PK * NAME * TITLE_ID, FK The code in java: Table 1 @Entity @Table(name = "AUTHORS", schema = "LIBRARY") public class Author{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "Author_ID") private int authorId; @Column(name = "First_Name", nullable = false, length = 50) private String firstName; @Column(name = "Last_Name", nullable = false, length = 40) private String lastName; @OneToMany @JoinColumn(name = "Title_ID") private List<Title> titles; Table 2 @Entity @Table(name = "TITLES") public class Title{ @Id @Column(name = "Title_ID") private int titleID; @Column(name = "Name", nullable = false, length = 50) private String name; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name = "Domain_ID") private Domain domains; Table 3 @Entity @Table(name = "DOMAINS") public class Domain{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "Domain_ID") private int Domain_ID; @Column(name = "Name", nullable = false, length = 50) private String name; @OneToOne(mappedBy = "domains") private Title title; } Any good? :)

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  • How can I share an entity framework model across website users

    - by richardmoss
    Hello, Currently my website is based around MVC and the Entity Framework running against a SQL Server 2005 database. So far, it has all been running very smoothly, and I really enjoy MVC and its slimmer more concise code (and no huge viewstates or soul destroying postbacks ;)) Recently I was working on upgrading the site to use a simple forum system, and this is where I started running into problems. When I was testing the site using two different browsers, if I created or replied to a post in one browser, the other browser couldn't see the post. At the moment, each visitor to the site gets their own copy of the entity model, which I store in their session data. Obviously this is the problem as updates to one model aren't getting carried to the other. As a test, I tried storing a single copy of the model which all visitors would access by assigning the model to a static variable. This worked, and both browsers could see each others modifications. However, it had its side effects. For example, if I fired up both browsers at the same time and the model was initialized, one browser would crash, and the other would work fine, despite me using a locking object so in theory one of them should have been delayed until the model was ready (of course I could have implemented this wrong ;)). Also, originally this site did use one model for all visitors and when it was live, it frequently shut down - killing the IIS application pool while it did. Now I'm not sure if this was related, but I don't really want to reintroduce whatever bug I had that caused this shut down. So, my question is a simple one really - what is the best way of either using the same model for all website users so they all see updates, or if they do have separate copies (which I imagine will have a performance impact in time) how can the models detect changes in the database and update themselves according. Thanks in advance for any advice! Regards; Richard Moss

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  • Rails log shows unexpected data as to the time spent on a DB stuff

    - by Arhimed
    I'm running on WinXP + Ruby 1.8.6 + Rails 2.3.5 (frozen to the project) in development environment. Looking at development.log I observe inconsistent data as to the time spent on a database stuff. Example #1 (good): Processing PagesController#index (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-11 12:15:54) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"index", "controller"=>"pages"} City Columns (563.0ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM `cities` City Load (15.0ms) SELECT * FROM `cities` WHERE (`cities`.`short_name` = 'NY') LIMIT 1 Redirected to http://xyz:3000/sightings Completed in 953ms (DB: 578) | 302 Found [http://xyz/] Example #2 (unexpected): Processing PagesController#index (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-11 12:15:36) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"index", "controller"=>"pages"} City Columns (0.0ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM `cities` City Load (0.0ms) SELECT * FROM `cities` WHERE (`cities`.`short_name` = 'NY') LIMIT 1 Redirected to http://xyz:3000/sightings Completed in 47ms (DB: 32) | 302 Found [http://xyz/] Example #2 shows 32ms were spent on DB while there were just 2 sql querries and both of zero time spent. Example #3 (unexpected): Processing PagesController#index (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-11 11:21:24) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"index", "controller"=>"pages"} City Columns (63.0ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM `cities` City Load (62.0ms) SELECT * FROM `cities` WHERE (`cities`.`short_name` = 'NY') LIMIT 1 Redirected to http://xyz:3000/sightings Completed in 1187ms (DB: 297) | 302 Found [http://xyz/] Example #3 shows 297ms while there were querries of 63ms and 62ms (125ms in total). Can't understand it. Could someone explain? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to delete a row from a typed dataset and save it to a database?

