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  • What is the fastest way to Initialize a multi-dimensional array to non-default values in .NET?

    - by AMissico
    How do I initialize a multi-dimensional array of a primitive type as fast as possible? I am stuck with using multi-dimensional arrays. My problem is performance. The following routine initializes a 100x100 array in approx. 500 ticks. Removing the int.MaxValue initialization results in approx. 180 ticks just for the looping. Approximately 100 ticks to create the array without looping and without initializing to int.MaxValue. Routines similiar to this are called a few hundred-thousand to several million times during a "run". The array size will not change during a run and arrays are created one-at-a-time, used, then discarded, and a new array created. A "run" which may last from one minute (using 10x10 arrays) to forty-five minutes (100x100). The application creates arrays of int, bool, and struct. There can be multiple "runs" executing at same time, but are not because performance degrades terribly. I am using 100x100 as a base-line. I am open to suggestions on how to optimize this non-default initialization of an array. One idea I had is to use a smaller primitive type when available. For instance, using byte instead of int, saves 100 ticks. I would be happy with this, but I am hoping that I don't have to change the primitive data type. public int[,] CreateArray(Size size) { int[,] array = new int[size.Width, size.Height]; for (int x = 0; x < size.Width; x++) { for (int y = 0; y < size.Height; y++) { array[x, y] = int.MaxValue; } } return array; } Down to 450 ticks with the following: public int[,] CreateArray1(Size size) { int iX = size.Width; int iY = size.Height; int[,] array = new int[iX, iY]; for (int x = 0; x < iX; x++) { for (int y = 0; y < iY; y++) { array[x, y] = int.MaxValue; } } return array; } Down to approximately 165 ticks after a one-time initialization of 2800 ticks. (See my answer below.) If I can get stackalloc to work with multi-dimensional arrays, I should be able to get the same performance without having to intialize the private static array. private static bool _arrayInitialized5; private static int[,] _array5; public static int[,] CreateArray5(Size size) { if (!_arrayInitialized5) { int iX = size.Width; int iY = size.Height; _array5 = new int[iX, iY]; for (int x = 0; x < iX; x++) { for (int y = 0; y < iY; y++) { _array5[x, y] = int.MaxValue; } } _arrayInitialized5 = true; } return (int[,])_array5.Clone(); } Down to approximately 165 ticks without using the "clone technique" above. (See my answer below.) I am sure I can get the ticks lower, if I can just figure out the return of CreateArray9. public unsafe static int[,] CreateArray8(Size size) { int iX = size.Width; int iY = size.Height; int[,] array = new int[iX, iY]; fixed (int* pfixed = array) { int count = array.Length; for (int* p = pfixed; count-- > 0; p++) *p = int.MaxValue; } return array; }

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  • Why would I be seeing execution timeouts when setting $_SESSION values?

    - by Kev
    I'm seeing the following errors in my PHP error logs: PHP Fatal error: Maximum execution time of 60 seconds exceeded in D:\sites\s105504\www\index.php on line 3 PHP Fatal error: Maximum execution time of 60 seconds exceeded in D:\sites\s105504\www\search.php on line 4 The lines in question are: index.php: 01 <?php 02 session_start(); 03 ob_start(); 04 error_reporting(E_All); 05 $_SESSION['nav'] = "range"; // <-- Error generated here search.php 01 <?php 02 03 session_start(); 04 $_SESSION['nav'] = "range"; 05 $_SESSION['navselected'] = 21; // <-- Error generated here Would it really take as long as 60+ seconds to assign a $_SESSION[] value? The platform is: Windows 2003 SP2 + IIS6 FastCGI for Windows 2003 (original RTM build) PHP 5.2.6 Non thread-safe build There aren't any issues with session data files being cleared up on the server as sessions expire. The oldest sess_XXXXXXXXXXXXXX file I'm seeing is around 2 hours old. There are no disk timeouts evident in the event logs or other such disk health issues that might suggest difficulty creating session data files. The site is also on a server that isn't under heavy load. The site is busy but not being hammered and is very responsive. It's just that we get these errors, three or four in a row, every three or four hours. I should also add that I'm not the original developer of this code and that it belongs to a customer who's developer has long since departed.

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  • how do redirect values to other page without click event in html. Below code is fine IE. But Not in

    - by karthik
    I have implemented paypal in my web page. Process is 'given inputs are redirect to other page(2 nd page) which have to get that input and redirect to paypal page(third page). Here we submit data on first page. value pass to second page(in this page user interaction not allowed) after pass to third page.It works fine in IE . But Not In Mozila.Send any Solution. Code sample(second page): <%string product = Request.QueryString["productName"].ToString();% <% string amount = Request.QueryString["price"].ToString(); % " " document.all.frmpaypal.submit(); Fine in IE, Not In Mozila

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  • how to include in web.config an external mydll.config file and read its values?

