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  • process of connecting RTP with SIP via SDP & land lines

    - by TacB0sS
    Hello to everyone, I have a problem with starting a media session and to combine it with my SIP client. I've designed a recursive SIP client that reuse the same request template to send the next requests to server, according to the acceptable sequences noted in the RFC's, and examples that I read. as far as I could tell the SIP part is working fine registers to server invites, and authenticates. I didn't complete any calls to clients yet because of the content header needs to be filled up (which I didn't yet so I get a 503 from the server which is OK I guess). for a long time I didn't know where to start with the media session, and slowly learned how to use the JMF and I've constructed an object that handles RTP transmitting, now I'm standing at the cross road, on the one hand I have my SIP signaling but it needs the SDP content header to complete the invite, and on the other I have the RTP which is knows how to p2p. For me to complete my design I require your help with the following questions: Is there an easy//a simple//an implemented way to convert the Audio/Video format from the JMF into SDP media headers? or even a generator that I would input all the parameters for the content header, and it would generate a content header fast, or do I have to implement this myself? Once I've finished constructing the SDK and the SIP is up and running and I get an OK response from the server (after ringing and all), how do I start the media session? do I connect p2p according to caller details I send in the SIP invite? If 2 is correct, then how does a connection to land lines would be? does land lines knows that once they send an OK back to server they listen/start RTP session on a specific port? Or did I get everything wrong? :-/ I really appreciate any help I could I get, I looked every where for answers but they are not clear, they ignore question 2 as if it was an obvious thing, but for me it just isn't. Thank in advance, Adam Zehavi.

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  • SSIS - How do I use a resultset as input in a SQL task and get data types right?

    - by thursdaysgeek
    I am trying to merge records from an Oracle database table to my local SQL table. I have a variable for the package that is an Object, called OWell. I have a data flow task that gets the Oracle data as a SQL statment (select well_id, well_name from OWell order by Well_ID), and then a conversion task to convert well_id from a DT_STR of length 15 to a DT_WSTR; and convert well_name from a DT_STR of length 15 to DT_WSTR of length 50. That is then stored in the recordset OWell. The reason for the conversions is the table that I want to add records to has an identity field: SSIS shows well_id as a DT_WSTR of length 15, well_name a DT_WSTR of length 50. I then have a SQL task that connects to the local database and attempts to add records that are not there yet. I've tried various things: using the OWell as a result set and referring to it in my SQL statement. Currently, I have the ResultSet set to None, and the following SQL statment: Insert into WELL (WELL_ID, WELL_NAME) Select OWELL_ID, OWELL_NAME from OWell where OWELL_ID not in (select WELL.WELL_ID from WELL) For Parameter Mapping, I have Paramater 0, called OWell_ID, from my variable User::OWell. Parameter 1, called OWell_Name is from the same variable. Both are set to VARCHAR, although I've also tried NVARCHAR. I do not have a Result set. I am getting the following error: Error: 0xC002F210 at Insert records to FLEDG, Execute SQL Task: Executing the query "Insert into WELL (WELL_ID, WELL_NAME) Select OWELL..." failed with the following error: "An error occurred while extracting the result into a variable of type (DBTYPE_STR)". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. I don't think it's a data type issue, but rather that I somehow am not using the resultset properly. How, exactly, am I supposed to refer to that recordset in my SQL task, so that I can use the two recordset fields and add records that are missing?

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  • Programmatical Creation of NSMappingModel

    - by enchilada
    I want to programmatically (without Lightweight Migration) create a mapping model between two models that are exactly the same, except one of the entities (there are a bunch of entities) has different attributes. Let's call this entity "Person". And let's say the destination model has 1) added a new attribute called "address" 2) deleted an attribute called "eyeColor" 3) kept (i.e. not done anything with) an attribute called "name" How would you create an NSMappingModel between these models programmatically? I happen to have some explicit questions that might help me do this by myself: Q1) Do I have to create NSEntityMapping objects for all of the entities other than "Person", even if they remain unchanged? Q2) How do I deal with the "address" attribute in "Person", which is a new one being created? Should I create an NSPropertyMapping for that somehow, that turns nothing into something ("address")? Q3) How do I deal with the "name" attribute in "Person"? Do I have to create an NSPropertyMapping for that, even though it simply stays the same? Q4) For the NSEntityMapping corresponding to "Person", is not creating any NSPropertyMapping for "eyeColor" a proper way to get it deleted? Or should I create an NSPropertyMapping for "eyeColor"? If yes, how would this object be created, i.e. what would determine that its purpose is to get rid of "eyeColor"? Thank you in advance, and I apologize not being able to answer these questions myself, as the documenation really has no good example of how to create NSMappingModels programmatically. Note again that I'm not allowed to use Lightweight Migration. I must do this manually.

