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• How to use Mozilla ActiveX Control without registry

  - by Andrew McKinlay

  I've been using the IE Browser component that is part of Windows. But I'm running into problems with security settings. For example, users get security warnings on pages with Javascript. So I'm looking at using the Mozilla ActiveX control instead. It's especially nice because it has a compatible interface. It works well if I let it install the control in the registry. But my users don't always have administrator rights to install things in the registry. So I'm trying to figure out how to use the control without registry changes. I'm using DllGetClassObject to get the class factory (IID_ICLASSFACTORY) and then CoRegisterClassObject to register it. All the API calls appear to succeed. And when I create an AtlAxWin window with the CLSID, it also appears to work. But when I try to call Navigate on the AtlAxGetControl it doesn't work - the interface doesn't have Navigate. I would show the code but it's in an obscure language (Suneido) so it wouldn't mean much. An example in C or C++ would be easy for me to translate. Or an example in another dynamic language like Python or Ruby might be helpful. Obviously I'm doing something wrong. Maybe I'm passing the wrong thing to CoRegisterClassObject? The MSDN documentation isn't very clear on what to pass and I haven't found any good examples. Or if there is another approach, I'm ok with that too. Note: I'm using the AtlAxWin window class so I'm not directly creating the control and can't use this approach. Another option is registry free com with a manifest. But again, I couldn't find a good example, especially since I'm not using Visual Studio. I tried to use the MT manifest tool, but couldn't figure it out. I don't think I can use DLL redirection since that doesn't get around the registry issue AFAIK. Another possibility is using WebKit but it seems even harder to use.

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• no such file to load -- rails (MissingSourceFile)... say what?!!

  - by Julian

  Hello, I'm having an obnoxious and weird problem while trying to include the ThinkingTank gem into my rails project. When I include gem 'thinkingtank' in my project's Gemfile I get the following error: ~/.rvm/gems/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:156:in `require': no such file to load -- rails (MissingSourceFile) from ~/.rvm/gems/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:156:in `require' from ~/.rvm/gems/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:521:in `new_constants_in' from ~/.rvm/gems/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:156:in `require' from ~/.rvm/gems/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/gems/thinkingtank-0.0.5/lib/thinkingtank.rb:1 from ~/.rvm/gems/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/gems/bundler-1.0.7/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:64:in `require' from ~/.rvm/gems/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/gems/bundler-1.0.7/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:64:in `require' from ~/.rvm/gems/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/gems/bundler-1.0.7/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:62:in `each' from ~/.rvm/gems/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/gems/bundler-1.0.7/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:62:in `require' from ~/.rvm/gems/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/gems/bundler-1.0.7/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:51:in `each' from ~/.rvm/gems/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/gems/bundler-1.0.7/lib/bundler/runtime.rb:51:in `require' from ~/.rvm/gems/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/gems/bundler-1.0.7/lib/bundler.rb:112:in `require' from ~/git/myproject/config/boot.rb:121:in `load_environment' from ~/.rvm/gems/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:137:in `process' from ~/.rvm/gems/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:113:in `send' from ~/.rvm/gems/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:113:in `run' from ~/git/myproject/config/environment.rb:9 from ~/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/lib/ruby/1.8/irb/init.rb:254:in `require' from ~/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/lib/ruby/1.8/irb/init.rb:254:in `load_modules' from ~/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/lib/ruby/1.8/irb/init.rb:252:in `each' from ~/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/lib/ruby/1.8/irb/init.rb:252:in `load_modules' from ~/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/lib/ruby/1.8/irb/init.rb:21:in `setup' from ~/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/lib/ruby/1.8/irb.rb:54:in `start' from ~/.rvm/rubies/ree-1.8.7-2010.01/bin/irb:17 The output from ruby -v is: ruby 1.8.7 (2009-12-24 patchlevel 248) [i686-darwin10.6.0], MBARI 0x6770, Ruby Enterprise Edition 2010.01 And the output from rails -v is: Rails 2.3.5 I've followed the basic guidelines from their documentation and from similar SA questions. But none of issues have the rails gem going missing.. And yes, we are including rails in our Gemfile =) Thank you in advance.

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• How would you implement this "WorkerChain" functionality in .NET?

  - by Dan Tao

  Sorry for the vague question title -- not sure how to encapsulate what I'm asking below succinctly. (If someone with editing privileges can think of a more descriptive title, feel free to change it.) The behavior I need is this. I am envisioning a worker class that accepts a single delegate task in its constructor (for simplicity, I would make it immutable -- no more tasks can be added after instantiation). I'll call this task T. The class should have a simple method, something like GetToWork, that will exhibit this behavior: If the worker is not currently running T, then it will start doing so right now. If the worker is currently running T, then once it is finished, it will start T again immediately. GetToWork can be called any number of times while the worker is running T; the simple rule is that, during any execution of T, if GetToWork was called at least once, T will run again upon completion (and then if GetToWork is called while T is running that time, it will repeat itself again, etc.). Now, this is pretty straightforward with a boolean switch. But this class needs to be thread-safe, by which I mean, steps 1 and 2 above need to comprise atomic operations (at least I think they do). There is an added layer of complexity. I have need of a "worker chain" class that will consist of many of these workers linked together. As soon as the first worker completes, it essentially calls GetToWork on the worker after it; meanwhile, if its own GetToWork has been called, it restarts itself as well. Logically calling GetToWork on the chain is essentially the same as calling GetToWork on the first worker in the chain (I would fully intend that the chain's workers not be publicly accessible). One way to imagine how this hypothetical "worker chain" would behave is by comparing it to a team in a relay race. Suppose there are four runners, W1 through W4, and let the chain be called C. If I call C.StartWork(), what should happen is this: If W1 is at his starting point (i.e., doing nothing), he will start running towards W2. If W1 is already running towards W2 (i.e., executing his task), then once he reaches W2, he will signal to W2 to get started, immediately return to his starting point and, since StartWork has been called, start running towards W2 again. When W1 reaches W2's starting point, he'll immediately return to his own starting point. If W2 is just sitting around, he'll start running immediately towards W3. If W2 is already off running towards W3, then W2 will simply go again once he's reached W3 and returned to his starting point. The above is probably a little convoluted and written out poorly. But hopefully you get the basic idea. Obviously, these workers will be running on their own threads. Also, I guess it's possible this functionality already exists somewhere? If that's the case, definitely let me know!

