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• MySQL get point in time totals from related tables

  - by batfastad

  Hi everyone We have an order book and invoicing system and I've been tasked with trying to output monthly rolling totals from these tables. But I don't know really where to start with this. I think there's some SQL syntax that I don't even know about yet. I'm familiar with INNER/LEFT/JOINS and GROUP BY etc but grouping by date is confusing since I don't know how to limit the data to only the current date that's being grouped by at that point. I think this will involve joining the tables to themselves or possibly a sub-select. I always thought it best to avoid sub-selects apart from when absolutely necessary. Basically the system has 3 tables orders: order_id, currency, order_stamp orders_lines: order_line_id, invoice_id, order_id, price invoices: invoice_id, invoice_stamp order_stamp and invoice_stamp are UTC unix timestamps stored as integers, not MySQL timestamps. I'm trying to get a listing by year/month showing the total of current unbilled orders (sum of price), at that point in time. Current orders are ones where order_stamp is less than or equal to 00:00 on the 1st of the month. Unbilled orders are ones where invoice_stamp is null or invoice_stamp is greater than 00:00 on the 1st of the month. At that point in time there may not be a related invoice yet and invoice_id might be null. Anyone got any suggestions on what I should join to what and what I need to group by? Cheers, B

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• Appropriate Footwear for An Interview

  - by EoRaptor013

  There's a raging debate going on at my house about appropriate footwear for an IT interview. I have an interview, on Thursday, for a SQL/C# developer with the Fraud dept. at a large accounting firm. I was planning on wearing what I have pretty much always worn for an interview: a nice suit, white shirt, subdued tie, and a pair of dress cowboy boots. My spouse and daughter both know that my dress code for nearly every professional job I've ever gotten, is pretty much the same -- including the boots -- with what I just described. Now, however, because I've been out of work for an unfortunately long time (my last contract ended 03/09 -- pretty much coincidental with the bottom falling out of the economy). My wife insists that style standards are fundamentally different on the left side of the Mississippi vs. the right side of the river. My view is that I've always worn "cowboy" boots; since I was old enough to fit into a real pair. I moved East, as an adult, over 30 years ago, but my dress patterns haven't changed. And in all that time, my dress patterns have never changed. Now I both really want, and really need, this job. But, is that sufficient reason to change a habit 40 years in the making? I would really appreciate the thoughts ya'all (little West of Ms. colloquialism, there) might have on this matter. Thanks. P.S. If this sort of question is inappropriate for this form, I apologize.

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• Populate an unmapped property of domain object from result of join with Nhibernate

  - by Adam Pope

  I have a situation where I have 3 tables: StockItem, Office and StockItemPrice. The price for each StockItem can be different for each Office. StockItem( ID Name ) Office( ID Name ) StockItemPrice( ID StockItemID OfficeID Price ) I've set up a schema with 2 many-to-one relations to link StockItem and Office. So in my StockItem domain object I have a property: IList<StockItemPrice> Prices; which gets loaded with the price of the item for each office. That's working fine. Now I'm trying to get the price of an item for a single office. I have the following Criteria query: NHibernateSession.CreateCriteria(persistentType) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("ID", id)) .CreateAlias("Prices", "StockItemPrice") .Add(Restrictions.Eq("StockItemPrice.Office", office)) .UniqueResult<StockItem>(); This appears to work fine as the SQL it generates is what I qould expect. However, I dont know if it populates StockItem.Prices with a single object correctly as as soon as I reference that property NHibernate performs a lazy load of all the office's prices. Also, even if it does work, it feels really crufty having to access the price by using: mystockitem.Prices[0].Price What I would really like is to have a Price field on the StockItem object and have the price of the item put into that field by NHibernate. I've tried adding .CreateCriteria("Price", "StockItemPrice.Price") and the same with CreateAlias, but I get the error NHibernate.QueryException : could not resolve property: Price of: StockItem which makes sense I guess as Price isn't a mapped property. How would I adjust the query to make this possible?

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• How can one convince a team to use a new technology (LinQ, MVC, etc )?