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  • WPF ValidationRule Validate when the control is loaded

    - by PaN1C_Showt1Me
    Hi ! I have a control with this validation <MyPicker.SelectedItem> <Binding Path="Person.Value" Mode="TwoWay" UpdateSourceTrigger="PropertyChanged" NotifyOnValidationError="True"> <Binding.ValidationRules> <rules:MyValidationRule ValidationType="notnull"/> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </MyPicker.SelectedItem> This is the Validation Class: class MyValidationRule : ValidationRule { private string _validationType; public string ValidationType { get { return _validationType; } set { _validationType = value; } } public override ValidationResult Validate(object value, CultureInfo cultureInfo) { ValidationResult trueResult = new ValidationResult(true, null); switch (_validationType.ToLower()) { case "notnull": return value == null ? new ValidationResult(false, "EMPTY FIELD") : trueResult; default: return trueResult; } } } Question: When the property is changed, then the Validate( ) method is called which is correct. But to call this method at the very beginning when the MyControl is created? I need to prove immediate after initialize if the there's a null value in the control (and display a validation error)

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  • IIS7 GrantByDefault

    - by jonot
    I have an application (written in c#) that allow me to set IIS to allow or deny access to a website from all ip addresses. The application works fine for IIS6 however it does not work with IIS 7 (even with IIS 6 WMI Compatibility installed). heres the code (basically) Type typ = this.Entry.Properties[IIsWebDirectoryProperty.IPSecurity][0].GetType(); var securityProp = this.Entry.Properties[IIsWebDirectoryProperty.IPSecurity][0]; typ.InvokeMember("GrantByDefault", BindingFlags.DeclaredOnly | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.SetProperty, null, securityProp, new object[] { IPSecurity.GrantByDefault }); this.Entry.CommitChanges(); I have checked the metabase for both IIS6 and IIS7 using the metabase explorer and the only diffecnce I can see is that the "IPSecurity" property does not appear in IIS7 until you also add a an allow or deny IP address, through IIS Manager. Whats really got me stumped is that even when I edit the feature setting to Deny access in the IIS Manager there is no change to the metabase or to the web.config in the site root! So how/where is this property being set and read from? And how can I set and read value of this property programmatically?

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  • Python Locking Implementation (with threading module)

    - by Matty
    This is probably a rudimentary question, but I'm new to threaded programming in Python and am not entirely sure what the correct practice is. Should I be creating a single lock object (either globally or being passed around) and using that everywhere that I need to do locking? Or, should I be creating multiple lock instances in each of the classes where I will be employing them. Take these 2 rudimentary code samples, which direction is best to go? The main difference being that a single lock instance is used in both class A and B in the second, while multiple instances are used in the first. Sample 1 class A(): def __init__(self, theList): self.theList = theList self.lock = threading.Lock() def poll(self): while True: # do some stuff that eventually needs to work with theList self.lock.acquire() try: self.theList.append(something) finally: self.lock.release() class B(threading.Thread): def __init__(self,theList): self.theList = theList self.lock = threading.Lock() self.start() def run(self): while True: # do some stuff that eventually needs to work with theList self.lock.acquire() try: self.theList.remove(something) finally: self.lock.release() if __name__ == "__main__": aList = [] for x in range(10): B(aList) A(aList).poll() Sample 2 class A(): def __init__(self, theList,lock): self.theList = theList self.lock = lock def poll(self): while True: # do some stuff that eventually needs to work with theList self.lock.acquire() try: self.theList.append(something) finally: self.lock.release() class B(threading.Thread): def __init__(self,theList,lock): self.theList = theList self.lock = lock self.start() def run(self): while True: # do some stuff that eventually needs to work with theList self.lock.acquire() try: self.theList.remove(something) finally: self.lock.release() if __name__ == "__main__": lock = threading.Lock() aList = [] for x in range(10): B(aList,lock) A(aList,lock).poll()