    - by Zingam
    I am doing this as a small project to learn about disconnected and connected models in .NET 4.0 and SQL Server 2008 R2. I have three tables: Companies (PK CompanyID) Addresses (PK AddressID, FK CompanyID) ContactPersons (PK ContactPersonID, FK CompanyID) CompanyID is assigned manually by the users. The other IDs are auto-generated. Companies has a one-to-many relationship with ContactPerson. I have set any changes to cascade. I display all records in Companies in a DataGridView and when a row is clicked, the corresponding records in ContactPersons are displayed in a second DataGridView. I have successfully implemented updating and inserting new records but I completely fail in my attempts to delete rows and save the changes to the database. I us a typed dataset. If I use this: DataRow[] contactPersonRows = m_SoldaCompaniesFileDataSet.ContactPersons.Select("ContactPersonID = " + this.m_CurrentContactPerson.ContactPersonID); m_SoldaCompaniesFileDataSet.ContactPersons.Rows.Remove(contactPersonRows[0]); The records are displayed properly in the DataGridView but are not saved in the database later. If I use this: DataRow row = m_SoldaCompaniesFileDataSet.ContactPersons.Rows.Find(this.m_CurrentContactPerson.ContactPersonID); row.Delete(); The records are set but I get an exeception: DeletedRowInaccessibleException, when I try to refresh the DataGridView. The exception pop-s up in the auto-generated dataset.design file. I am pretty much stuck at this point since yesterday. I cannot find anything anywhere that remotely resembles my problem. And I cannot understand actually what is going on.

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  • User input in Perl with IO::Socket

    - by David
    I am trying to make a perl program which allows a user to input the host and the port number of a foreign host to connect to using IO::Socket. It allows me to run the program and input a host and a port but it never connects and says "Could not connect to [host] at c:\users\USER\Documents\code\perl\sql.pl line 18, line 2." What am i doing wrong with this code shown below? And also, how can i have input validation on my host, which can either be a host name or an ip address? Thanks a bunch! Code Below use IO::Socket print "Host to connect to: "; chomp ($host = <STDIN>); print "Port to connect with: "; chomp ($port = <STDIN>); while(($port > 65535) || ($port <= 0)){ print "Port to connect with [Port > 0 < 65535] : "; chomp ($port = <STDIN>); } print "\nConnecting to host $host on port $port\n"; $socket = new IO::Socket::INET ( LocalHost => '$host', LocalPort => '$port', Proto => 'tcp', Listen => 5, Reuse => 1 ); die "Could not connect to $host";

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  • Reorganizing development environment for single developer/small shop

    - by Matthew
    I have been developing for my company for approximately three years. We serve up a web portal using Microsoft .NET and MS SQL Server on DotNetNuke. I am going to leave my job full time at the end of April. I am leaving on good terms, and I really care about this company and the state of the web project. Because I haven't worked in a team environment in a long time, I have probably lost touch with what 'real' setups look like. When I leave, I predict the company will either find another developer to take over, or at least have developers work on a contractual basis. Because I have not worked with other developers, I am very concerned with leaving the company (and the developer they hire) with a jumbled mess. I'd like to believe I am a good developer and everything makes sense, but I have no way to tell. My question, is how do I set up the development environment, so the company and the next developer will have little trouble getting started? What would you as a developer like in place before working on a project you've never worked on? Here's some relevant information: There is a development server onsite and a production server offsite in a data center . There is a server where backups and source code (Sourcegear Vault) are stored. There is no formal documentation but there are comments in the code. The company budget is tight so free suggestions will help the best. I will be around after the end of April on a consulting basis so I can ask simple questions but I will not be available full time to train someone

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  • Entity Framework DateTime update extremely slow