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• Wordpress pages address rewrite

  - by kemp

  UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

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• How to get a physics engine like Nape working?

  - by Glacius

  Introduction: I think Nape is a relatively new engine so some of you may not know it. It's supposedly faster than box2d and I like that there is decent documentation. Here's the site: http://code.google.com/p/nape/ I'm relatively new to programming. I am decent at AS3's basic functionality, but every time I try to implement some kind of engine or framework I can't even seem to get it to work. With Nape I feel I got a little further than before but I still got stuck. My problem: I'm using Adobe CS5, I managed to import the SWC file like described here. Next I tried to copy the source of one of the demo's like this one and get it to work but I keep getting errors. I made a new class file, copied the demo source to it, and tried to add it to the stage. My stage code basically looks like this: import flash.Boot; // these 2 lines are as described in the tutorial new Boot(); var demo = new Main(); // these 2 are me guessing what I'm supposed to do addChild(demo); Well, it seems the source code is not even being recognized by flash as a valid class file. I tried editing it, but even if I get it recognized (give a package name and add curly brackets) but I still get a bunch of errors. Is it psuedo code or something? What is going on? My goal: I can imagine I'm going about this the wrong way. So let me explain what I'm trying to achieve. I basically want to learn how to use the engine by starting from a simple basic example that I can edit and mess around with. If I can't even get a working example then I'm unable to learn anything. Preferably I don't want to start using something like FlashDevelop (as I'd have to learn how to use the program) but if it can't be helped then I can give it a try. Thank you.

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• Programmatically created GridView cells don't scale to fit screen

  - by ChrisAshton84

  I've read a ton of other responses about GridView already but almost all deal with the XML format (which I had working). I wanted to learn the programmatic way of designing Android, though, so I'm trying to build most of this app without XML. All I define in XML are the GridView and the first TextView. After that I add the other LinearLayouts in onCreate(). I would like to have a 2 column GridView containing a title and several (4 for now) LinearLayouts. I realize from documentation that the GridView won't scale cells unless they have a gravity set, but no matter how I try to do this I can't get it to work. After adding two cells, my GridView tree would look like: GridView -> TextView (colspan 2) -> LinearLayout (Vertical) -> TextView -> LinearLayout (Horizontal) -> TextView -> TextView -> LinearLayout (Horizontal) -> TextView -> TextView -> LinearLayout (Vertical) -> TextView -> LinearLayout (Horizontal) -> TextView -> TextView -> LinearLayout (Horizontal) -> TextView -> TextView I've tried about every combination of FILL and FILL_HORIZONTAL I could think of on either the outermost LinearLayouts, or also trying on the TextViews and inner LinearLayouts. No matter what I do, the LinearLayouts I add are always sized as small as possible and pushed to the left of the screen. Meanwhile, the first TextView (the colspan 2 one) with only CENTER_HORIZONTAL set is correctly centered in the screen. Its as if that TextView gets one idea of the column widths and the LinearLayouts get another! (If I add the FILL Gravity for it, it also moves all the way left.) I believe I had this working accidentally with 100% XML, but I would prefer not to switch back unless this is known to not work programatically. Any ideas what I can try to get this working?

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• zlib gzgets extremely slow?

  - by monkeyking

  I'm doing stuff related to parsing huge globs of textfiles, and was testing what input method to use. There is not much of a difference using c++ std::ifstreams vs c FILE, According to the documentation of zlib, it supports uncompressed files, and will read the file without decompression. I'm seeing a difference from 12 seconds using non zlib to more than 4 minutes using zlib.h This I've tested doing multiple runs, so its not a disk cache issue. Am I using zlib in some wrong way? thanks #include <zlib.h> #include <cstdio> #include <cstdlib> #include <fstream> #define LENS 1000000 size_t fg(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using fgets\n"); FILE *fp =fopen(fname,"r"); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(NULL!=fgets(buffer,LENS,fp)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } size_t is(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using ifstream\n"); std::ifstream is(fname,std::ios::in); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(is. getline(buffer,LENS)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } size_t iz(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using zlib\n"); gzFile fp =gzopen(fname,"r"); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(0!=gzgets(fp,buffer,LENS)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } int main(int argc,char**argv){ if(atoi(argv[2])==0) fg(argv[1]); if(atoi(argv[2])==1) is(argv[1]); if(atoi(argv[2])==2) iz(argv[1]); }

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• Correct usage of socket_select().