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  • Using a custom IList obtained through NHibernate

    - by Abu Dhabi
    Hi.I'm trying to write a web page in .NET, using C# and NHibernate 2.1. The pertinent code looks like this: var whatevervar = session.CreateSQLQuery("select thread_topic, post_time, user_display_name, user_signature, user_avatar, post_topic, post_body from THREAD, [USER], POST, THREADPOST where THREADPOST.thread_id=" + id + " and THREADPOST.thread_id=THREAD.thread_id and [USER].user_id=POST.user_id and POST.post_id=THREADPOST.post_id ORDER BY post_time;").List(); (I have tried to use joins in HQL, but then fell back on this query, due to HQL's unreadability.) The problem is that I'm getting a result that is incompatible with a repeater. When I try this: posts.DataSource = whatevervar.; posts.DataBind(); ...I get this: DataBinding: 'System.Object[]' does not contain a property with the name 'user_avatar'. In an earlier project, I used LINQ to SQL for this same purpose, and it looked like so: var whatevervar = from threads in context.THREADs join threadposts in context.THREADPOSTs on threads.thread_id equals threadposts.thread_id join posts1 in context.POSTs on threadposts.post_id equals posts1.post_id join users in context.USERs on posts1.user_id equals users.user_id orderby posts1.post_time where threads.thread_id == int.Parse(id) select new { threads.thread_topic, posts1.post_time, users.user_display_name, users.user_signature, users.user_avatar, posts1.post_body, posts1.post_topic }; That worked, and now I want to do the same with NHibernate. Unfortunately, I don't know how to make the repeater recognize the fields of the result of the query. Thanks in advance!

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  • mocking collection behavior with Moq

    - by Stephen Patten
    Hello, I've read through some of the discussions on the Moq user group and have failed to find an example and have been so far unable to find the scenario that I have. Here is my question and code: // 6 periods var schedule = new List<PaymentPlanPeriod>() { new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(1).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(2).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(3).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(4).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(5).ToString()) }; // Now the proxy is correct with the schedule helper.Setup(h => h.GetPlanPeriods(It.IsAny<String>(), schedule)); Then in my tests I use Periods but the Mocked _PaymentPlanHelper never populates the collection, see below for usage: public IEnumerable<PaymentPlanPeriod> Periods { get { if (CanCalculateExpression()) _PaymentPlanHelper.GetPlanPeriods(this.ToString(), _PaymentSchedule); return _PaymentSchedule; } } Now if I change the mocked object to use another overloaded method of GetPlanPeriods that returns a List like so : var schedule = new List<PaymentPlanPeriod>() { new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(1).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(2).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(3).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(4).ToString()), new PaymentPlanPeriod(1000m, args.MinDate.Value.AddMonths(5).ToString()) }; helper.Setup(h => h.GetPlanPeriods(It.IsAny<String>())).Returns(new List<PaymentPlanPeriod>(schedule)); List<PaymentPlanPeriod> result = new _PaymentPlanHelper.GetPlanPeriods(this.ToString()); This works as expected. Any pointers would be awesome, as long as you don't bash my architecture... :) Thank you, Stephen

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  • How can I track down "Template process failed: undef error" in Perl's Template Toolkit?