    - by Phyxion
    I have this situation currently with Entity Framework: using (TestEntities dataContext = DataContext) { UserSession session = dataContext.UserSessions.FirstOrDefault(userSession => userSession.Id == SessionId); if (session != null) { session.LastAvailableDate = DateTime.Now; dataContext.SaveChanges(); } } This is all working perfect, except for the fact that it is terribly slow compared to what I expect (14 calls per second, tested with 100 iterations). When I update this record manually through this command: dataContext.Database.ExecuteSqlCommand(String.Format("update UserSession set LastAvailableDate = '{0}' where Id = '{1}'", DateTime.Now.ToString("yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss.fffffff"), SessionId)); I get 55 calls per second, which is more than fast enough. However, when I don't update the session.LastAvailableDate but I update an integer (e.g. session.UserId) or string with Entity Framework, I get 50 calls per second, which is also more than fast enough. Only the datetime field is terrible slow. The difference of a factor 4 is unacceptable and I was wondering how I can improve this as I don't prefer using direct SQL when I can also use the Entity Framework. I'm using Entity Framework 4.3.1 (also tried 4.1).

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  • Why does grails use hsqldb when I ask for mysql?

    - by John
    I'm following the racetrack example from Jason Rudolph's book at InfoQ, using grails-1.2.1. I got up to the part where I was to switch from hsqldb to mysql. I think I've deleted every reference to hsqldb in the DataSource.groovy file, but I get an exception and the stack trace shows it's still using hsqldb. DataSource.groovy dataSource { boolean pooled = true String driverClassName = "com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" String url = "jdbc:mysql://localhost/dfpc2" String dbCreate = "create" String username = "dfpc2" String password = "dfpc2" dialect = org.hibernate.dialect.MySQL5InnoDBDialect } hibernate { cache.use_second_level_cache=true cache.use_query_cache=true cache.provider_class='net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.EhCacheProvider' } // environment specific settings environments { development { } test { } production { } } When I grails run-app it all starts up with no errors. I can navigate to the home page. But when I click on one of the links, I get a stack trace: java.sql.SQLException: Table not found in statement [select this_.id as id0_0_, this_.version as version0_0_, this_.name as name0_0_, this_.variant as variant0_0_ from domainObject this_ limit ?] at org.hsqldb.jdbc.Util.throwError(Unknown Source) at org.hsqldb.jdbc.jdbcPreparedStatement.<init>(Unknown Source) at org.hsqldb.jdbc.jdbcConnection.prepareStatement(Unknown Source) at dfpc2.domainObjectController$_closure2.doCall(script1269434425504953491149.groovy:13) at dfpc2.domainObjectController$_closure2.doCall(script1269434425504953491149.groovy) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) My mysql database shows no tables created. (I don't think groovy's connected to mysql yet.) Things I've checked: mysql-connector-java-5.1.6.jar is in lib directory. I've tried grails clean I tried putting the dataSource info in the development environment (I haven't graduated to test or prod yet), but it seemed to make no difference. The stdout shows I'm using development env. I've googled for solutions, but the only solution I've found is when people don't change the test or production environments.

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  • Entity Framework - Many to Many Subquery

    - by Jorin
    I asked a question about this previously but my database structure has changed, and while it made other things simpler, now this part is more complicated. Here is the previous question. At the time, my EF Context had a UsersProjects object because there were other properties. Now that I've simplified that table, it is just the keys, so all my EF context knows about is Users and Projects and the M2M relationship between them. There is no more UsersProjects as far as EF knows. So my goal is to say "show me all the users who are working on projects with me." in SQL, this would go something like: SELECT * FROM Users INNER JOIN UsersProjects ON Users.ID=UsersProjects.UserID WHERE ProjectID IN (SELECT ProjectID FROM UsersProjects WHERE UserID=@UserID) and I started in EF with something like this: var myProjects = (from p in edmx.Projects where p.Users.Contains(edmx.Users.FirstOrDefault(u => u.Email == UserEmail)) orderby p.Name select p).ToList(); var associatedUsers = (from u in edmx.Users where myProjects.Contains(?????????) //where myProjects.Any(????????) select u); The trick is finding what to put in the ????????. Anyone help here?

