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  • Lack of security in many PHP applications?

    - by John
    Over the past year of freelancing, I inherited two web projects, both of them built in PHP, both of them with sensitive information like credit card info, bank info, etc... In one application, when I typed http://thecompany.com/admin/, and without being asked for a username and password, I saw every user's sensitive information, including credit card numbers, bank account numbers etc... In another application, I was able to bypass the login screen by simply typing http://the2ndcompany.com/customer.php?user_id=777, and again, without any prompts for username and password, i was able to see user 777's credit card info. I cycled through a few more user_ids (any integer) and saw each person's credit card info. Is something wrong here? Or is this the quality of work that the "average" programmer produces? Because if this is what the average programmer produces, does that means I'm an...gasp...elite programmer?? No..that can't be right....something doesn't make sense. So my question is, is it just coincidence that I inherited two applications both of which are dangerously lacking in security? Or are there are a lot of bad PHP programmers out there?

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  • Should I use IDisposable for purely managed resources?

    - by John Gietzen
    Here is the scenario: I have an object called a Transaction that needs to make sure that only one entity has permission to edit it at any given time. In order to facilitate a long-lived lock, I have the class generating a token object that can be used to make the edits. You would use it like this: var transaction = new Transaction(); using (var tlock = transaction.Lock()) { transaction.Update(data, tlock); } Now, I want the TransactionLock class to implement IDisposable so that its usage can be clear. But, I don't have any unmanaged resources to dispose. however, the TransctionLock object itself is a sort of "unmanaged resource" in the sense that the CLR doesn't know how to properly finalize it. All of this would be fine and dandy, I would just use IDisposable and be done with it. However, my issue comes when I try to do this in the finalizer: ~TransactionLock() { this.Dispose(false); } I want the finalizer to release the transaction from the lock, if possible. How, in the finalizer, do I detect if the parent transaction (this.transaction) has already been finalized? Is there a better pattern I should be using? The Transaction class looks something like this: public sealed class Transaction { private readonly object lockMutex = new object(); private TransactionLock currentLock; public TransactionLock Lock() { lock (this.lockMutex) { if (this.currentLock != null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); this.currentLock = new TransactionLock(this); return this.currentLock; } } public void Update(object data, TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); // ... } } internal void ValidateLock(TransactionLock tlock) { if (this.currentLock == null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); if (this.currentLock != tlock) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); } internal void Unlock(TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); this.currentLock = null; } } }

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  • Why aren't operator conversions implicitly called for templated functions? (C++)

    - by John Gordon
    I have the following code: template <class T> struct pointer { operator pointer<const T>() const; }; void f(pointer<const float>); template <typename U> void tf(pointer<const float>); void g() { pointer<float> ptr; f(ptr); tf(ptr); } When I compile the code with gcc 4.3.3 I get a message (aaa.cc:17: error: no matching function for call to ‘tf(pointer<float>&)’) indicating that the compiler called 'operator pointer<const T>' for the non-templated function f(), but didn't for the templated function tf(). Why and is there any workaround short of overloading tf() with a const and non-const version? Thanks in advance for any help.

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  • AssemblyResolve event is not firing during compilation of a dynamic assembly for an aspx page.

    - by John
    This one is really pissing me off. Here goes: My goal is to load assemblies at run-time that contain embedded aspx,ascx etc. What I would also like is to not lock the assembly file on disk so I can update it at run-time without having to restart the application (I know this will leave the previous version(s) loaded). To that end I have written a virtual path provider that does the trick. I have subscribed to the CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve event so as to redirect the framework to my assemblies. The problem is that the when the framework tries to compile the dynamic assembly for the aspx page I get the following: Compiler Error Message: CS0400: The type or namespace name 'Pages' could not be found in the global namespace (are you missing an assembly reference?) Source Error: public class app_resource_pages__version_1_0_0_0__culture_neutral__publickeytoken_null_default_aspx : global::Pages._Default, System.Web.SessionState.IRequiresSessionState, System.Web.IHttpHandle I noticed that if I load the assembly with Assembly.Load(AssemblyName) or Assembly.LoadFrom(filename) I dont get the above error. If I load it with Assembly.Load(byte[]) (so as to not lock it), the exception is thrown but my AssemblyResolve handler, when called is returning the assembly correctly (it is called once). So I am guessing that it is called once when the framework parses the asp markup but not when it tries to create the dynamic assembly for the aspx page.