    - by swisstony
    I've moved a Perl CGI app from one web host to another. Everything's running fine except for Template Tookit which is giving the following error: "Template process failed: undef error - This shouldn't happen at /usr/lib/perl5/5.8.8/CGI/Carp.pm line 314." The templates are working fine on the other web host. I've set the DEBUG_ALL flag when creating the template object, but it doesn't provide any additional info about errors just loads of debug output. I can't post the template source as there's lots of client specific stuff in it. I've written a simple test template and that works okay. Just wondering if anyone had seen this error before or has any ideas on the quickest way to find a fix for it. EDIT: Here's a snippet of the code that loads and processes the template. my $vars = {}; $vars->{page_url} = $page_url; $vars->{info} = $info; $vars->{is_valid} = 0; $vars->{invalid_input} = 0; $vars->{is_warnings} = 0; $vars->{is_invalid_price} = 0; $vars->{output_from_proc} = $proc_output; ... my $file = 'clientTemplate.html'; #create ref to hash use Template::Constants qw( :debug ); my $template = Template->new( { DEBUG => DEBUG_SERVICE | DEBUG_CONTEXT | DEBUG_PROVIDER | DEBUG_PLUGINS | DEBUG_FILTERS | DEBUG_PARSER | DEBUG_DIRS, EVAL_PERL => 1, INCLUDE_PATH => [ '/home/perlstuff/templates', ], } ); $template->process( $file, $vars ) || die "Template process failed: ", $template->error(), "\n";

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  • Does this use of Monitor.Wait/Pulse have a race condition?

    - by jw
    I have a simple producer/consumer scenario, where there is only ever a single item being produced/consumed. Also, the producer waits for the worker thread to finish before continuing. I realize that kind of obviates the whole point of multithreading, but please just assume it really needs to be this way (: This code doesn't compile, but I hope you get the idea: // m_data is initially null // This could be called by any number of producer threads simultaneously void SetData(object foo) { lock(x) // Line A { assert(m_data == null); m_data = foo; Monitor.Pulse(x) // Line B while(m_data != null) Monitor.Wait(x) // Line C } } // This is only ever called by a single worker thread void UseData() { lock(x) // Line D { while(m_data == null) Monitor.Wait(x) // Line E // here, do something with m_data m_data = null; Monitor.Pulse(x) // Line F } } Here is the situation that I am not sure about: Suppose many threads call SetData() with different inputs. Only one of them will get inside the lock, and the rest will be blocked on Line A. Suppose the one that got inside the lock sets m_data and makes its way to Line C. Question: Could the Wait() on Line C allow another thread at Line A to obtain the lock and overwrite m_data before the worker thread even gets to it? Supposing that doesn't happen, and the worker thread processes the original m_data, and eventually makes its way to Line F, what happens when that Pulse() goes off? Will only the thread waiting on Line C be able to get the lock? Or will it be competing with all the other threads waiting on Line A as well? Essentially, I want to know if Pulse()/Wait() communicate with each other specially "under the hood" or if they are on the same level with lock(). The solution to these problems, if they exist, is obvious of course - just surround SetData() with another lock - say, lock(y). I'm just curious if it's even an issue to begin with.

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  • C# Reflection StackTrace get value

    - by John
    I'm making pretty heavy use of reflection in my current project to greatly simplify communication between my controllers and the wcf services. What I want to do now is to obtain a value from the Session within an object that has no direct access to HttpSessionStateBase (IE: Not a controller). For example, a ViewModel. I could pass it in or pass a reference to it etc. but that is not optimal in my situation. Since everything comes from a Controller at some point in my scenario I can do the following to walk the sack to the controller where the call originated, pretty simple stuff: var trace = new System.Diagnostics.StackTrace(); foreach (var frame in trace.GetFrames()) { var type = frame.GetMethod().DeclaringType; var prop = type.GetProperty("Session"); if(prop != null) { // not sure about this part... var value = prop.GetValue(type, null); break; } } The trouble here is that I can't seem to work out how to get the "instance" of the controller or the Session property so that I can read from it.

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  • Why use SQL database?

    - by martinthenext
    I'm not quite sure stackoverflow is a place for such a general question, but let's give it a try. Being exposed to the need of storing application data somewhere, I've always used MySQL or sqlite, just because it's always done like that. As it seems like the whole world is using these databases, most of all software products, frameworks, etc. It is rather hard for a beginning developer like me to ask a question - why? Ok, say we have some object-oriented logic in our application, and objects are related to each other somehow. We need to map this logic to the storage logic, so we need relations between database objects too. This leads us to using relational database and I'm ok with that - to put it simple, our database rows sometimes will need to have references to other tables' rows. But why do use SQL language for interaction with such a database? SQL query is a text message. I can understand this is cool for actually understanding what it does, but isn't it silly to use text table and column names for a part of application that no one ever seen after deploynment? If you had to write a data storage from scratch, you would have never used this kind of solution. Personally, I would have used some 'compiled db query' bytecode, that would be assembled once inside a client application and passed to the database. And it surely would name tables and colons by id numbers, not ascii-strings. In the case of changes in table structure those byte queries could be recompiled according to new db schema, stored in XML or something like that. What are the problems of my idea? Is there any reason for me not to write it myself and to use SQL database instead?