  - by Mark Tomlin

  What is the correct way to use socket_select within PHP to send and receive data? I have a connection to the server that allows for both TCP & UDP packet connections, I am utilizing both. Within these connections I'm both sending and receiving packets on the same port, but the TCP packet will be sent on one port (29999) and UDP will be sent on another port (30000). The transmission type will be that of AF_INET. The IP address will be loopback 127.0.0.1. I have many questions on how to create a socket connection within this scenario. For example, is it better to use socket_create_pair to make the connection, or use just socket_create followed by socket_connect, and then implement socket_select? There is a chance that no data will be sent from the server to the client, and it is up to the client to maintain the connection. This will be done by utilizing the time out function within the socket_select call. Should no data be sent within the time limit, the socket_select function will break and a keep alive packet can then be sent. The following script is of the client. // Create $TCP = socket_create(AF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, SOL_TCP); $UDP = socket_create(AF_INET, SOCK_DGRAM, SOL_UDP); // Misc $isAlive = TRUE; $UDPPort = 30000; define('ISP_ISI', 1); // Connect socket_connect($TCP, '127.0.0.1', 29999); socket_connect($UDP, '127.0.0.1', $UDPPort); // Construct Parameters $recv = array($TCP, $UDP); $null = NULL; // Make The Packet to Send. $packet = pack('CCCxSSxCSa16a16', 44, ISP_ISI, 1, $UDPPort, 0, '!', 0, 'AdminPass', 'SocketSelect'); // Send ISI (InSim Init) Packet socket_write($TCP, $packet); /* Main Program Loop */ while ($isAlive == TRUE) { // Socket Select $sock = socket_select($recv, $null, $null, 5); // Check Status if ($sock === FALSE) $isAlive = FALSE; # Error else if ($sock > 0) # How does one check to find what socket changed? else # Something else happed, don't know what as it's not in the documentation, Could this be our timeout getting tripped? }

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• Marshalling non-Blittable Structs from C# to C++

  - by Greggo

  I'm in the process of rewriting an overengineered and unmaintainable chunk of my company's library code that interfaces between C# and C++. I've started looking into P/Invoke, but it seems like there's not much in the way of accessible help. We're passing a struct that contains various parameters and settings down to unmanaged codes, so we're defining identical structs. We don't need to change any of those parameters on the C++ side, but we do need to access them after the P/Invoked function has returned. My questions are: What is the best way to pass strings? Some are short (device id's which can be set by us), and some are file paths (which may contain Asian characters) Should I pass an IntPtr to the C# struct or should I just let the Marshaller take care of it by putting the struct type in the function signature? Should I be worried about any non-pointer datatypes like bools or enums (in other, related structs)? We have the treat warnings as errors flag set in C++ so we can't use the Microsoft extension for enums to force a datatype. Is P/Invoke actually the way to go? There was some Microsoft documentation about Implicit P/Invoke that said it was more type-safe and performant. For reference, here is one of the pairs of structs I've written so far: C++ /** Struct used for marshalling Scan parameters from managed to unmanaged code. */ struct ScanParameters { LPSTR deviceID; LPSTR spdClock; LPSTR spdStartTrigger; double spinRpm; double startRadius; double endRadius; double trackSpacing; UINT64 numTracks; UINT32 nominalSampleCount; double gainLimit; double sampleRate; double scanHeight; LPWSTR qmoPath; //includes filename LPWSTR qzpPath; //includes filename }; C# /// <summary> /// Struct used for marshalling scan parameters between managed and unmanaged code. /// </summary> [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct ScanParameters { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string deviceID; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string spdClock; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string spdStartTrigger; public Double spinRpm; public Double startRadius; public Double endRadius; public Double trackSpacing; public UInt64 numTracks; public UInt32 nominalSampleCount; public Double gainLimit; public Double sampleRate; public Double scanHeight; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string qmoPath; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string qzpPath; }

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• NHibernate unable to create SessionFactory

  - by Tyler

  I'm having a bit of trouble setting up NHibernate, and I'm not too sure what the problem is exactly. I'm attempting to save a domain object to the database (Oracle 10g XE). However, I'm getting a TypeInitializationException while trying to create the ISessionFactory. Here is what my hibernate.cfg.xml looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2" > <session-factory name="MyProject.DataAccess"> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.OracleClientDriver</property> <property name="connection.connection_string"> User ID=myid;Password=mypassword;Data Source=localhost </property> <property name="show_sql">true</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.OracleDialect</property> <property name="proxyfactory.factory_class">NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu</property> <mapping resource="MyProject/Domain/User.hbm.xml"/> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration> I created a DAO which I will use to persist domain objects to the database. The DAO uses a HibernateUtil class that creates the SessionFactory. Both classes are in the DataAccess namespace along with the Hibernate configuration. This is where the exception is occuring. Here's that class: public class HibernateUtil { private static ISessionFactory SessionFactory = BuildSessionFactory(); private static ISessionFactory BuildSessionFactory() { try { // This seems to be where the problem occurs return new Configuration().Configure().BuildSessionFactory(); } catch (TypeInitializationException ex) { Console.WriteLine("Initial SessionFactory creation failed." + ex); throw new Exception("Unable to create SessionFactory."); } } public static ISessionFactory GetSessionFactory() { return SessionFactory; } } The DataAccess namespace references the NHibernate DLLs. This is virtually the same setup I've used with Hibernate in Java, so I'm not entirely sure what I'm doing wrong here. Any ideas? Edit The innermost exception is the following: "Could not find file 'C:\Users\Tyler\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\MyProject\MyProject\ConsoleApplication\bin\Debug\hibernate.cfg.xml'." ConsoleApplication contains the entry point where I've created a User object and am trying to persist it with my DAO. Why is it looking for the configuration file there? The actual persisting takes place in the DAO, which is in DataAccess. Also, when I add the configuration file to ConsoleApplication, it still does not find it.

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• Does my TPL partitioner cause a deadlock?