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  • How to package AIR 2 native installer?

    - by John Isaacks
    I have made an AIR 2.0 app that uses NativeProcess so it needs to be packaged as a native installer (.exe) rather than a .air file. I first tried using Package Assistant but I kept getting an error telling me it cannot load keystore file. so I tried using the command line I use: pathToAirSDK>adt -args but I get an error telling me that "adt" is not a known command so I try: pathToAirSDK>adt.jar -args but I get a pop up telling me windows does not know how to open adt.jar files. Has anyone packaged a native installer for an AIR 2.0 app? How did you do it? edit forgot to mention I am doing this in windows using the windows command line.

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  • How to process XML sernt via POST?

    - by John Conde
    I'm receiving XML sent via POST. Naturally I need to parse this XML to get at the goodies it holds for me. However, when I receive the XML is seems that PHP is parsing it like a query string. For example, this xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ForgotPassword> <version>1.0</version> <authentication> <login>myresllerid</login> <apikey>1234567890abcdef</apikey> </authentication> <parameters> <emailAddress>[email protected]</emailAddress> </parameters> </ForgotPassword> Becomes this (from print_r($_REQUEST)): Array ( [ <?xml_version] => "1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <IDCForgotPassword> <version>1.0</version> <authentication> <login>myresllerid</login> <apikey>1234567890abcdef</apikey> </authentication> <parameters> <emailAddress>[email protected]</emailAddress> </parameters> </IDCForgotPassword> ) You can see the XML is being broken up at the first equals sign (=) in the XML into a key/value pair. How do I avoid this?

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  • Data model for timesheet to task and/or timesheet to project?

    - by John
    Let's say I want to make a simple project tracking system. A manager can create a project. Then he can create tasks for that project. Team members can record the hours they work for each task or for the project as a whole. Is the following design for the t_timesheet table a good idea? timesheet_id - primary key, autoincrement project_id - not null, foreign key constraint to t_project task_id - nullable, foreign key constraint to t_task user_id - not null, foreign key constraint to t_user hours - decimal Or should I do something like this: timesheet_id - primary key, autoincrement task_id - not null, foreign key constraint to t_task user_id - not null, foreign key constraint to t_user hours - decimal In the second option, I intend to always have a record in t_task labelled "miscellaneous items" with a foreign key to the relevant t_project record. Then I'll be able to track all hours for a project that aren't for any particular task. Are any of the ideas above good? What would be better?

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  • Django show manytomanyfield on form when definition is on other model

    - by John
    Hi I have the definition for my manytomany relationship on one model but want to display the field on a form for the other model. How do I do this? for example: # classes class modelA(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=300) manytomany = models.ManyToManyField(modelA) class modelB(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=300) # forms class modelBForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = modelB I want to use the form modelBForm but show a select box with a list from modelA (just how it would work if the model was set to modelA in the form class). How can I do this? Thanks

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  • Thoughts on try-catch blocks

    - by John Boker
    What are your thoughts on code that looks like this: public void doSomething() { try { // actual code goes here } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } The problem I see is the actual error is not handled, just throwing the exception in a different place. I find it more difficult to debug because i don't get a line number where the actual problem is. So my question is why would this be good? ---- EDIT ---- From the answers it looks like most people are saying it's pointless to do this with no custom or specific exceptions being caught. That's what i wanted comments on, when no specific exception is being caught. I can see the point of actually doing something with a caught exception, just not the way this code is.

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  • POST parameters strangely parsed inside phantomjs

    - by user61629
    I am working with PHP/CURL and would like to send POST data to my phantomjs script, by setting the postfields array below: In my php controller I have: $data=array('first' => 'John', 'last' => 'Smith'); $url='http://localhost:7788/'; $output = $this->my_model->get_data($url,$data); In my php model I have: public function get_data($url,$postFieldArray) { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, $cookieFile); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, TRUE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, TRUE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 7.0; Windows NT 6.0)"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, TRUE); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postFieldArray); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); $output = curl_exec($ch); In my phantomJS script that I am running locally I have: // import the webserver module, and create a server var server = require('webserver').create(); var port = require('system').env.PORT || 7788; console.log("Start Application"); console.log("Listen port " + port); // Create serever and listen port server.listen(port, function(request, response) { // Print some information Just for debbug console.log("We got some requset !!!"); console.log("request method: ", request.method); // request.method POST or GET if(request.method == 'POST' ){ console.log("POST params should be next: "); console.log("POST params: ",request.post); exit; } I first start and run the phantomjs script (myscript.js) from the command line, then I run my php script. The output is: $ phantomjs.exe myscript.js Start Application Listen port 7788 null We got some requset !!! request method: POST POST params should be next: POST params: ------------------------------e70d439800f9 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="first" John ------------------------------e70d439800f9 Content-Disposition: form-data; name="last" Smith ------------------------------e70d439800f9-- I'm confused about the the output. I was expecting something more like: first' => 'John', 'last' => 'Smith Can someone explain why it looks this way? How can I parse the request.post object to assign to variables inside myscript.js