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  • How do i transfer this unmanaged code from asp to asp.net 2/mvc?

    - by melaos
    hi guys, i'm a newbie to ASP.net interop features, so what i have right here is some unmanaged dll that i need to call from my asp.net mvc app. the dll name is CTSerialNumChecksum.dll set CheckSumObj = Server.CreateObject("CTSerialNumChecksum.CRC32API") validSno = CheckSumObj.ValidateSerialNumber(no) i know it's unmanaged because when i try to add reference to the dll it doesn't work. i try to follow some tutorials on interop and marshalling but thus far i wasn't able to get the code to work. i'm trying to wrap the object into another static class and just let the rest of the app to call the code. using System; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace OnlineRegisteration.Models { public static class SerialNumberChecksum { [DllImport("CTSerialNumChecksum")] public static extern int ValidateSerialNumber(string serialNo); } } Questions: How do i write the class? And what tool can i use to identify what type of dll a particular file is, i.e. unmanaged c++, etc? Also i intend to make use jquery to do ajax call later so i can use this to validate my form pre-submission. Is there a better way to handle this?

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  • Launch User Control in a tab control dynamically

    - by Redburn
    I have a custom built menu system in which I would like to load user controls from another project into a tab control on my main project (menu control) User control Project : foobar Menu system Project : Menu The function to load them into the tab control: private void LaunchWPFApplication(string header, string pPath) { // Header - What loads in the tabs header portion. // pPath - Page where to send the user //Create a new browser tab object BrowserTab bt = tabMain.SelectedItem as BrowserTab; bt = new BrowserTab(); bt.txtHeader.Text = header; bt.myParent = BrowserTabs; //Load in the path try { Type formType = Type.GetType(pPath, true); bt.Content = (UserControl)Activator.CreateInstance(formType); } catch { MessageBox.Show("The specified user control : " + pPath + " cannot be found"); } //Add the browser tab and then focus BrowserTabs.Add(bt); bt.IsSelected = true; } And what I send to the function as an example: LaunchWPFApplication("Calculater", "foobar.AppCalculater"); But every time run, the application complains that the formType is null. I am confused on how to load the user control and curious if I'm sending the correct parameters.

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  • objective-c 2.0 properties and 'retain'

    - by Adam
    Stupid question, but why do we need to use 'retain' when declaring a property? Doesn't it get retained anyway when it's assigned something? Looking at this example, it seems that an object is automatically retained when alloc'ed, so what's the point? #import "Fraction.h" #import <stdio.h> int main( int argc, const char *argv[] ) { Fraction *frac1 = [[Fraction alloc] init]; Fraction *frac2 = [[Fraction alloc] init]; // print current counts printf( "Fraction 1 retain count: %i\n", [frac1 retainCount] ); printf( "Fraction 2 retain count: %i\n", [frac2 retainCount] ); // increment them [frac1 retain]; // 2 [frac1 retain]; // 3 [frac2 retain]; // 2 // print current counts printf( "Fraction 1 retain count: %i\n", [frac1 retainCount] ); printf( "Fraction 2 retain count: %i\n", [frac2 retainCount] ); // decrement [frac1 release]; // 2 [frac2 release]; // 1 // print current counts printf( "Fraction 1 retain count: %i\n", [frac1 retainCount] ); printf( "Fraction 2 retain count: %i\n", [frac2 retainCount] ); // release them until they dealloc themselves [frac1 release]; // 1 [frac1 release]; // 0 [frac2 release]; // 0 ¦output Fraction 1 retain count: 1 Fraction 2 retain count: 1 Fraction 1 retain count: 3 Fraction 2 retain count: 2 Fraction 1 retain count: 2 Fraction 2 retain count: 1 Deallocing fraction Deallocing fraction This is driving me crazy!

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  • Database migration pattern for Java?