  - by Atomiton

  Obviously, it's easier to do with some developers, but I'm sure many of us are on teams that prefer the status quo. You know the type. You see some benefit in a piece of new technology and they prefer the tried and true methods. Try, for example, DBA/C# programmer the advantages of using LinQ ( not necessarily LinQ to SQL, just LinQ in general ). For example, When a project requirement is to be cross-platform... instead of thinking about how one can run Windows on a Mac through a VM Machine, introducing the idea of using relatively new Silverlight or creating it in Java ( as an option to look into ). I know most people don't like to be out of their comfort level, so it takes a bit of convincing, and not ALL new technology makes business sense... but how have you convinced your team to look at a new technology? What technologies have you successfully introduced to your workplace? What technologies do you think are hardest to introduce? ( I'm thinking paradigm-shifting ones, like MVC from WebForms... or new languages ) What strategies do you employ to make these new technologies appealing?

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• How to eliminate duplicate rows?

  - by Odette

  hi guys im back with my original query and i just have one question please (ps: I know i have to vote and regsiter and I promise I will do that today) With the following query (t-sql) I am getting the correct results, except that there are duplicates now. I have been reading up and think I can use the PARTITION BY syntax - can you please show me how to incorporate the PARTITION BY syntax? WITH CALC1 AS (SELECT OTQUOT, OTIT01 AS ITEMS, ROUND(OQCQ01 * OVRC01,2) AS COST FROM @[email protected] WHERE OTIT01 < '' UNION ALL ... SELECT OTQUOT, OTIT10 AS ITEMS, ROUND(OQCQ10 * OVRC10,2) AS COST FROM @[email protected] WHERE OTIT10 < '' ) SELECT OTQUOT, DESC, ITEMS, RN FROM ( SELECT OTQUOT, ITEMS, B.IXRPGP AS GROUP, C.OTRDSC AS DESC, COST, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OTQUOT ORDER BY COST DESC) AS RN FROM CALC1 AS A INNER JOIN @[email protected] AS B ON (A.ITEMS = B.IKITMC) INNER JOIN DATAGRP.GDSGRP AS C ON (B.IXRPGP = C.OKRPGP) ) T RESULTS: 60408169 FENCING GNCPDCTP18BGBG 1 60408169 FENCING CGIFESHPD1795BG 2 60408169 FENCING GTTCGIBG 3 60408169 FENCING GBTCGIBG 4 How do I get rid of the duplicates? thanks Bill and all the others for your help (I am still learning!)

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• Database contents setting themselves to 0

  - by Luis Armando

  I have a Database that contains 4 tables, however I'm using 1 of them which is separated from the others. In this table I have 4 fields which are varchar and the rest are ints (11 other fields), when the users fill up the DB everything gets saved correctly, however it has happened 3 times so far that the database values for the int's reset to 0 without any apparent reason. At first, I thought, it was because those fields (where the numbers should go) were varchars not ints. However since I changed it, it happened again. I've already double checked my code and I have nothing that even updates or inserts a 0 value. Also I'm using codeigniter and active records which protect against SQL injections AND have XSS filtering enabled, could anyone point out something I might be missing or a reason for this to be happening? Also, I'm pretty sure about the answer of this but, is there ANY way to recover some data?? Other than having to ask everyone to fill in everything again.. =/ ** EDIT ** The Storage Engine is MyISAM and Collation is latin1_swedish_ci, Pack Keys are default, for all intents and purposes it's a normal DB

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• magento category tree menu query being called on every page