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  • Property on business objects - getting and setting

    - by Mike
    Hi, I am using LINQ to SQL for the DataAccess layer. I have similar business objects to what is in the data access layer. I have got the dataprovider getting the message #23. On instantiation of the message, in the message constructor, it gets the MessageType and makes a new instance of MessageType class and fills in the MessageType information from the database. Therefore; I want this to get the Name of the MessageType of the Message. user.Messages[23].MessageType.Name I also want an administrator to set the MessageType user.Messages[23].MessageType = MessageTypes.LoadType(3); but I don't want the user to publicly set the MessageType.Name. But when I make a new MessageType instance, the access modifier for the Name property is public because I want to set that from an external class (my data access layer). I could change this to property to internal, so that my class can access it like a public variable, and not allow my other application access to modify it. This still doesn't feel right as it seems like a public property. Are public access modifiers in this situation bad? Any tips or suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • AJAX filter MySQL results using checkboxes

    - by keepitnang
    I'm attempting to get to grips with displaying filterable MySQL data within a PHP page based on user checkbox selections. I have a database of domain names and the dates on which these will require renewal as per Nominet DAC information and I can get unfiltered data to display, but filtering results by domain extensions is proving tricky for me to accomplish. I should point out at this stage that I am a serious newcomer to many of the ideas I am trying to learn to work with here, so please be gentle. I have tried following some other articles on here also, but no dice. I have the following so far: HTML <input type="checkbox" class="extensions" name="extensions" value=".co.uk">.co.uk</input> <input type="checkbox" class="extensions" name="extensions" value=".org.uk">.org.uk</input> Script $('.extensions').live('click', function() { var all_boxes = $('.extensions'); var all_boxes_values = []; var i = 0; for (var i; i < all_boxes.length; i++) { if (all_boxes[i].checked) { all_boxes_values.push(all_boxes[i].value) } } var all_boxes_values_clean = all_boxes_values.join(", "); console.log(all_boxes_values_clean); $.get("sql-test.php", {q: all_boxes_values_clean}, function(result) { $("div#output").html(result); } )}); PHP $g = $_GET['q']; $extensionsql=""; $extension=1; if(isset($g)) { $extension=1; $param = "" . str_replace(",", "','", $_GET['q']) . ""; } And that's as far as I have gotten with my limited ability. What I would like to do next is search the column domainName for a string match and return the appropriate results to the user. Something to mimic something like the following but I'm not sure how to achieve it. Any help would be much appreciated: SELECT * FROM `refresh` WHERE `domainName` LIKE '%.co.uk%' AND renewalDate LIKE '%2012-06-30%' ORDER BY `domainName` ASC Thanks

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  • Elegant Disjunctive Normal Form in Django

    - by Mike
    Let's say I've defined this model: class Identifier(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User) key = models.CharField(max_length=64) value = models.CharField(max_length=255) Each user will have multiple identifiers, each with a key and a value. I am 100% sure I want to keep the design like this, there are external reasons why I'm doing it that I won't go through here, so I'm not interested in changing this. I'd like to develop a function of this sort: def get_users_by_identifiers(**kwargs): # something goes here return users The function will return all users that have one of the key=value pairs specified in **kwargs. Here's an example usage: get_users_by_identifiers(a=1, b=2) This should return all users for whom a=1 or b=2. I've noticed that the way I've set this up, this amounts to a disjunctive normal form...the SQL query would be something like: SELECT DISTINCT(user_id) FROM app_identifier WHERE (key = "a" AND value = "1") OR (key = "b" AND value = "2") ... I feel like there's got to be some elegant way to take the **kwargs input and do a Django filter on it, in just 1-2 lines, to produce this result. I'm new to Django though, so I'm just not sure how to do it. Here's my function now, and I'm completely sure it's not the best way to do it :) def get_users_by_identifiers(**identifiers): users = [] for key, value in identifiers.items(): for identifier in Identifier.objects.filter(key=key, value=value): if not identifier.user in users: users.append(identifier.user) return users Any ideas? :) Thanks!