    - by firepol
    Hi, I found this answer about external configuration files. I'm trying to do a similar thing. I have a small webapplication called StatsGen I want to include in other projects, and for convenience I'd like to have the settings inside the bin folder, in a config file with an appropriate name, in my case: StatsGen.config. So I've put these line in the web.config (as explained in the answer I mentioned above): <configSections> <section name="StatsGenSettings" restartOnExternalChanges="true" type="System.Configuration.NameValueFileSectionHandler" /> <!--sectionGroups--> </configSections> <StatsGenSettings configSource="StatsGen.config"></StatsGenSettings> <!--and here comes the rest... appSettings etc.--> Inside the bin folder, I created a StatsGen.xml file, then renamed it to StatsGen.config. It looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <StatsGenSettings> <add key="Password" value="myStatsPass" /> <add key="ConnectionString" value="Server=mydbsrv;Database=myDB;User ID=myUser;Password=myPass" /> </StatsGenSettings> I created an Helper class, as suggested in the answer. In the Page_Load of my default.aspx.cs file, I've put: goodPassword = StatsGenSettings.Instance["Password"]; When I load my page, I get this error: The type initializer for 'StatsGen.Helpers.StatsGenSettings' threw an exception. I've tried to exlude the helper and just to get access to the key, like this: NameValueCollection _settings = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("StatsGenSettings") as NameValueCollection; And I get this error: Unable to open configSource file 'StatsGen.config'. (C:\Users\pbo\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\StatsGen\StatsGen\web.config line 21) At line 21 I just have this, as explained above: <StatsGenSettings configSource="StatsGen.config"></StatsGenSettings> So now I'm wondering, what's wrong? Some detailed help would be cool... like: where exactly should I declare the StatsGenSettings element inside the web.config? It was not specified in the answer I've found... or what else am I doing wrong? Thanks for letting me know...

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  • Why doesn't negative values for the second index in a jagged array work in Python?

    - by univerio
    For example, if I have the following (data from Project Euler): s = [[75], [95, 64], [17, 47, 82], [18, 35, 87, 10], [20, 4, 82, 47, 65], [19, 1, 23, 75, 3, 34], [88, 2, 77, 73, 7, 63, 67], [99, 65, 4, 28, 6, 16, 70, 92], [41, 41, 26, 56, 83, 40, 80, 70, 33], [41, 48, 72, 33, 47, 32, 37, 16, 94, 29], [53, 71, 44, 65, 25, 43, 91, 52, 97, 51, 14], [70, 11, 33, 28, 77, 73, 17, 78, 39, 68, 17, 57], [91, 71, 52, 38, 17, 14, 91, 43, 58, 50, 27, 29, 48], [63, 66, 4, 68,89, 53, 67, 30, 73, 16, 69, 87, 40, 31], [4, 62, 98, 27, 23, 9, 70, 98, 73, 93, 38, 53, 60, 4, 23]] Why does s[1:][:-1] give me the same thing as s[1:] instead of (what I want) [s[i][:-1] for i in range(1,len(s))]. In other words, why does Python ignore my second index?

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  • Why does this JavaScript not correctly update input values?

    - by dmanexe
    I have two input fields, and without changing their names (i.e., I have to use the name with the brackets), how do I make this javascript code work? <script> function calc_concreteprice(mainform) { var oprice; var ototal; oprice = (eval(mainform.'estimate[concrete][sqft]'.value) * eval(mainform.'estimate[concrete][price]'.value)); ototal = (oprice); mainform.'estimate[concrete][quick_total]'.value = ototal; } </script> Here's the HTML of the input area. <tr> <td>Concrete Base Price</td> <td><input type="text" name="concrete[concrete][price]" value="" class="item_mult" onBlur="calc_concreteprice(document.forms.mainform);" /> per SF <strong>times</strong> <input type="text" name="concrete[concrete][sqft]" value="" class="item_mult" onBlur="calc_concreteprice(document.forms.mainform);" /> SF</td> <td> = <input type="text" name="concrete[concrete][quick_total]" value="" /></td> </tr> I know I can get it working by changing_the_input_name_with_underscores but I need to have the names with the brackets (storing the form contents in an array).

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  • How do I use Eval() to reference values in a SortedDictionary in an asp Repeater?