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  • iPhone UISlider not visible

    - by John Qualis
    I want to add a UISlider to my app programmatically without using the IB. I am adding a UISlider to my UIViewController using the code below. However I don't see the slider when the view comes up. What am I missing? I am using iPhone SDK 3.1.2. Appreciate any help. @synthesize slider; .... - (void)viewDidLoad { ... ... slider = [[UISlider alloc] initWithFrame: CGRectMake(0, 480 - 80, 300, 20)]; slider.minimumValue = 0.0; slider.maximumValue = 100.0; slider.tag = 0; slider.value = 50; slider.continuous = YES; slider.enabled = YES; [slider addTarget:selfaction:@selector(handleSlider:)forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; self.view addSubview:slider]; In the .h file ... UISlider *slider; ... @property (nonatomic, retain) UISlider *slider; - (void) handleSlider:(id)sender;

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  • Django User "per project" group assignation

    - by Ben G
    Hi, Here's my problem : my site has users, which can create projects, and access other user's projects. Each project can assign different rights to users. So, i could have Project A : user "John" is in group "manager" , and Project "B" user "John" is in group "worker". How could I use the Django User authentication model to do that ? From a SQL point a view, what i would like is to be able to add "project_id" in the primary key for the "auth_user_groups" table. I don't think profile is of any help here. Any advice ? UPDATE : "worker" and "manager" are just two examples of the permission group (or "roles") that my application defines. There will be more in the future. Eg : i will probably also have "admin", "reporting", etc...

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  • How to load images and fragments dynamically in LiveCycle Designer forms?

    - by John
    Hi there. I've created a couple of shared templates (.xdp) which will be shared among several clients. Obviously, each client has their own logo and I'd like to set the logo upon form generation. I've managed to change the logo dynamically although I'm not sure if my approach is good. In the xml datasource I've got this element: <ClientID>SomeNumber</ClientId> In the form itself I set the image href with this javascript code: SomeHiddenTextField::calculate HeaderLogo.value.image.href = $record.ClientID + "_logo.jpg"; I've got the logos stored on the server in the same folder as the shared templates. Is this an alright approach to load logos dynamically? I've been trying to achieve the same dynamic behaviour with each client's footer fragment, but I have been unable to figure out how to load these on demand. I could make each footer fragment in to an image but I'd like to avoid it if possible.

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  • Visual C++: breakpoints disabled

    - by John
    I have a 'release with debug info' unmanaged c++ .exe (built with VS2005) deployed onto another PC, the .exe and .pdb are in the same folder. When I try to attach to the process from VS2005, either locally or remotely from my dev PC, all my breakpoints become disabled. I don't get any warning/error popups which makes me think the PDB file is being found, but not seen as 'good'. Is that the right interpretation? I think if it couldn't see the PDB I'd get a "no debug information could be found" popup. Has anyone got any ideas what can be wrong?

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  • R: how can I concatenate a list?

    - by John
    I'm trying to produce a single variable which is a concatenation of two chars e.g to go from "p30s4" "p28s4" to "p30s4 p28s4". I've tried cat and paste as shown below. Both return empty variables. What am I doing wrong? > blah = c("p30s4","p28s4") > blah [1] "p30s4" "p28s4" > foo = cat(blah) p30s4 p28s4 > foo NULL > foo = paste(cat(blah)) p30s4 p28s4 > foo character(0)

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  • How to create commandlink programmatically

    - by John
    Hi, We have a system built on seam/richfaces. There's this webpage where the tables are rendered from dynamic context (from multiple different datasources, and each of them uses a different layout to represent essentially the same real world concept). As a result, this table is binded to a bean, and it's columns/layout are generated from this bean. Now I need to add a command link on a specific column, equivalent to <a4j:commandLink value="#{actBean.Ids}" action="#{actBean.genDetails}"> <f:setPropertyActionListener target="#{actBean.Ref}" value="#{cont}"/> </a4j:commandLink> in a JSF page. My question is, how do I do this programmatically? Thanks!