    - by Eno
    Im working on some database migration code in Java. Im also using a factory pattern so I can use different kinds of databases. And each kind of database im using implements a common interface. What I would like to do is have a migration check that is internal to the class and runs some database schema update code automatically. The actual update is pretty straight forward (I check schema version in a table and compare against a constant in my app to decide whether to migrate or not and between which versions of schema). To make this automatic I was thinking the test should live inside (or be called from) the constructor. OK, fair enough, that's simple enough. My problem is that I dont want the test to run every single time I instantiate a database object (it runs a query so having it run on every construction is not efficient). So maybe this should be a class static method? I guess my question is, what is a good design pattern for this type of problem? There ought to be a clean way to ensure the migration test runs only once OR is super-efficient.

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  • Handle cases where Nhibernate subclass does not exist

    - by kaykayman
    I have a scenario where I am using nhibernate to map records from one table to several different derived classes based on a discriminator. public class BaseClass { } public class DerivedClass0 : BaseClass { } public class DerivedClass1 : BaseClass { } public class DerivedClass2 : BaseClass { } I then use nhibernate's DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn() method and alter the configuration to include <subclass name="DerivedClass0" extends="BaseClass" discriminator-value="discriminator0" /> <subclass name="DerivedClass1" extends="BaseClass" discriminator-value="discriminator1" /> <subclass name="DerivedClass2" extends="BaseClass" discriminator-value="discriminator2" /> so that when mapped, these classes are cast to their derived classes and not BaseClass. However, there are some records in my database which have a discriminator which does not have a corresponding subclass. In these cases, nHibernate throws an error: "Object with id: 'xxx' was not of the specified subclass..." Is there some way I can handle this, so that any records which do not have a corresponding subclass are cast to BaseClass rather than an error being thrown? I have simplified the above as much as possible, however it is worth noting that the XML is edited dynamically which is why I am referencing fluent nhibernate [DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn()] and XML at the same time. The following things (which would help) are not an option: I cannot correct the data to remove records which are invalid I cannot create subclasses for those records which do not have one I need to handle cases where nHibernate tries to map on a discriminator and finds that one does not exist.

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  • Adding StyleSheets Programmatically in Asp.Net

    - by Braveyard
    I want to add StyleSheets programmatically in the head section but one of the examples I saw seemed to need to many lines of code to add just one style sheet even though I may need a lot: Example Code: HtmlLink css = new HtmlLink(); css.Href = "css/fancyforms.css"; css.Attributes["rel"] = "stylesheet"; css.Attributes["type"] = "text/css"; css.Attributes["media"] = "all"; Page.Header.Controls.Add(css); I also use Page.Header.RenderControl() method but it didn't work either. Object null something error was thrown. I also used Page.Header.InnerHtml and InnerText += "<link .... "/> things but they threw the Literal error which is I think common error. I used this code : List<Literal> cssFiles = new List<Literal>(); cssFiles.Add(new Literal() { Text = @"<link href=""" + ResolveUrl("~/Resources/Styles/MainMaster/MainDesign.css") + @""" type=""text/css"" rel=""stylesheet"" />" }); cssFiles.Add(new Literal() { Text = @"<link href=""" + ResolveUrl("~/Resources/Styles/MainMaster/MainLayout.css") + @""" type=""text/css"" rel=""stylesheet"" />" }); AddStyleRange(cssFiles); private void AddStyleRange(List<Literal> cssFiles) { foreach (Literal item in cssFiles) { this.Header.Controls.Add(item); } } It worked at first but when I change the pages it stopped working. I am using Master Page and I am writing these codes on Master.cs file and also some people recommended to use this.Header instead of Page.Header but when I built it throws an error which says I cannot declare that like this. It shouldn't be that hard to add many styles. It is getting complicated.

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  • Pitfalls and practical Use-Cases: Toplink, Hibernate, Eclipse Link, Ibatis ...