  - by user1173309

  I have this query being called on every page in Magento CE 1.6.2, to find out where is it being called from, I have disabled all modules, removed the customizations done but it's still being called, this query is slowing up the page loading time and am at my wit's end trying to find out how can I stop it from being executed. The query is given below, for simplcitiy, I have removed lot of category id' to keep the sql short, it would be great if I could get solutions or hints to stop this query being called. SELECT e.*, IF(at_is_active.value_id 0, at_is_active.value, at_is_active_default.value) AS is_active, IF(at_include_in_menu.value_id 0, at_include_in_menu.value, at_include_in_menu_default.value) AS include_in_menu, core_url_rewrite.request_path FROM catalog_category_entity AS e INNER JOIN catalog_category_entity_int AS at_is_active_default ON (at_is_active_default.entity_id = e.entity_id) AND (at_is_active_default.attribute_id = '119') AND at_is_active_default.store_id = 0 LEFT JOIN catalog_category_entity_int AS at_is_active ON (at_is_active.entity_id = e.entity_id) AND (at_is_active.attribute_id = '119') AND (at_is_active.store_id = 1) INNER JOIN catalog_category_entity_int AS at_include_in_menu_default ON (at_include_in_menu_default.entity_id = e.entity_id) AND (at_include_in_menu_default.attribute_id = '934') AND at_include_in_menu_default.store_id = 0 LEFT JOIN catalog_category_entity_int AS at_include_in_menu ON (at_include_in_menu.entity_id = e.entity_id) AND (at_include_in_menu.attribute_id = '934') AND (at_include_in_menu.store_id = 1) LEFT JOIN core_url_rewrite ON (core_url_rewrite.category_id=e.entity_id) AND (core_url_rewrite.is_system=1 AND core_url_rewrite.product_id IS NULL AND core_url_rewrite.store_id='1' AND id_path LIKE 'category/%') WHERE (e.entity_type_id = '9') AND (e.entity_id IN('105', '125', '284', '285', '286', '288', '289', '185', '463', '464', '465', '625')) AND (e.entity_id NOT IN('140', '145', '530', '531', '775')) AND (IF(at_is_active.value_id 0, at_is_active.value, at_is_active_default.value) = '1') AND (IF(at_include_in_menu.value_id 0, at_include_in_menu.value, at_include_in_menu_default.value) = '1') Cheers Arjun

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• Property on business objects - getting and setting

  - by Mike

  Hi, I am using LINQ to SQL for the DataAccess layer. I have similar business objects to what is in the data access layer. I have got the dataprovider getting the message #23. On instantiation of the message, in the message constructor, it gets the MessageType and makes a new instance of MessageType class and fills in the MessageType information from the database. Therefore; I want this to get the Name of the MessageType of the Message. user.Messages[23].MessageType.Name I also want an administrator to set the MessageType user.Messages[23].MessageType = MessageTypes.LoadType(3); but I don't want the user to publicly set the MessageType.Name. But when I make a new MessageType instance, the access modifier for the Name property is public because I want to set that from an external class (my data access layer). I could change this to property to internal, so that my class can access it like a public variable, and not allow my other application access to modify it. This still doesn't feel right as it seems like a public property. Are public access modifiers in this situation bad? Any tips or suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

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• Writing to the DataContext

  - by user738383

  I have a function. This function takes an IEnumerable<Customer> (Customer being an entity). What the function needs to do is tell the DataContext (which has a collection of Customers as a property) that its Customers property needs to be overwritten with this passed in IEnumerable<Customer>. I can't use assignment because DomainContext.Customers cannot be assigned to, as it is read only. I guess it's not clear what I'm asking, so I suppose I should say... how do I do that? So we have DataContext.Customers (of type System.Data.Linq.Table) which wants to be replaced with a System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable. I can't just assign the latter to the former because DataContext's properties are read only. But there must be a way. Edit: here's an image: Further edit: Yes, this image does not feature a collection of the type 'Customer' but rather 'Connection'. It doesn't matter though, they are both created from tables within the linked SQL database. So there is a dc.Connections, a dc.Customers, a dc.Media and so on. Thanks in advance.

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• Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

  - by IrfanRaza

  Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

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• How can I share an entity framework model across website users