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  • error while updating a database in ASP.NET

    - by Viredae
    I am having trouble updating an SQL database, the problem is not that it doesn't update at all, but that particular parameters are being updated while the others are not. here is the code for updating the parameters: string EditRequest = "UPDATE Requests SET Description = @Desc, BJustif = @Justif, Priority = @Priority, Requested_System = @Requested, Request_Status = @Stat WHERE"; EditRequest += " Req_ID=@ID"; SqlConnection Submit_conn = new SqlConnection(WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["DBConn"].ConnectionString); SqlCommand Submit_comm = new SqlCommand(EditRequest, Submit_conn); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", Request.QueryString["reqid"]); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Desc", DescBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Justif", JustifBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Priority", PriorityList.SelectedValue); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Requested", RelatedBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Stat", 1); Submit_conn.Open(); Submit_comm.ExecuteNonQuery(); Submit_comm.Dispose(); Submit_comm = null; Submit_conn.Close(); get_Description(); Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "Refresh", "ReloadPage();", true); this function is called by a button on a pop-up form which shows the parameters content that is being changed in a text box which is also used to submit the changes back to the database, but when I press submit, the parameters which are displayed on the form don't change, I can't find any problem wit the code, even though I've compared it to similar code which is working fine. In case you need to, here is one of the text boxes I'm using to display and edit the content: <asp:TextBox ID="JustifBox" TextMode="MultiLine" runat="server" Width="250" Height="50"></asp:TextBox> What exactly is wrong with the code?

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  • Sending information between JavaScript and Web Services using AJAX

    - by COB-CSU-AM
    Alright so I'm using Microsoft's Web Services and AJAX to get information from a SQL database for use with java script on the client side. And I'm wondering what the best method is. Before I started working on the project, the web services were setup to return a C# List filled with some objects. Those objects variables (ints, strings, etc.) contain the data I want to use. Of course, java script can't do much with this, to the best of my knowledge. I then modified the web service to return a 2D Array, but java script got confused, and to the best of my knowledge can't handle 2D array's returned from C#. I then tried to use a regular array, but then a found the length property of an array in JS doesn't carry over, so I couldn't preform a for loop through all the items, because there wasn't anyway of knowing how many elements there were. The only other thing I can thing of is returning a string with special char's to separate the data, but this seems way too convoluted. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • Execute a block of database querys

    - by Nightmare
    I have the following task to complete: In my program a have a block of database querys or questions. I want to execute these questions and wait for the result of all questions or catch an error if one question fails! My Question object looks like this (simplified): public class DbQuestion(String sql) { [...] } [...] //The answer is just a holder for custom data... public void SetAnswer(DbAnswer answer) { //Store the answer in the question and fire a event to the listeners this.OnAnswered(EventArgs.Empty); } [...] public void SetError() { //Signal an Error in this query! this.OnError(EventArgs.Empty); } So every question fired to the database has a listener that waits for the parsed result. Now I want to fire some questions asynchronous to the database (max. 5 or so) and fire an event with the data from all questions or an error if only one question throws one! Which is the best or a good way to accomplish this task? Can I really execute more then one question parallel and stop all my work when one question throws an error? I think I need some inspiration on this... Just a note: I´m working with .NET framework 2.0

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  • Best practices for (over)using Azure queues

    - by John
    Hi, I'm in the early phases of designing an Azure-based application. One of the things that attracts me to Azure is the scalability, given the variability of the demand I'm likely to expect. As such I'm trying to keep things loosely coupled so I can add instances when I need to. The recommendations I've seen for architecting an application for Azure include keeping web role logic to a minimum, and having processing done in worker roles, using queues to communicate and some sort of back-end store like SQL Azure or Azure Tables. This seems like a good idea to me as I can scale up either or both parts of the application without any issue. However I'm curious if there are any best practices (or if anyone has any experiences) for when it's best to just have the web role talk directly to the data store vs. sending data by the queue? I'm thinking of the case where I have a simple insert to do from the web role - while I could set this up as a message, send it on the queue, and have a worker role pick it up and do the insert, it seems like a lot of double-handling. However I also appreciate that it may be the case that this is better in the long run, in case the web role gets overwhelmed or more complex logic ends up being required for the insert. I realise this might be a case where the answer is "it depends entirely on the situation, check your perf metrics" - but if anyone has any thoughts I'd be very appreciative! Thanks John

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  • C# How to create various objects at runtime that can hold strongly typed data?