    - by MatthewMartin
    I thought I was clever to switch from the memory intensive DataView to SortedDictionary as a memory efficient sortable data structure. Now I have no idea how get the key and value out of the datasource in the <%# or Eval() expressions. SortedDictionary<int, string> data = RetrieveNames(); rCurrentTeam.DataSource = data; rCurrentTeam.DataBind(); <asp:Repeater ID="rNames" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblName" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("what?") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> Any suggestions?

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  • Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

    - by Weeble
    In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

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  • Database Design: A proper table design for large number of column values.

    - by Jake
    I wish to perform an experiment many different times. After every trial, I am left with a "large" set of output statistics -- let's say, 1000. I would like to store the outputs of my experiments in a table, but what's the best way...? Option 1 Have a table with 1000 columns. Seems like a bad idea. What if the number of statistics one day exceeds the maximum number of columns? Option 2 Have a table with three columns. Let's say, ID, StatisticType, and StatisticValue. That way, you can have as many statistics as you want. However, reading a single experiments statistics becomes more complicated. Moreover, what if different statistics are different data types?? Any suggestions?

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  • How do I search a NTEXT column for XML attributes and update the values? MS SQL 2005

    - by Alan
    Duplicate: this exact question was asked by the same author in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1221583/how-do-i-update-a-xml-string-in-an-ntext-column-in-sql-server. Please close this one and answer in the original question. I have a SQL table with 2 columns. ID(int) and Value(ntext) The value rows have all sorts of xml strings in them. ID Value -- ------------------ 1 <ROOT><Type current="TypeA"/></ROOT> 2 <XML><Name current="MyName"/><XML> 3 <TYPE><Colour current="Yellow"/><TYPE> 4 <TYPE><Colour current="Yellow" Size="Large"/><TYPE> 5 <TYPE><Colour current="Blue" Size="Large"/><TYPE> 6 <XML><Name current="Yellow"/><XML> How do I: A. List the rows where <TYPE><Colour current="Yellow", bearing in mind that there is an entry <XML><Name current="Yellow"/><XML> B. Modify the rows that contain <TYPE><Colour current="Yellow" to be <TYPE><Colour current="Purple" Thanks! 4 your help

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  • PHP: How to access array values returned by a static function?

    - by Prashant
    I am running following code, getAccount() is a static function, $ac_info = AccountClass::getAccount($ac_code); print_r($ac_info); and getting following output AccountClass Object ( [account_code] => [email protected] [username] => XYZ [email] => [first_name] => [last_name] => [company_name] => [id] => [email protected] [balance_in_cents] => 0 [created_at] => 1271333048 [state] => active ) But I want to access the value of "account_code" shown above, how to access it, and AccountClass Object what is this, this is array or what? I am not getting it properly. Please explain what is AccountClass Object and how to access value of properties account_code, first_name inside this array. Thanks

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  • How can I extract values out of this array?

    - by Jagira
    Array ( [status] => success [abc] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [name] => John Doe [age] => 23) [1] => Array ( [name] => John Doe_1 [age] => 23) [2] => Array ( [name] => John Doe_2 [age] => 23) ) ) When I try foreach($stories as $story){ } It returns an error.

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  • Xalan redirect:write , use either of two element values to create name of new .xml file depending on

    - by Bilzac
    So I have the following code: <redirect:write select="concat('..\\folder\\,string(filename),'.xml')"> Where "filename" is a tag in the xml source. My problem occurs when filename is null or blank. And this is the case for several of the xml filename tags. So what I am trying to implement is a checking method. This is what I have done: <xsl-if test = "filename != ''"> <xsl:variable name = "tempName" select = "filename" /> </xsl-if> <xsl-if test ="filename = ''"> <xsl:variable name = "tempName" select = "filenameB"/> </xsl-if> <redirect:write select="concat('..\\folder\\,string($tempName),'.xml')"> I seem to be getting NPEs when I compile my Java code, saying the Variable not resolvable: tempName

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  • [Iphone-Dev] Assigning values : difference between properties and class variables ?

    - by gotye
    Hey guys, I noticed that I rarely use properties, due to the fact that I rarely need to access my object's variables outside my class ;) So I usually do : NSMutableArray *myArray; // not a property ! My question is : even if i don't declare myArray as a property, does iphone make a retain anyway if I do myArray = arrayPassedToMe; I think so but I just wanted to confirm ;) Any thoughts welcome ! Gotye

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  • Xcodebuild failing to pick up environment values from project file?