  - by Scott Chamberlain

  I am starting to write my first parallel applications. This partitioner will enumerate over a IDataReader pulling chunkSize records at a time from the data-source. protected class DataSourcePartitioner<object[]> : System.Collections.Concurrent.Partitioner<object[]> { private readonly System.Data.IDataReader _Input; private readonly int _ChunkSize; public DataSourcePartitioner(System.Data.IDataReader input, int chunkSize = 10000) : base() { if (chunkSize < 1) throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("chunkSize"); _Input = input; _ChunkSize = chunkSize; } public override bool SupportsDynamicPartitions { get { return true; } } public override IList<IEnumerator<object[]>> GetPartitions(int partitionCount) { var dynamicPartitions = GetDynamicPartitions(); var partitions = new IEnumerator<object[]>[partitionCount]; for (int i = 0; i < partitionCount; i++) { partitions[i] = dynamicPartitions.GetEnumerator(); } return partitions; } public override IEnumerable<object[]> GetDynamicPartitions() { return new ListDynamicPartitions(_Input, _ChunkSize); } private class ListDynamicPartitions : IEnumerable<object[]> { private System.Data.IDataReader _Input; int _ChunkSize; private object _ChunkLock = new object(); public ListDynamicPartitions(System.Data.IDataReader input, int chunkSize) { _Input = input; _ChunkSize = chunkSize; } public IEnumerator<object[]> GetEnumerator() { while (true) { List<object[]> chunk = new List<object[]>(_ChunkSize); lock(_Input) { for (int i = 0; i < _ChunkSize; ++i) { if (!_Input.Read()) break; var values = new object[_Input.FieldCount]; _Input.GetValues(values); chunk.Add(values); } if (chunk.Count == 0) yield break; } var chunkEnumerator = chunk.GetEnumerator(); lock(_ChunkLock) //Will this cause a deadlock? { while (chunkEnumerator.MoveNext()) { yield return chunkEnumerator.Current; } } } } IEnumerator IEnumerable.GetEnumerator() { return ((IEnumerable<object[]>)this).GetEnumerator(); } } } I wanted IEnumerable object it passed back to be thread safe (the .Net example was so I am assuming PLINQ and TPL could need it) will the lock on _ChunkLock near the bottom help provide thread safety or will it cause a deadlock? From the documentation I could not tell if the lock would be released on the yeld return. Also if there is built in functionality to .net that will do what I am trying to do I would much rather use that. And if you find any other problems with the code I would appreciate it.

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• Sessions not persisting between requests

  - by klonq

  My session objects are only stored within the request scope on google app engine and I can't figure out how to persist objects between requests. The docs are next to useless on this matter and I can't find anyone who's experienced a similar problem. Please help. When I store session objects in the servlet and forward the request to a JSP using: getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/example.jsp").forward(request,response); Everything works like it should. But when I store objects to the session and redirect the request using: response.sendRedirect("/example/url"); The session objects are lost to the ether. In fact when I dump session key/value pairs on new requests there is absolutely nothing, session objects only appear within the request scope of servlets which create session objects. It appears to me that the objects are not being written to Memcache or Datastore. In terms of configuring sessions for my application I have set <sessions-enabled>true</sessions-enabled> In appengine-web.xml. Is there anything else I am missing? The single paragraph of documentation on sessions also notes that only objects which implement Serializable can be stored in the session between requests. I have included an example of the code which is not working below. The obvious solution is to not use redirects, and this might be ok for the example given below but some application data does need to be stored in the session between requests so I need to find a solution to this problem. EXAMPLE: The class FlashMessage gives feedback to the user from server-side operations. if (email.send()) { FlashMessage flash = new FlashMessage(FlashMessage.SUCCESS, "Your message has been sent."); session.setAttribute(FlashMessage.SESSION_KEY, flash); // The flash message will not be available in the session object in the next request response.sendRedirect(URL.HOME); } else { FlashMessage flash = new FlashMessage(FlashMessage.ERROR, FlashMessage.INVALID_FORM_DATA); session.setAttribute(FlashMessage.SESSION_KEY, flash); // The flash message is displayed without problem getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher(Templates.CONTACT_FORM).forward(request,response); } FlashMessage.java import java.io.Serializable; public class FlashMessage implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 8109520737272565760L; // I have tried using different, default and no serialVersionUID public static final String SESSION_KEY = "flashMessage"; public static final String ERROR = "error"; public static final String SUCCESS = "success"; public static final String INVALID_FORM_DATA = "Your request failed to validate."; private String message; private String type; public FlashMessage (String type, String message) { this.type = type; this.message = message; } public String display(){ return "<div id='flash' class='" + type + "'>" + message + "</div>"; } }

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• Select latest group by in nhibernate

  - by Kendrick

  I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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• how to deal with the position in a c# stream

  - by CapsicumDreams

  The (entire) documentation for the position property on a stream says: When overridden in a derived class, gets or sets the position within the current stream. The Position property does not keep track of the number of bytes from the stream that have been consumed, skipped, or both. That's it. OK, so we're fairly clear on what it doesn't tell us, but I'd really like to know what it in fact does stand for. What is 'the position' for? Why would we want to alter or read it? If we change it - what happens? In a pratical example, I have a a stream that periodically gets written to, and I have a thread that attempts to read from it (ideally ASAP). From reading many SO issues, I reset the position field to zero to start my reading. Once this is done: Does this affect where the writer to this stream is going to attempt to put the data? Do I need to keep track of the last write position myself? (ie if I set the position to zero to read, does the writer begin to overwrite everything from the first byte?) If so, do I need a semaphore/lock around this 'position' field (subclassing, perhaps?) due to my two threads accessing it? If I don't handle this property, does the writer just overflow the buffer? Perhaps I don't understand the Stream itself - I'm regarding it as a FIFO pipe: shove data in at one end, and suck it out at the other. If it's not like this, then do I have to keep copying the data past my last read (ie from position 0x84 on) back to the start of my buffer? I've seriously tried to research all of this for quite some time - but I'm new to .NET. Perhaps the Streams have a long, proud (undocumented) history that everyone else implicitly understands. But for a newcomer, it's like reading the manual to your car, and finding out: The accelerator pedal affects the volume of fuel and air sent to the fuel injectors. It does not affect the volume of the entertainment system, or the air pressure in any of the tires, if fitted. Technically true, but seriously, what we want to know is that if we mash it to the floor you go faster..