    - by JL
    Is it possible to create objects at runtime without having to have hard coded class definitions, then populate properties with primitives or even strongly typed data types? For example: Lets say I want to an XML config file that could hold configuration values for connecting to various systems in an SOA application. In C# I read in these values, but for each system the properties are different (e.g: SQL might have a connection string, while SharePoint might need a username + password + domain + url, while yet an smtp server would need username + password + port + url) So instead of creating static classes as follows public class SharePointConfiguration or public class SQLConfiguration, then have each class with custom properties (this is cumbersome) Is there not a more preferred way to achieve this, without using 1990's methods, in otherwords it would still be nice to have intellisense and code completion and named properties. Since this collection of properties (object) would be passed within the class and possible to other classes from function to function I am also wondering where this class definition would get defined if its all happening at run time. Any recommendations, and hope the question was clear enough. Would like to use language features, not hacks. Thank you.

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  • Most efficient way to LIMIT results in a JOIN?

    - by johnnietheblack
    I have a fairly simple one-to-many type join in a MySQL query. In this case, I'd like to LIMIT my results by the left table. For example, let's say I have an accounts table and a comments table, and I'd like to pull 100 rows from accounts and all the associated comments rows for each. Thy only way I can think to do this is with a sub-select in in the FROM clause instead of simply selecting FROM accounts. Here is my current idea: SELECT a.*, c.* FROM (SELECT * FROM accounts LIMIT 100) a LEFT JOIN `comments` c on c.account_id = a.id ORDER BY a.id However, whenever I need to do a sub-select of some sort, my intermediate level SQL knowledge feels like it's doing something wrong. Is there a more efficient, or faster, way to do this, or is this pretty good? By the way... This might be the absolute simplest way to do this, which I'm okay with as an answer. I'm simply trying to figure out if there IS another way to do this that could potentially compete with the above statement in terms of speed.

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  • Entity framework self referencing loop detected

    - by Lyd0n
    I have a strange error. I'm experimenting with a .NET 4.5 Web API, Entity Framework and MS SQL Server. I've already created the database and set up the correct primary and foreign keys and relationships. I've created a .edmx model and imported two tables: Employee and Department. A department can have many employees and this relationship exists. I created a new controller called EmployeeController using the scaffolding options to create an API controller with read/write actions using Entity Framework. In the wizard, selected Employee as the model and the correct entity for the data context. The method that is created looks like this: // GET api/Employee public IEnumerable<Employee> GetEmployees() { var employees = db.Employees.Include(e => e.Department); return employees.AsEnumerable(); } When I call my API via /api/Employee, I get this error: ...The 'ObjectContent`1' type failed to serialize the response body for content type 'application/json; ...System.InvalidOperationException","StackTrace":null,"InnerException":{"Message":"An error has occurred.","ExceptionMessage":"Self referencing loop detected with type 'System.Data.Entity.DynamicProxies.Employee_5D80AD978BC68A1D8BD675852F94E8B550F4CB150ADB8649E8998B7F95422552'. Path '[0].Department.Employees'.","ExceptionType":"Newtonsoft.Json.JsonSerializationException","StackTrace":" ... Why is it self referencing [0].Department.Employees? That doesn't make a whole lot of sense. I would expect this to happen if I had circular referencing in my database but this is a very simple example. What could be going wrong?

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  • could not execute a stored procedure(using DAAB) from a client(aspx page) to a wcf service

    - by user1144695
    i am trying to store data to sql database from a asp.net client website through a stored procedure(using DAAB) in a wcf service hosted in a asp.net empty website.When i try to store data to the DB i get the following error: ** - The server was unable to process the request due to an internal error. For more information about the error, either turn on IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults (either from ServiceBehaviorAttribute or from the <serviceDebug> configuration behavior) on the server in order to send the exception information back to the client, or turn on tracing as per the Microsoft .NET Framework SDK documentation and inspect the server trace logs. ** When i try to debug i get the following exception: Activation error occured while trying to get instance of type Database, key "" in the code-- Database db = EnterpriseLibraryContainer.Current.GetInstance<Database>("MyInstance"); where my app.config is <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="dataConfiguration" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data.Configuration.DatabaseSettings, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Data, Version=5.0.414.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" requirePermission="true"/> </configSections> <dataConfiguration defaultDatabase="MyInstance"/> <connectionStrings> <add name="MyInstance" connectionString="Data Source=BLRKDAS307581\KD;Integrated Security=True;User ID=SAPIENT\kdas3;Password=ilove0LINUX" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> <startup> <supportedRuntime version="v4.0" sku=".NETFramework,Version=v4.0"/> </startup> </configuration> Can anyone help me with it? Thanks in advance...