    - by egrunin
    I'm using Xcode 3.2.6, MacOSX. I have a globally visible environment setting: ICU_SRC=~/Documents/icu/source This really is an environment setting, it's set at login time. When I open up Terminal, it's there. In my project, under Header Search Paths I've added this: $(ICU_SRC)/i18n $(ICU_SRC)/common These expand correctly when I compile inside the IDE. When I look at the build results, I see this: -I/Users/eric.grunin/Documents/icu/source/i18n -I/Users/eric.grunin/Documents/icu/source/common When I build from the command line, however, it fails. What I see is this: -I/i18n -I/common Here's the command I'm using to compile: /usr/bin/env -i xcodebuild -project my_project.xcodeproj -target "my_program" -configuration Release -sdk macosx10.6 build What am I doing wrong? Edited to add: Apple explains Setting environment variables for user processes

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  • How to Retrieve Values of A Dynamically Created Control's Child Controls on PostBack?

    - by Jordan
    Given: I have a custom server control in the markup of an aspx page. This control creates child controls in its CreateChildControls() method (e.g. it retrieves content from a database and based on that content dynamically creates either a CheckBoxList or a RadioButtonList) Now I understand that I cannot access the dynamically created controls on postback unless I add them again on Page_Init or Page_PreInit (as per here). My question is, how do I add them again explicitly in Page_Init or Page_PreInit if they are just going to be added yet again when we get around to calling Render() on each of the custom server controls? I'm very certain this is not a unique problem, so there must be a best practice way of doing it...I just don't know what it is :/

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  • Setting default values for inherited property without using accessor in Objective-C?

    - by Ben Stock
    I always see people debating whether or not to use a property's setter in the -init method. I don't know enough about the Objective-C language yet to have an opinion one way or the other. With that said, lately I've been sticking to ivars exclusively. It seems cleaner in a way. I don't know. I digress. Anyway, here's my problem … Say we have a class called Dude with an interface that looks like this: @interface Dude : NSObject { @private NSUInteger _numberOfGirlfriends; } @property (nonatomic, assign) NSUInteger numberOfGirlfriends; @end And an implementation that looks like this: @implementation Dude - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { _numberOfGirlfriends = 0; } } @end Now let's say I want to extend Dude. My subclass will be called Playa. And since a playa should have mad girlfriends, when Playa gets initialized, I don't want him to start with 0; I want him to have 10. Here's Playa.m: @implementation Playa - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { // Attempting to set the ivar directly will result in the compiler saying, // "Instance variable `_numberOfGirlfriends` is private." // _numberOfGirlfriends = 10; <- Can't do this. // Thus, the only way to set it is with the mutator: self.numberOfGirlfriends = 10; // Or: [self setNumberOfGirlfriends:10]; } } @end So what's a Objective-C newcomer to do? Well, I mean, there's only one thing I can do, and that's set the property. Unless there's something I'm missing. Any ideas, suggestions, tips, or tricks? Sidenote: The other thing that bugs me about setting the ivar directly — and what a lot of ivar-proponents say is a "plus" — is that there are no KVC notifications. A lot of times, I want the KVC magic to happen. 50% of my setters end in [self setNeedsDisplay:YES], so without the notification, my UI doesn't update unless I remember to manually add -setNeedsDisplay. That's a bad example, but the point stands. I utilize KVC all over the place, so without notifications, things can act wonky. Anyway, any info is much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • How do I delete a [sub]hash based off of the keys/values of another hash?

    - by Zack
    Lets assume I have two hashes. One of them contains a set of data that only needs to keep things that show up in the other hash. e.g. my %hash1 = ( test1 => { inner1 => { more => "alpha", evenmore => "beta" } }, test2 => { inner2 => { more => "charlie", somethingelse => "delta" } }, test3 => { inner9999 => { ohlookmore => "golf", somethingelse => "foxtrot" } } ); my %hash2 = ( major=> { test2 => "inner2", test3 => "inner3" } ); What I would like to do, is to delete the whole subhash in hash1 if it does not exist as a key/value in hash2{major}, preferably without modules. The information contained in "innerX" does not matter, it merely must be left alone (unless the subhash is to be deleted then it can go away). In the example above after this operation is preformed hash1 would look like: my %hash1 = ( test2 => { inner2 => { more => "charlie", somethingelse => "delta" } }, ); It deletes hash1{test1} and hash1{test3} because they don't match anything in hash2. Here's what I've currently tried, but it doesn't work. Nor is it probably the safest thing to do since I'm looping over the hash while trying to delete from it. However I'm deleting at the each which should be okay? This was my attempt at doing this, however perl complains about: Can't use string ("inner1") as a HASH ref while "strict refs" in use at while(my ($test, $inner) = each %hash1) { if(exists $hash2{major}{$test}{$inner}) { print "$test($inner) is in exists.\n"; } else { print "Looks like $test($inner) does not exist, REMOVING.\n"; #not to sure if $inner is needed to remove the whole entry delete ($hash1{$test}{$inner}); } }

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