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• In what circumstances are instance variables declared as '_var' in 'use fields' readonly?

  - by Pedro Silva

  I'm trying to understand the behavior of the fields pragma, which I find poorly documented, regarding fields prefixed with underscores. This is what the documentation has to say about it: Field names that start with an underscore character are made private to the class and are not visible to subclasses. Inherited fields can be overridden but will generate a warning if used together with the -w switch. This is not consistent with its actual behavior, according to my test, below. Not only are _-prefixed fields visible within a subclass, they are visible within foreign classes as well (unless I don't get what 'visible' means). Also, directly accessing the restricted hash works fine. Where can I find more about the behavior of the fields pragma, short of going at the source code? { package Foo; use strict; use warnings; use fields qw/a _b __c/; sub new { my ( $class ) = @_; my Foo $self = fields::new($class); $self->a = 1; $self->b = 2; $self->c = 3; return $self; } sub a : lvalue { shift->{a} } sub b : lvalue { shift->{_b} } sub c : lvalue { shift->{__c} } } { package Bar; use base 'Foo'; use strict; use warnings; use Data::Dumper; my $o = Bar->new; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 2, '__c' => 3, 'a' => 1}, 'Foo'); $o->a = 4; $o->b = 5; $o->c = 6; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 5, '__c' => 6, 'a' => 4}, 'Foo'); $o->{a} = 7; $o->{_b} = 8; $o->{__c} = 9; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 8, '__c' => 9, 'a' => 7}, 'Foo'); }

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• Correct way to use Drupal 7 Entities and Field API

  - by Martin Petts

  I'm trying to use Drupal 7's entities and field API to correctly build a new module. What I have been unable to understand from the documentation is the correct way to use the new API to create a 'content type' (not a node type) with a number of set fields, such as Body. I'm trying to set up the entity using hook_entity_info, then I believe I need to add the body field using field_create_instance, but I can't seem to get it to work. In mycontenttype.module: /** * Implements hook_entity_info(). */ function mycontenttype_entity_info() { $return = array( 'mycontenttype' => array( 'label' => t('My Content Type'), 'controller class' => 'MyContentTypeEntityController', 'base table' => 'content_type', 'uri callback' => 'content_type_uri', 'entity keys' => array( 'id' => 'cid', 'label' => 'title' ), 'bundles' => array( 'mycontenttype' => array( 'label' => 'My Content Type', 'admin' => array( 'path' => 'admin/contenttype', 'access arguments' => array('administer contenttype') ) ) ), 'fieldable' => true ) ); return $return; } /** * Implements hook_field_extra_fields(). */ function mycontenttype_field_extra_fields() { $return['mycontenttype']['mycontenttype'] = array( 'form' = array( 'body' = array( 'label' = 'Body', 'description' = t('Body content'), 'weight' = 0, ), ), ); return $return; } Then does this go in the .install file? function mycontenttype_install() { $field = array( 'field_name' => 'body', 'type' => 'text_with_summary', 'entity_types' => array('survey'), 'translatable' => TRUE, ); field_create_field($field); $instance = array( 'entity_type' => 'mycontenttype', 'field_name' => 'body', 'bundle' => 'mycontenttype', 'label' => 'Body', 'widget_type' => 'text_textarea_with_summary', 'settings' => array('display_summary' => TRUE), 'display' => array( 'default' => array( 'label' => 'hidden', 'type' => 'text_default', ), 'teaser' => array( 'label' => 'hidden', 'type' => 'text_summary_or_trimmed', ) ) ); field_create_instance($instance); }

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• Why does DebugActiveProcessStop crash my debugging app?

  - by SparkyNZ

  I have a debugging program which I've written to attach to a process and create a crash dump file. That part works fine. The problem I have is that when the debugger program terminates, so does the program that it was debugging. I did some Googling and found the DebugActiveProcessStop() API call. This didn't show up in my older MSDN documentation as it was only introduced in Windows XP so I've tried loading it dynamicall from Kernel32.dll at runtime. Now my problem is that my debugger program crashes as soon as the _DebugActiveProcessStop() call is made. Can somebody please tell me what I'm doing wrong? typedef BOOL (*DEBUGACTIVEPROCESSSTOP)(DWORD); DEBUGACTIVEPROCESSSTOP _DebugActiveProcessStop; HMODULE hK32 = LoadLibrary( "kernel32.dll" ); if( hK32 ) _DebugActiveProcessStop = (DEBUGACTIVEPROCESSSTOP) GetProcAddress( hK32,"DebugActiveProcessStop" ); else { printf( "Can't load Kernel32.dll\n" ); return; } if( ! _DebugActiveProcessStop ) { printf( "Can't find DebugActiveProcessStop\n" ); return; } ... void DebugLoop( void ) { DEBUG_EVENT de; while( 1 ) { WaitForDebugEvent( &de, INFINITE ); switch( de.dwDebugEventCode ) { case CREATE_PROCESS_DEBUG_EVENT: hProcess = de.u.CreateProcessInfo.hProcess; break; case EXCEPTION_DEBUG_EVENT: // PDS: I want a crash dump immediately! dwProcessId = de.dwProcessId; dwThreadId = de.dwThreadId; WriteCrashDump( &de.u.Exception ); return; case CREATE_THREAD_DEBUG_EVENT: case OUTPUT_DEBUG_STRING_EVENT: case EXIT_THREAD_DEBUG_EVENT: case EXIT_PROCESS_DEBUG_EVENT : case LOAD_DLL_DEBUG_EVENT: case UNLOAD_DLL_DEBUG_EVENT: case RIP_EVENT: default: break; } ContinueDebugEvent( de.dwProcessId, de.dwThreadId, DBG_CONTINUE ); } } ... void main( void ) { ... BOOL bo = DebugActiveProcess( dwProcessId ); if( bo == 0 ) printf( "DebugActiveProcess failed, GetLastError: %u \n",GetLastError() ); hProcess = OpenProcess( PROCESS_ALL_ACCESS, TRUE, dwProcessId ); if( hProcess == NULL ) printf( "OpenProcess failed, GetLastError: %u \n",GetLastError() ); DebugLoop(); _DebugActiveProcessStop( dwProcessId ); CloseHandle( hProcess ); }