  - by richardmoss

  Hello, Currently my website is based around MVC and the Entity Framework running against a SQL Server 2005 database. So far, it has all been running very smoothly, and I really enjoy MVC and its slimmer more concise code (and no huge viewstates or soul destroying postbacks ;)) Recently I was working on upgrading the site to use a simple forum system, and this is where I started running into problems. When I was testing the site using two different browsers, if I created or replied to a post in one browser, the other browser couldn't see the post. At the moment, each visitor to the site gets their own copy of the entity model, which I store in their session data. Obviously this is the problem as updates to one model aren't getting carried to the other. As a test, I tried storing a single copy of the model which all visitors would access by assigning the model to a static variable. This worked, and both browsers could see each others modifications. However, it had its side effects. For example, if I fired up both browsers at the same time and the model was initialized, one browser would crash, and the other would work fine, despite me using a locking object so in theory one of them should have been delayed until the model was ready (of course I could have implemented this wrong ;)). Also, originally this site did use one model for all visitors and when it was live, it frequently shut down - killing the IIS application pool while it did. Now I'm not sure if this was related, but I don't really want to reintroduce whatever bug I had that caused this shut down. So, my question is a simple one really - what is the best way of either using the same model for all website users so they all see updates, or if they do have separate copies (which I imagine will have a performance impact in time) how can the models detect changes in the database and update themselves according. Thanks in advance for any advice! Regards; Richard Moss

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• Keeping cached browser data inside ASP update panel textboxes/dropdowns for browser back click

  - by pmlevere

  I'm new in VB.net/asp and am running a VB web application in a visual database program called IronSpeed designer. I'm primarily using IronSpeed in this case for its login/role security features. I have a basic two page setup for this app. The user logs in then is taken to AccountEntry.aspx, they enter data into textboxes and select some dropdown values that are linked to a sql database, then they click "submit" to move to Results.aspx. On Results.aspx, the user can change data and then generate several types of reports (PDF, Excel, etc). I'm used to setting up ASP controls inside ASPContent areas, and in these areas if a user performs a browser back click the previously entered data will still be on the page for potential user modification. However in this web app, IronSpeed is setting up the page and asp controls inside an asp update panel. It appears inside an asp update panel, cached values can't be seen on a browser back click. In this case, it's important that the orginally entered values still be there for the user experience if the user advances to Results.aspx then clicks browser back to modify a value on AccountEntry.aspx. If I have to I'll setup Session Variables and disable browser clicking, but that is last resort. Is there any way to save cached data inside an asp update panel and have it there for a browser back click?

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• MSSQL: Views that use SELECT * need to be recreated if the underlying table changes

  - by cbp

  Is there a way to make views that use SELECT * stay in sync with the underlying table. What I have discovered is that if changes are made to the underlying table, from which all columns are to be selected, the view needs to be 'recreated'. This can be achieved simly by running an ALTER VIEW statement. However this can lead to some pretty dangerous situations. If you forgot to recreate the view, it will not be returning the correct data. In fact it can be returning seriously messed up data - with the names of the columns all wrong and out of order. Nothing will pick up that the view is wrong unless you happened to have it covered by a test, or a data integrity check fails. For example, Red Gate SQL Compare doesn't pick up the fact that the view needs to be recreated. To replicate the problem, try these statements: CREATE TABLE Foobar (Bar varchar(20)) CREATE VIEW v_Foobar AS SELECT * FROM Foobar INSERT INTO Foobar (Bar) VALUES ('Hi there') SELECT * FROM v_Foobar ALTER TABLE Foobar ADD Baz varchar(20) SELECT * FROM v_Foobar DROP VIEW v_Foobar DROP TABLE Foobar I am tempted to stop using SELECT * in views, which will be a PITA. Is there a setting somewhere perhaps that could fix this behaviour?

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• C# How to create various objects at runtime that can hold strongly typed data?

  - by JL

  Is it possible to create objects at runtime without having to have hard coded class definitions, then populate properties with primitives or even strongly typed data types? For example: Lets say I want to an XML config file that could hold configuration values for connecting to various systems in an SOA application. In C# I read in these values, but for each system the properties are different (e.g: SQL might have a connection string, while SharePoint might need a username + password + domain + url, while yet an smtp server would need username + password + port + url) So instead of creating static classes as follows public class SharePointConfiguration or public class SQLConfiguration, then have each class with custom properties (this is cumbersome) Is there not a more preferred way to achieve this, without using 1990's methods, in otherwords it would still be nice to have intellisense and code completion and named properties. Since this collection of properties (object) would be passed within the class and possible to other classes from function to function I am also wondering where this class definition would get defined if its all happening at run time. Any recommendations, and hope the question was clear enough. Would like to use language features, not hacks. Thank you.