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  • ODP.NET Procedure Compilation

    - by Bobcat1506
    When I try to execute a create procedure using ODP.NET I get back ORA-24344: success with compilation error. However, when I run the same statement in SQL Developer it compiles successfully. Does anyone know what I need to change to get my procedure to compile? Is it a character set issue? I am using Oracle 10g Express, .NET 3.5 SP 1, and ODP.NET 2.111.7.20 (version from Oracle.DataAccess.dll) [TestMethod] public void OdpNet_CreateProcedure() { ConnectionStringSettings settings = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ODP.NET"]; using (var con = new OracleConnection(settings.ConnectionString)) { con.InfoMessage += new OracleInfoMessageEventHandler(con_InfoMessage); con.Open(); var cmd = new OracleCommand(); cmd.Connection = con; cmd.CommandText = @" CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE TABLE1_GET ( P_CURSOR OUT SYS_REFCURSOR ) IS BEGIN OPEN P_CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM TABLE1; END;"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); // ORA-24344: success with compilation error cmd.CommandText = @"ALTER PROCEDURE TABLE1_GET COMPILE"; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); // ORA-24344: success with compilation error } } void con_InfoMessage(object sender, OracleInfoMessageEventArgs eventArgs) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(eventArgs.Message); }

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  • CakePHP: Need help using saveField to update a fields in a belongsTo model

    - by afrisch
    I am trying to update a password into two different models/tables in CakePHP. I can update it fine in the parent model, but not the second model. Models: Users (hasOne GameProfile) PK=id Gameprofiles (belongsTo User) FK=user_id Here is a stripped down version of my function in the Users_controller.php: function updatepass() { if (!empty($this->data)) { $this->User->id = $this->Auth->user('id'); $this->User->saveField('sha1password', $this->Auth->password($this->data['User']['newpass'])); $this->User->Gameprofile->saveField('plainpassword', $this->data['User']['newpass']); } } When I execute the function, the users table is updated fine. But the gameprofile table is not updated, rather Cake does an insert. SQL Query Log: 1195 Query UPDATE `users` SET `sha1password` = 'e9443e9f5e1a07832aad1b2f84de1a666daf89b5' WHERE `users`.`id` = 30 1195 Query INSERT INTO `gameprofiles` (`plainpassword`) VALUES ('abc') Is there a way to get CakePHP to do an update using saveField on a model with a belongsTo attribute? I've tried various ways to refer to user_id before executing the second saveField, but just can't seem to find the winning combination. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Protecting critical sections based on a condition in C#

    - by NAADEV
    Hello, I'm dealing with a courious scenario. I'm using EntityFramework to save (insert/update) into a SQL database in a multithreaded environment. The problem is i need to access database to see whether a register with a particular key has been already created in order to set a field value (executing) or it's new to set a different value (pending). Those registers are identified by a unique guid. I've solved this problem by setting a lock since i do know entity will not be present in any other process, in other words, i will not have same guid in different processes and it seems to be working fine. It looks something like that: static readonly object LockableObject = new object(); static void SaveElement(Entity e) { lock(LockableObject) { Entity e2 = Repository.FindByKey(e); if (e2 != null) { Repository.Insert(e2); } else { Repository.Update(e2); } } } But this implies when i have a huge ammount of requests to be saved, they will be queued. I wonder if there is something like that (please, take it just as an idea): static void SaveElement(Entity e) { (using ThisWouldBeAClassToProtectBasedOnACondition protector = new ThisWouldBeAClassToProtectBasedOnACondition(e => e.UniqueId) { Entity e2 = Repository.FindByKey(e); if (e2 != null) { Repository.Insert(e2); } else { Repository.Update(e2); } } } The idea would be having a kind of protection that protected based on a condition so each entity e would have its own lock based on e.UniqueId property. Any idea?

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