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• Tab Bar disappears below the bottom of the screen

  - by Manu

  Hi, In my application I'm using a Navigation Controller to push one view that loads a Tab Bar Controller and a custom Navigation Bar as well. The problem is that the Tab Bar disappears below the bottom of the screen, and I don't know what's causing the problem. If I load a simple Tab Bar in the next view, it positions itself correctly... but what I need is a Tab Bar Controller, and in that case the Tab Bar disappears below the bottom. I have tried changing the view and size properties of the Tab Bar, but that did not solve the problem. I also realised that the images and text of the tabs don't show (I have set up the "favourites" and "contacts" images and text, and they are big enough and should be visible on the top side of the tab, but they are not). Both tabs work perfectly, by the way. There is an image here. I load the Tab Bar with the following code: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; myTabBarController = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; SettingsViewController* tab1 = [[SettingsViewController alloc] init]; AboutViewController* tab2 = [[AboutViewController alloc] init]; NSArray* controllers = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:tab1, tab2, nil]; myTabBarController.viewControllers = controllers; [self.view insertSubview:myTabBarController.view belowSubview:myNavigationBar]; } It doesn't matter if I remove the Navigation Bar or not. I have tested using this instead: [self.view addSubview:myTabBarController.view]; ... forgetting about the Navigation Bar, but the Tab Bar still goes under the bottom. I don't know if the problem is in one of my NIB files or in how I load the view (although I do this as I read in the Apple's SDK documentation). Any ideas? Another question would be... do you know how could I change the title of my Navigation Bar when I select the second tab? I imagine I would have to do it in viewDidLoad in AboutViewController.m, would that be correct? Thanks for you time!

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• Using Selenium-IDE with a rich Javascript application?

  - by Darien

  Problem At my workplace, we're trying to find the best way to create automated-tests for an almost wholly javascript-driven intranet application. Right now we're stuck trying to find a good tradeoff between: Application code in reusable and nest-able GUI components. Tests which are easily created by the testing team Tests which can be recorded once and then automated Tests which do not break after small cosmetic changes to the site XPath expressions (or other possible expressions, like jQuery selectors) naively generated from Selenium-IDE are often non-repeatable and very fragile. Conversely, having the JS code generate special unique ID values for every important DOM-element on the page... well, that is its own headache, complicated by re-usable GUI components and IDs needing to be consistent when the test is re-run. What successes have other people had with this kind of thing? How do you do automated application-level testing of a rich JS interface? Limitations We are using JavascriptMVC 2.0, hopefully 3.0 soon so that we can upgrade to jQuery 1.4.x. The test-making folks are mostly trained to use Selenium IDE to directly record things. The test leads would prefer a page-unique HTML ID on each clickable element on the page... Training the testers to write or alter special expressions (such as telling them which HTML class-names are important branching points) is a no-go. We try to make re-usable javascript components, but this means very few GUI components can treat themselves (or what they contain) as unique. Some of our components already use HTML ID values in their operation. I'd like to avoid doing this anyway, but it complicates the idea of ID-based testing. It may be possible to add custom facilities (like a locator-builder or new locator method) to the Selenium-IDE installation testers use. Almost everything that goes on occurs within a single "page load" from a conventional browser perspective, even when items are saved Current thoughts I'm considering a system where a custom locator-builder (javascript code) for Selenium-IDE will talk with our application code as the tester is recording. In this way, our application becomes partially responsible for generating a mostly-flexible expression (XPath or jQuery) for any given DOM element. While this can avoid requiring more training for testers, I worry it may be over-thinking things.

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• No unique bean of type [javax.persistence.EntityManager] is defined

  - by sebajb

  I am using JUnit 4 to test Dao Access with Spring (annotations) and JPA (hibernate). The datasource is configured through JNDI(Weblogic) with an ORacle(Backend). This persistence is configured with just the name and a RESOURCE_LOCAL transaction-type The application context file contains notations for annotations, JPA config, transactions, and default package and configuration for annotation detection. I am using Junit4 like so: ApplicationContext <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="workRequest"/> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="databasePlatform" value="${database.target}"/> <property name="showSql" value="${database.showSql}" /> <property name="generateDdl" value="${database.generateDdl}" /> </bean> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiName"> <value>workRequest</value> </property> <property name="jndiEnvironment"> <props> <prop key="java.naming.factory.initial">weblogic.jndi.WLInitialContextFactory</prop> <prop key="java.naming.provider.url">t3://localhost:7001</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.dao.annotation.PersistenceExceptionTranslationPostProcessor"/> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.support.PersistenceAnnotationBeanPostProcessor" /> JUnit TestCase @RunWith(SpringJUnit4ClassRunner.class) @ContextConfiguration(locations = { "classpath:applicationContext.xml" }) public class AssignmentDaoTest { private AssignmentDao assignmentDao; @Test public void readAll() { assertNotNull("assignmentDao cannot be null", assignmentDao); List assignments = assignmentDao.findAll(); assertNotNull("There are no assignments yet", assignments); } } regardless of what changes I make I get: No unique bean of type [javax.persistence.EntityManager] is defined Any hint on what this could be. I am running the tests inside eclipse.