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• Reorganizing development environment for single developer/small shop

  - by Matthew

  I have been developing for my company for approximately three years. We serve up a web portal using Microsoft .NET and MS SQL Server on DotNetNuke. I am going to leave my job full time at the end of April. I am leaving on good terms, and I really care about this company and the state of the web project. Because I haven't worked in a team environment in a long time, I have probably lost touch with what 'real' setups look like. When I leave, I predict the company will either find another developer to take over, or at least have developers work on a contractual basis. Because I have not worked with other developers, I am very concerned with leaving the company (and the developer they hire) with a jumbled mess. I'd like to believe I am a good developer and everything makes sense, but I have no way to tell. My question, is how do I set up the development environment, so the company and the next developer will have little trouble getting started? What would you as a developer like in place before working on a project you've never worked on? Here's some relevant information: There is a development server onsite and a production server offsite in a data center . There is a server where backups and source code (Sourcegear Vault) are stored. There is no formal documentation but there are comments in the code. The company budget is tight so free suggestions will help the best. I will be around after the end of April on a consulting basis so I can ask simple questions but I will not be available full time to train someone

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• Zend Framework - counting rows in select clause ?

  - by moogeek

  Hello! I'm investigating Zend Framework and currently stucked in counting resulting rows of sql query... Every method I try (from documentation and some blogposts and tutorials) returns an error (like Call to undefined function) or simply gives the incorrect value. I've tried this: $checkquery = $db->select() ->from('users', 'COUNT(*)') ->where('login = ?', $login) ->where('password = ?', $password) ->query(); $checkrequest=fetchRow($checkquery)->num; ...then this one: $checkquery = $db->select() ->from('users', '*') ->where('login = ?', $login) ->where('password = ?', $password) ->query(); $checkrequest=count($checkquery->fetchAll()); and even: $checkquery = $db->select() ->from('users', '*') ->where('login = ?', $login) ->where('password = ?', $password) ->query(); $checkrequest=$checkquery->fetchAll()->num; Also rowCount() and count(fetchRow()) and count(fetchAll()->toArray()). But always I got an error message or duplicate inserts in db in further insert function. So what is the correct way to do the resulting row calculation in select clause in Zend Framework 1.9 (I use this one) ?

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• How Can I Find What's Causing My Transaction to Get Promoted?

  - by Damian Powell

  I have web site which serves web services (a mixture of .asmx and WCF) which is mostly using LINQ to SQL and System.Transactions. Occaisionally we see the transaction get promoted to a distributed transaction which causes problems because our web servers are isolated from our databases in such a way that it is not possible for us to use MSDTC. I have configured tracing for System.Transactions by adding the following to my web.config: <system.diagnostics> <sources> <source name="System.Transactions" switchValue="Information"> <listeners> <add name="tx" type="System.Diagnostics.XmlWriterTraceListener" initializeData="tx.log" /> </listeners> </source> </sources> </system.diagnostics> It's very interesting and shows me when the transaction is promoted, but I find that it doesn't really help be discover why. Is there an equivalent tracing mechanism for ADO.NET that will show me when connections are created, including the variables that affect pooling (user, cnn string, transaction scope)?

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• Why doesn't access database update?

  - by Ryan

  Recently I met a strange problem, see code snips as below: var sqlCommand: string; connection: TADOConnection; qry: TADOQuery; begin connection := TADOConnection.Create(nil); try connection.ConnectionString := 'Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=Test.MDB;Persist Security Info=False'; connection.Open(); qry := TADOQuery.Create(nil); try qry.Connection := connection; qry.SQL.Text := 'Select * from aaa'; qry.Open; qry.Append; qry.FieldByName('TestField1').AsString := 'test'; qry.Post; beep; finally qry.Free; end; finally connection.Free; end; end; First, Create a new access database named test.mdb and put it under the directory of this test project, we can create a new table named aaa in it which has only one text type field named TestField1. We set a breakpoint at line of "beep", then lunch the test application under ide debug mode, when ide stops at the breakpoint line (qry.post has been executed), at this time we use microsoft access to open test.mdb and open table aaa you will find there are no any changes in table aaa, if you let the ide continue running after pressing f9 you can find a new record is inserted in to table aaa, but if you press ctrl+f2 to terminate the application at the breakpoint, you will find the table aaa has no record been inserted, but in normal circumstance, a new record should be inserted in to the table aaa after qry.post executed. who can explain this problem , it troubles me so long time. thanks !!! BTW, the ide is delphi 2010, and the access mdb file is created by microsoft access 2007 under windows 7