    - by Martin K.
    I worked a lot with Hibernate as my JPA implementation. In most cases it works fine! But I have also seen a lot of pitfalls: Remoting with persisted Objects is difficult, because Hibernate replaces the Java collections with its own collection implementation. So the every client must have the Hibernate .jar libraries. You have to take care on LazyLoading exceptions etc. One way to get around this problem is the use of webservices. Dirty checking is done against the Database without any lock. "Delayed SQL", causes that the data access isn't ACID compliant. (Lost data...) Implict Updates So we don't know if an object is modified or not (commit causes updates). Are there similar issues with Toplink, Eclipse Link and Ibatis? When should I use them? Have they a similar performance? Are there reasons to choose Eclipse Link/Toplink... over Hibernate?

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  • C# trying to capture the KeyDown event on a form

    - by Patrick
    Hello! I am creating a small game, the game is printed onto a panel on a windows form. Now i want to capture the keydown event to see if its the arrow keys that has been pressed, the problem however is that i can't seem to capture it. Let me explain, on the form i have 4 buttons and various other controls and if the user for instance press one of the buttons (to trigger a game event) then the button has focus and i can't capture the movements with the arrow keys. I tried something like private void KeyDown(KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left) { game.MovePlayer(DonutWarsLibrary.GameObjects.Direction.E); game.DrawObjects(panel1.CreateGraphics()); } else if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Right) { game.MovePlayer(DonutWarsLibrary.GameObjects.Direction.W); game.DrawObjects(panel1.CreateGraphics()); } else if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Up) { game.MovePlayer(DonutWarsLibrary.GameObjects.Direction.N); game.DrawObjects(panel1.CreateGraphics()); } else if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Down) { game.MovePlayer(DonutWarsLibrary.GameObjects.Direction.S); game.DrawObjects(panel1.CreateGraphics()); } } and then when the form key down event was pressed, i used this private void MainForm_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { KeyDown(e); } I also added keydown for the buttons and the various other controls on the windows form, but i am not getting any response back. I have setup a breakpoint inside the function to see if it's being called, but that breakpoint never triggers? Any ideas? The most optimal was to have a general KeyDown event that triggers (regardless of what control that currently has focus) and then calls the KeyDown method.

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  • TextBox doesn't fire TextChanged Event on IE 8, AutoPostback is true

    - by MaikoID
    Hi guys, I have the same thing, there are many TextBoxes with the event TextChanged set and with AutoPostback = true, and works in all browsers (Chrome, Opera, Firefox 3.6) except in IE 8, IE 6/7 I didn't test. I don't want to put the onblur event in all my TextBoxs because there are many pages with many TextBox that use this event. Description I'm using a masterPage, in the aspx i have <asp:TextBox ID="txtCnpj" runat="server" CssClass="txt" Width="200px" onkeyup="Mascara(this,Cnpj)" onkeydown="Mascara(this,Cnpj)" MaxLength="18" AutoPostBack="true" ValidationGroup="txtCnpj" OnTextChanged="txtCnpj_TextChanged"></asp:TextBox> in the aspx.cs protected void txtCnpj_TextChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (CredorInvestimento.GetCredorInvestimento(txtCnpj.Text) != null) { ((TextBox)sender).Text = ""; ((TextBox)sender).Focus(); rfvCnpj.ErrorMessage = "Duplicado"; Page.Validate(txtCnpj.ID); } else txtNome.Focus(); } Thanks! ps: I really doesn't like of asp.net I spend more time fixing errors than developing new functions. ps: sorry for my english. ps: if i remove the onkeydown and onkeyup events the textchanged fire in IE, but i realy this events too.

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  • Vector of pointers to base class, odd behaviour calling virtual functions

    - by Ink-Jet
    I have the following code #include <iostream> #include <vector> class Entity { public: virtual void func() = 0; }; class Monster : public Entity { public: void func(); }; void Monster::func() { std::cout << "I AM A MONSTER" << std::endl; } class Buddha : public Entity { public: void func(); }; void Buddha::func() { std::cout << "OHMM" << std::endl; } int main() { const int num = 5; // How many of each to make std::vector<Entity*> t; for(int i = 0; i < num; i++) { Monster m; Entity * e; e = &m; t.push_back(e); } for(int i = 0; i < num; i++) { Buddha b; Entity * e; e = &b; t.push_back(e); } for(int i = 0; i < t.size(); i++) { t[i]->func(); } return 0; } However, when I run it, instead of each class printing out its own message, they all print the "Buddha" message. I want each object to print its own message: Monsters print the monster message, Buddhas print the Buddha message. What have I done wrong?