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• How do I call a function name that is stored in a hash in Perl?

  - by Ether

  I'm sure this is covered in the documentation somewhere but I have been unable to find it... I'm looking for the syntactic sugar that will make it possible to call a method on a class whose name is stored in a hash (as opposed to a simple scalar): use strict; use warnings; package Foo; sub foo { print "in foo()\n" } package main; my %hash = (func => 'foo'); Foo->$hash{func}; If I copy $hash{func} into a scalar variable first, then I can call Foo->$func just fine... but what is missing to enable Foo->$hash{func} to work? (EDIT: I don't mean to do anything special by calling a method on class Foo -- this could just as easily be a blessed object (and in my actual code it is); it was just easier to write up a self-contained example using a class method.) EDIT 2: Just for completeness re the comments below, this is what I'm actually doing (this is in a library of Moose attribute sugar, created with Moose::Exporter): # adds an accessor to a sibling module sub foreignTable { my ($meta, $table, %args) = @_; my $class = 'MyApp::Dir1::Dir2::' . $table; my $dbAccessor = lcfirst $table; eval "require $class" or do { die "Can't load $class: $@" }; $meta->add_attribute( $table, is => 'ro', isa => $class, init_arg => undef, # don't allow in constructor lazy => 1, predicate => 'has_' . $table, default => sub { my $this = shift; $this->debug("in builder for $class"); ### here's the line that uses a hash value as the method name my @args = ($args{primaryKey} => $this->${\$args{primaryKey}}); push @args, ( _dbObject => $this->_dbObject->$dbAccessor ) if $args{fkRelationshipExists}; $this->debug("passing these values to $class -> new: @args"); $class->new(@args); }, ); } I've replaced the marked line above with this: my $pk_accessor = $this->meta->find_attribute_by_name($args{primaryKey})->get_read_method_ref; my @args = ($args{primaryKey} => $this->$pk_accessor); PS. I've just noticed that this same technique (using the Moose meta class to look up the coderef rather than assuming its naming convention) cannot also be used for predicates, as Class::MOP::Attribute does not have a similar get_predicate_method_ref accessor. :(

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• Is it correct or incorrect for a Java JAR to contain its own dependencies?

  - by 4herpsand7derpsago

  I guess this is a two-part question. I am trying to write my own Ant task (MyFirstTask) that can be used in other project's build.xml buildfiles. To do this, I need to compile and package my Ant task inside its own JAR. Because this Ant task that I have written is fairly complicated, it has about 20 dependencies (other JAR files), such as using XStream for OX-mapping, Guice for DI, etc. I am currently writing the package task in the build.xml file inside the MyFirstTask project (the buildfile that will package myfirsttask.jar, which is the reusable Ant task). I am suddenly realizing that I don't fully understand the intention of a Java JAR. Is it that a JAR should not contain dependencies, and leave it to the runtime configuration (the app container, the runtime environment, etc.) to supply it with the dependencies it needs? I would assume if this is the case, an executable JAR is an exception to the rule, yes? Or, is it the intention for Java JARs to also include their dependencies? Either way, I don't want to be forcing my users to be copying-n-pasting 25+ JARs into their Ant libs; that's just cruel. I like the way WAR files are set up, where the classpath for dependencies is defined under the classes/ directory. I guess, ultimately, I'd like my JAR structure to look like: myfirsttask.jar/ com/ --> the root package of my compiled binaries config/ --> config files, XML, XSD, etc. classes/ --> all dependencies, guice-3.0.jar, xstream-1.4.3.jar, etc. META-INF/ MANIFEST.MF I assume that in order to accomplish this (and get the runtime classpath to also look into the classes/ directory), I'll need to modify the MANIFEST.MF somehow (I know there's a manifest attribute called ClassPath, I believe?). I'm just having a tough time putting everything together, and have a looming/lingering question about the very intent of JARs to begin with. Can someone please confirm whether Oracle intends for JARs to contain their dependencies or not? And, either way, what I would have to do in the manifest (or anywhere else) to make sure that, at runtime, the classpath can find the dependencies stored under the classes/ directory? Thanks in advance!

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• Commitment to Zend Framework - any arguments against?