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• Codeigniter Inserting Multidimensional Array as rows in MySQL

  - by RisingSun

  Please Refer to this question I asked Codeigniter Insert Multiple Rows in SQL To restate <tr> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][name]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][address]" value=""><br></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][age]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[0][email]" value=""></td> </tr> <tr> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][name]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][address]" value=""><br></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][age]" value=""></td> <td><input type="text" name="user[1][email]" value=""></td> </tr> .......... Can Be Inserted into MySQL as this foreach($_POST['user'] as $user) { $this->db->insert('mytable', $user); } This results in multiple MySQL queries. Is it possible to optimise it further, so that the insert occurs in one query Something like this insert multiple rows via a php array into mysql but taking advantage of codeigniters simpler syntax. Thanks

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• Connect Rails model to non-rails database

  - by the_snitch

  I'm creating a new web application (Rails 3 beta), of which pieces of it will access data from a legacy mysql database that a current php application is using. I do not wish to modify the legacy db schema, I just want to be able to read/write to it, as well as the rails application having it's own database using activerecord for the newer stuff. I'm using mysql for the rails app, so I have the adapter installed. How is the best way to do this? For example, I want contacts to come from the old database. Should I create a contacts controller, and manually call sql to get the variables for the views? Or should I create a Contact model, and define attributes that match the fields in the database, and am I able to use it like Contact.mail_address to have it call "SELECT mailaddr FROM contacts WHERE id=Contact.id". Sorry, I've never done much in Rails outside of the standard stuff that is documented well. I'm not sure of what the best approach would be. Ideally, I want the contacts to be presented to my rails application as native as possible, so that I can expose them RESTfully for API access. Any suggestions and code examples would be much appreciated

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• XMLHttpRequest() and outputting csv file

  - by sjw

  Initially, I developed a javascript function to use window.open to post contents of a form to a new window which simply opened the new window and initiated a csv file download. Now on reflection, I find the opening of the window superfluous and am trying to just execute a XMLHttpRequest() to download the csv. I am not getting what I want and I'm not 100% sure that I can so I thought I'd ask here for some assistance. When a form is submitted, I want to take all the form values and post them to another page which builds an SQL string and builds a csv based on the contents. (This I can do and works fine with XMLHttpRequest() as seen below) var xhReq = new XMLHttpRequest(); var parameters = ""; for ( i=0; i<formObj.elements.length; i++ ) { parameters += formObj.elements[i].name + "=" + encodeURI( formObj.elements[i].value ) + "&"; } xhReq.open("POST", outputLocation, false); xhReq.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xhReq.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameters.length); xhReq.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xhReq.send(parameters); document.write(xhReq.responseText); The code above calls the page ok, builds the csv ok, but it outputs the contents into the current browser window instead of initiating a csv file download. Can I achieve what I need using XMLHttpRequest() or am I going it about it the wrong way? Thanks

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• Entity Framework - Many to Many Subquery

  - by Jorin

  I asked a question about this previously but my database structure has changed, and while it made other things simpler, now this part is more complicated. Here is the previous question. At the time, my EF Context had a UsersProjects object because there were other properties. Now that I've simplified that table, it is just the keys, so all my EF context knows about is Users and Projects and the M2M relationship between them. There is no more UsersProjects as far as EF knows. So my goal is to say "show me all the users who are working on projects with me." in SQL, this would go something like: SELECT * FROM Users INNER JOIN UsersProjects ON Users.ID=UsersProjects.UserID WHERE ProjectID IN (SELECT ProjectID FROM UsersProjects WHERE UserID=@UserID) and I started in EF with something like this: var myProjects = (from p in edmx.Projects where p.Users.Contains(edmx.Users.FirstOrDefault(u => u.Email == UserEmail)) orderby p.Name select p).ToList(); var associatedUsers = (from u in edmx.Users where myProjects.Contains(?????????) //where myProjects.Any(????????) select u); The trick is finding what to put in the ????????. Anyone help here?