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  • window.open causing error in IE only.

    - by John Isaacks
    I am calling this from ie8: function verify_ssl() { window.open ("https://seal.godaddy.com/verifySeal?sealID=129275340046e2e09512711f05bc73f617fac022950185486622550", "ssl-window","status=0,toolbar=0,menubar=0,resizable=0,width=540,height=435"); } It says invalid argument, It works fine in FF and Chrome. Any idea what the issue is in IE?

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  • Model a Zero or One to Many Relationship

    - by John
    How should I model a zero or one to a many relationship in the database? For example, a user record may or may not have a parent. So should my user table have a t_user.parent_id or should I have an associative table called t_user_hierarchy with the columns t_user_hierarchy.parent_id and t_user_hierarchy.user_id?

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  • how to separate debug and release mode code

    - by john
    during debug mode or while i am doing testing, i need to print lost of various information, so i use this method ifdef TESTING // code with lots of debugging info else // clean code only endif // TESTING` Is this the good method, or is there any other simple and elegant method. But this way, I am repating the same code in two places and if anything is to be changed later on in the code, I have to do it in both places, which is time consuming and error prone. Thanks. I am using MS Visual Studio.

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  • Ajax: Load XML from different domain?

    - by John Isaacks
    I have signed up(paid) for Google site search. They have me a url of a sort of web service where I can send a query to it, it searches my site, and it returns XML of the search results. Well I am trying to load this XML via Ajax from a page on my site but I cannot. I can load from any of my pages on my domain so I am assuming it is because of the XML being on Google's domain. So there has got to be a way to load it though, I don't think they would have given me the URL if I couldn't do anything with it lol. Does anyone know how to do this? Thanks! UPDATE: this is what the page says on google that gave me the XML: How to get XML You can get XML results for your search engine by replacing query+terms with your search query in this URL: http://www.google.com/cse?cx=MY_UNIQUE_KEY&client=google-csbe&output=xml_no_dtd&q=query+terms Where MY_UNIQUE_KEY = my unique key.

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  • Jquery to hightlight elements in a list

    - by John
    Hi I have a ol list: <ol> <li class="group1">item 1</li> <li class="group1">item 2</li> <li class="group2"> item 3</li> <li class="group3">item 4</li> <li class="group1">item 5</li> <li class="group3"> item 6</li> <ol> and a set of checkboxes which correspond to the class names <input type="checkbox" value="group1" />group 1 <input type="checkbox" value="group2" />group 2 <input type="checkbox" value="group3" />group 3 What I want to happen is that when a user clicks on a checkbox to 'tick' it, any li rows which are not checked are fadedOut (change opacity) and then any rows which have the class which matches the value of the checkbox are highlighter (background colour changed to yellow). So for example if group 3 was clicked, item 4 and item 6 would be highlighted. Then if group 2 was clicked item 3 would be highlighted (item 4 and 6 would remain highlighted). If group 2 was un-ticked, item 3 would become faded out although item 4 and 6 would remain highlighted. The code I have at the moment is: $('input').click(function(){ input = $(this); classVal = "." + input.val(); elements = $(classVal ); if (input.is(':checked')) { elements.css("background-color", "#FFFF00"); } else { elements.css("background-color", ""); } }); This handles the highlighting but does not do the fading of the unchecked elements. I know I can change the opacity using css("opacity", 0.33) or fadeTo("slow", 0.33) but not sure how to handle this in the code and where to put it. If any of my other code can be tidied up also please let me know Thanks

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  • Ignoring unclosed tags from another <div>?

    - by Mike
    I have a website where members can input text using a limited subset of HTML. When a page is displayed that contains a user's text, if they have any unclosed tags, the formatting "bleeds" across into the next area. For example, if the user entered: Hi, my name is <b>John Then, the rest of the page will be bold. Ideally, there'd be someting I could do that would be this simple: <div contained>Hi, my name is <b>John</div> And no tags could bleed out of that div. Assuming there isn't anything this simple, how would I accomplish a similar effect? Or, is there something this easy? Importantly, I do not want to validate the user's input and return an error if they have unclosed tags, since I want to provide the "easiest" user interface possible for my users. Thanks!

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