  - by Pekka

  I am refurbishing a big CMS that I have been working on for quite a number of years now. The product itself is great, but some components, the Database and translation classes for example, need urgent replacing - partly self-made as far back as 2002, grown into a bit of a chaos over time, and might have trouble surviving a security audit. So, I've been looking closely at a number of frameworks (or, more exactly, component Libraries, as I do not intend to change the basic structure of the CMS) and ended up with liking Zend Framework the best. They offer a solid MVC model but don't force you into it, and they offer a lot of professional components that have obviously received a lot of attention (Did you know there are multiple plurals in Russian, and you can't translate them using a simple ($number == 0) or ($number > 1) switch? I didn't, but Zend_Translate can handle it. Just to illustrate the level of thorougness the library seems to have been built with.) I am now literally at the point of no return, starting to replace key components of the system by the Zend-made ones. I'm not really having second thoughts - and I am surely not looking to incite a flame war - but before going onward, I would like to step back for a moment and look whether there is anything speaking against tying a big system closely to Zend Framework. What I like about Zend: As far as I can see, very high quality code Extremely well documented, at least regarding introductions to how things work (Haven't had to use detailed API documentation yet) Backed by a company that has an interest in seeing the framework prosper Well received in the community, has a considerable user base Employs coding standards I like Comes with a full set of unit tests Feels to me like the right choice to make - or at least, one of the right choices - in terms of modern, professional PHP development. I have been thinking about encapsulating and abstracting ZF's functionality into own classes to be able to switch frameworks more easily, but have come to the conclusion that this would not be a good idea because: it would be an unnecessary level of abstraction it could cost performance the big advantage of using a framework - the existence of a developer base that is familiar with its components - would partly be cancelled out therefore, the commitment to ZF would be a deep one. Thus my question: Is there anything substantial speaking against committing to the Zend Framework? Do you have insider knowledge of plans of Zend Inc.'s to go evil in 2011, and make it a closed source library? Is Zend Inc. run by vampires? Are there conceptual flaws in the code base you start to notice when you've transitioned all your projects to it? Is the appearance of quality code an illusion? Does the code look good, but run terribly slow on anything below my quad-core workstation?

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• Tab Bar and Nav Controller: Where did I go wrong in my Interface Builder wiring?

  - by editor

  Even if you don't know how I've shot myself in the foot, a story which I've tried to lay out below, if you think I've done a good job showing the parameters of my problem I'd appreciate an upvote so that I might be able to grab some attention for my question. I've been working on an iPhone application in XCode and Interface Builder of the Tab Bar project type. After getting a table view of topics (business sectors) working fine I realized that I would need to add a Navigation Control to allow the user to drill into a subtopics (subsectors) table. As a green Objective-C developer, that was confusing, but I managed to get it working by reading various documentation trying out a few different IB options. My current setup is a Tab Bar Controller with Tab 1 as a Navigation Controller and Tab 2 a plain view with a Table View placed into it. The wiring works: I can log when table rows are selected and I'm ready to push a new View Controller onto the stack so that I can display the subtopics Table View. My problem: For some reason the first tab's Table View is a delegate and dataSource of the second ta. It doesn't make sense to me and I can't figure out why that's the only setup that works. Here is the wiring: Navigation Controller (Sectors) is a delegate of Tab Bar Navigation Bar is a delegate of Navigation Controller (Sectors) View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate of First View Controller (Companies) Table View (in Navigation Controller (Sectors)) is a dataSource outlet of First View Controller (Companies) First View Controller (Companies) First View Contoller (Sectors) has a view of Table View Table View (in First View Controller (Companies)) is not hooked up to a dataSource outlet and is not a delegate When I click the tab buttons and look at the Inspector I see that the first tab is correctly hooked up to my MainWindow.xib and the second tab has selected a nib called SecondView.xib. It's in the File's Owner of MainWindow.xib where I inherit UITableViewDataSource and UITableViewDelegate (and also UITabBarControllerDelegate) in the .h, and in the .m where I implement the delegate methods. Why does this setup only work when the Table View in my first tab (View Controller (Sectors)) is a delegate and dataSource of the second tab? I'm confused: why wouldn't it need to be hooked up to the Navigation Controller-enabled tab in which the Table View is seen (Navigation Controller (Sectors))? The Table View seen on the second tab has neither dataSource and is not a delegate. I'm having trouble getting a pushViewController to fire (self.navigationController is not nil but the new View Controller still doesn't load) and I suspect that I need to work out this IB wiring issue before I can troubleshoot why the Nav Controller won't push a new View Controller onto the stack. if(nil == self.navigationController) { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is nil."); } else { NSLog(@"self.navigationController is not nil."); SectorList *subsectorViewController = [[SectorList alloc] initWithNibName:@"SectorList" bundle:nil]; subsectorViewController.title = @"Subsectors"; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:subsectorViewController animated:YES]; [subsectorViewController release]; }

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• What are some things you'd like fresh college grads to know?

  - by bradhe

  So I proposed this to the Reddit community and I'd like to get SO's perspective on this. This is pretty much the copypasta of what I put there. I was thinking about this last night and thought it would be neat to compile a list. I'm still a pretty fresh college grad -- been in industry for 2 years -- but I think that I might have a few interesting things to lend. You don't know as much as you think you do. Somehow, college students think they know a lot more than they do (or maybe that was just me). Likewise, they think they can do more than they actually can. You should fairly assess your skills. QA people are not out to get you. Humans introduce bugs to code. It's not (nescessarily) a personal reflection on you and your skills if your code has a bug and it's caught by the QA/testing team. Listen to your senior (developers). They are not actually fuddy duddies who don't know about the new L337 hax in Ruby (okay, sometimes they are, but still...). They have a wealth of knowledge that you can learn from and it's in your best interest to do so. You will most likely not be doing what you want to for a while. This is mostly true in the corporate world -- startups are a different matter. Also, this is due to more than just the economy, man! Junior devs need to earn their keep, so to speak. Everyone wants to be lead dev on the next project and there are a lot of people in line ahead of you! For every elite developer there are 100 average developers. Joel Spolsky, I'm looking at you. Somehow this concept of ninja coders has really ingrained itself in our culture. While I encourage you to be the best you can be don't be disappointed if people aren't writing blog posts about you in the near future. Anyone else have anything they would see added to this list?

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