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• 2-Way databinding with Entity Framework and WPF DataGrid , is Possible ?

  - by Panindra

  i am working on POS application using SQL CE , WPF , Entity framework 3.5sp2 and iam trying to use data grid as my Order Entry Control for User to enter Products Order . Iam plannning to bind this to enitiy frmae work model , abd looking for 2 way updating ? private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { using (MasterEntities nwEntities = new MasterEntities()) { var users = from d in nwEntities.Companies select new { d.CompanyId, d.CompanyName, d.Place }; listBox1.DataContext = users; dataGrid1.DataContext = users; // foreach (String c in customers) // { // MessageBox.Show(c.ToString()); // } } } When try to double clikc on the datagrid it through s a error with Caption " Invalid Operation Execption was unhandled " and Message " A TwoWay or OneWayToSource binding cannot work on the read-only property 'CompanyId' of type '<f__AnonymousType0`3[System.Int32,System.String,System.String]'. whats wrong here and my xaml coding goes like this <Grid> <ListBox Name="listBox1" ItemsSource="{Binding}" /> <Button Content="Show " Name="button1" Click="button1_Click" /> <DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding}" > <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header=" ID" Binding="{Binding CompanyId}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Company Name" Binding="{Binding CompanyName}"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Place" Binding="{Binding Place}" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </Grid> EDITED : i made the changes shown by @vorrtex, But, then i added another button to save the chages and in button click event i added follwing code , butit showing Updating error private void button2_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { nwEntities.SaveChanges(); }

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• Gathering entropy in web apps to create (more) secure random numbers

  - by H M

  after several days of research and discussion i came up with this method to gather entropy from visitors (u can see the history of my research here) when a user visits i run this code: $entropy=sha1(microtime().$pepper.$_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR'].$_SERVER['REMOTE_PORT']. $_SERVER['HTTP_USER_AGENT'].serialize($_POST).serialize($_GET).serialize($_COOKIE)); note: pepper is a per site/setup random string set by hand. then i execute the following (My)SQL query: $query="update `crypto` set `value`=sha1(concat(`value`, '$entropy')) where name='entropy'"; that means we combine the entropy of the visitor's request with the others' gathered already. that's all. then when we want to generate random numbers we combine the gathered entropy with the output: $query="select `value` from `crypto` where `name`='entropy'"; //... extract(unpack('Nrandom', pack('H*', sha1(mt_rand(0, 0x7FFFFFFF).$entropy.microtime())))); note: the last line is a part of a modified version of the crypt_rand function of the phpseclib. please tell me your opinion about the scheme and other ideas/info regarding entropy gathering/random number generation. ps: i know about randomness sources like /dev/urandom. this system is just an auxiliary system or (when we don't have (access to) these sources) a fallback scheme.

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• User input in Perl with IO::Socket

  - by David

  I am trying to make a perl program which allows a user to input the host and the port number of a foreign host to connect to using IO::Socket. It allows me to run the program and input a host and a port but it never connects and says "Could not connect to [host] at c:\users\USER\Documents\code\perl\sql.pl line 18, line 2." What am i doing wrong with this code shown below? And also, how can i have input validation on my host, which can either be a host name or an ip address? Thanks a bunch! Code Below use IO::Socket print "Host to connect to: "; chomp ($host = <STDIN>); print "Port to connect with: "; chomp ($port = <STDIN>); while(($port > 65535) || ($port <= 0)){ print "Port to connect with [Port > 0 < 65535] : "; chomp ($port = <STDIN>); } print "\nConnecting to host $host on port $port\n"; $socket = new IO::Socket::INET ( LocalHost => '$host', LocalPort => '$port', Proto => 'tcp', Listen => 5, Reuse => 1 ); die "Could not connect to $host";

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