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  • improving data extraction from text file in Java

    - by owca
    I have CSV file with sample data in this form : 220 30 255 0 0 Javascript 200 20 0 255 128 Thinking in java , where the first column is height, second thickness, next three are rgb values for color and last one is title. All need to be treated as separate variables. I have already written my own solution for this, but I'm wondering if there are no better/easier/shorter ways of doing this. Extracted data will then be used to create Book object, throw every Book into array of books and print it with swing. Here's the code : private static Book[] addBook(Book b, Book[] bookTab){ Book[] tmp = bookTab; bookTab = new Book[tmp.length+1]; for(int i = 0; i < tmp.length; i++){ bookTab[i] = tmp[i]; } bookTab[tmp.length] = b; return bookTab; } public static void main(String[] args) { Book[] books = new Book[0]; try { BufferedReader file = new BufferedReader(new FileReader("K:\\books.txt")); String s; while ((s = file.readLine()) != null) { int hei, thick, R, G, B; String tit; hei = Integer.parseInt(s.substring(0, 3).replaceAll(" ", "")); thick = Integer.parseInt(s.substring(4, 6).replaceAll(" ", "")); R = Integer.parseInt(s.substring(10, 13).replaceAll(" ", "")); G = Integer.parseInt(s.substring(14, 17).replaceAll(" ", "")); B = Integer.parseInt(s.substring(18, 21).replaceAll(" ", "")); tit = s.substring(26); System.out.println(tyt+wys+grb+R+G+B); books = addBook(new Book(wys, grb, R, G, B, tyt),books); } file.close(); } catch (IOException e) { //do nothing } }

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  • How can I get the dimensions of a drawn string without padding?

    - by Dan Herbert
    I'm trying to create an image with some text on it and I want the image's size to match the size of the rendered text. When I use System.Windows.Forms.TextRenderer.MeasureText(...) to measure the text, I get dimensions that include font padding. When the text is rendered, it seems to use the same padding. Is there any way to determine the size of a string of text and then render it without any padding? This is the code I've tried: // Measure the text dimensions var text = "Hello World"; var fontFamily = new Font("Arial", 30, FontStyle.Regular); var textColor = new SolidBrush(Color.Black); Size textSize = TextRenderer.MeasureText(text, fontFamily, Size.Empty, TextFormatFlags.NoPadding); // Render the text with the given dimensions Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(textSize.Width, textSize.Height); Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(bmp); g.TextRenderingHint = TextRenderingHint.AntiAliasGridFit; g.DrawString(text, fontFamily, textColor, new PointF(0, 0)); bmp.Save("output.png", ImageFormat.Png); This is what currently gets rendered out: This is what I want to render: I also looked into Graphics.MeasureString(...), but that can only be used on an existing Graphics object. I want to know the size before creating the image. Also, calling Graphics.MeasureString(...) returns the same dimensions, so it doesn't help me any.

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  • Synchronizing a collection of wrapped objects with a collection of unwrapped objects

    - by Kenneth Cochran
    I have two classes: Employee and EmployeeGridViewAdapter. Employee is composed of several complex types. EmployeeGridViewAdapter wraps a single Employee and exposes its members as a flattened set of system types so a DataGridView can handle displaying, editing, etc. I'm using VS's builtin support for turning a POCO into a data source, which I then attach to a BindingSource object. When I attach the DataGridView to the BindingSource it creates the expected columns and at runtime I can perform the expected CRUD operations. All is good so far. The problem is the collection of adapters and the collection of employees aren't being synchronized. So all the employees I create an runtime never get persisted. Here's a snippet of the code that generates the collection of EmployeeGridViewAdapter's: var employeeCollection = new List<EmployeeGridViewAdapter>(); foreach (var employee in this.employees) { employeeCollection.Add(new EmployeeGridViewAdapter(employee)); } this.view.Employees = employeeCollection; Pretty straight forward but I can't figure out how to synchronize changes back to the original collection. I imagine edits are already handled because both collections reference the same objects but creating new employees and deleting employees aren't happening so I can't be sure.

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