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• Looking for advice on importing large dataset in sqlite and Cocoa/Objective-C

  - by jluckyiv

  I have a fairly large hierarchical dataset I'm importing. The total size of the database after import is about 270MB in sqlite. My current method works, but I know I'm hogging memory as I do it. For instance, if I run with Zombies, my system freezes up (although it will execute just fine if I don't use that Instrument). I was hoping for some algorithm advice. I have three hierarchical tables comprising about 400,000 records. The highest level has about 30 records, the next has about 20,000, the last has the balance. Right now, I'm using nested for loops to import. I know I'm creating an unreasonably large object graph, but I'm also looking to serialize to JSON or XML because I want to break up the records into downloadable chunks for the end user to import a la carte. I have the code written to do the serialization, but I'm wondering if I can serialize the object graph if I only have pieces in memory. Here's pseudocode showing the basic process for sqlite import. I left out the unnecessary detail. [database open]; [database beginTransaction]; NSArray *firstLevels = [[FirstLevel fetchFromURL:url retain]; for (FirstLevel *firstLevel in firstLevels) { [firstLevel save]; int id1 = [firstLevel primaryKey]; NSArray *secondLevels = [[SecondLevel fetchFromURL:url] retain]; for (SecondLevel *secondLevel in secondLevels) { [secondLevel saveWithForeignKey:id1]; int id2 = [secondLevel primaryKey]; NSArray *thirdLevels = [[ThirdLevel fetchFromURL:url] retain]; for (ThirdLevel *thirdLevel in thirdLevels) { [thirdLevel saveWithForeignKey:id2]; } [database commit]; [database beginTransaction]; [thirdLevels release]; } [secondLevels release]; } [database commit]; [database release]; [firstLevels release];

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• Linq-to-SQL: How to shape the data with group by?

  - by Cheeso

  I have an example database, it contains tables for Movies, People and Credits. The Movie table contains a Title and an Id. The People table contains a Name and an Id. The Credits table relates Movies to the People that worked on those Movies, in a particular role. The table looks like this: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Credits] ( [Id] [int] IDENTITY (1, 1) NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, [PersonId] [int] NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES People(Id), [MovieId] [int] NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES Movies(Id), [Role] [char] (1) NULL In this simple example, the [Role] column is a single character, by my convention either 'A' to indicate the person was an actor on that particular movie, or 'D' for director. I'd like to perform a query on a particular person that returns the person's name, plus a list of all the movies the person has worked on, and the roles in those movies. If I were to serialize it to json, it might look like this: { "name" : "Clint Eastwood", "movies" : [ { "title": "Unforgiven", "roles": ["actor", "director"] }, { "title": "Sands of Iwo Jima", "roles": ["director"] }, { "title": "Dirty Harry", "roles": ["actor"] }, ... ] } How can I write a LINQ-to-SQL query that shapes the output like that? I'm having trouble doing it efficiently. if I use this query: int personId = 10007; var persons = from p in db.People where p.Id == personId select new { name = p.Name, movies = (from m in db.Movies join c in db.Credits on m.Id equals c.MovieId where (c.PersonId == personId) select new { title = m.Title, role = (c.Role=="D"?"director":"actor") }) }; I get something like this: { "name" : "Clint Eastwood", "movies" : [ { "title": "Unforgiven", "role": "actor" }, { "title": "Unforgiven", "role": "director" }, { "title": "Sands of Iwo Jima", "role": "director" }, { "title": "Dirty Harry", "role": "actor" }, ... ] } ...but as you can see there's a duplicate of each movie for which Eastwood played multiple roles. How can I shape the output the way I want?

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• mySQL Efficiency Issue - How to find the right balance of normalization...?

  - by Foo

  I'm fairly new to working with relational databases, but have read a few books and know the basics of good design. I'm facing a design decision, and I'm not sure how to continue. Here's a very over simplified version of what I'm building: People can rate photos 1-5, and I need to display the average votes on the picture while keeping track of the individual votes. For example, 12 people voted 1, 7 people voted 2, etc. etc. The normalization freak of me initially designed the table structure like this: Table pictures id* | picture | userID | Table ratings id* | pictureID | userID | rating With all the foreign key constraints and everything set as they shoudl be. Every time someone rates a picture, I just insert a new record into ratings and be done with it. To find the average rating of a picture, I'd just run something like this: SELECT AVG(rating) FROM ratings WHERE pictureID = '5' GROUP by pictureID Having it setup this way lets me run my fancy statistics to. I can easily find who rated a certain picture a 3, and what not. Now I'm thinking if there's a crapload of ratings (which is very possible in what I'm really designing), finding the average will became very expensive and painful. Using a non-normalized version would seem to be more efficient. e.g.: Table picture id | picture | userID | ratingOne | ratingTwo | ratingThree | ratingFour | ratingFive To calculate the average, I'd just have to select a single row. It seems so much more efficient, but so much more uglier. Can someone point me in the right direction of what to do? My initial research shows that I have to "find the right balance", but how do I go about finding that balance? Any articles or additional reading information would be appreciated as well. Thanks.

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• Controls added in the designer are null during Page_Load

  - by mwright

  All of the names below are generic and not the actual names used. I have a custom UserControl with a Panel that contains a a couple Labels, both .aspx controls. .aspx: <asp:Panel runat="server"> <asp:Label ID="label1" runat="server"> </asp:Label> </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel runat="server"> <asp:Label ID="label2" runat="server"> </asp:Label> </asp:Panel> Codebehind: private readonly Object object; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // These are the lines that are failing // label1 and label2 are null label1.Text = object.Value1; label2.Text = object.Value2; } public ObjectRow(Object objectToDisplay) { object = objectToDisplay; } On another page, in the code behind, I create a new instance of the custom user control. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { CustomControl control = new CustomControl(object); } The user control takes the parameter and attempts to set the labels based off of the object passed in. The labels that it tries to assign the values to are however, null. Is this an ASP.net lifecycle issue that I'm not understanding? My understanding based on the Microsoft ASP.net lifecycle page was that page controls were available after the Page_Initialization. What is the proper way to do this? Is there a better way?

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• Test multiple domains using ASP.NET development server

  - by Pete Lunenfeld

  I am developing a single web application that will dynamically change its content depending on which domain name is used to reach the site. Multiple domains will point to the same application. I wish to use the following code (or something close) to detect the domain name and perform the customizations: string theDomainName = Request.Url.Host; switch (theDomainName) { case "www.clientone.com": // do stuff break; case "www.clienttwo.com": // do other stuff break; } I would like to test the functionality of the above using the ASP.NET development server. I created mappings in the local HOSTS file to map www.clientone.com to 127.0.0.1, and www.clienttwo.com to 127.0.0.1. I then browse to the application with the browser using www.clinetone.com (etc). When I try to test this code using the ASP.net development server the URL always says localhost. It does NOT capture the host entered in the browser, only localhost. Is there a way to test the URL detection functionality using the development server? Thanks.

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• Applets failing to load

  - by Roy Tang

  While testing our setup for user acceptance testing, we got some reports that java applets in our web application would occasionally fail to load. The envt where it was reported was WinXP/IE6, and there were no errors found in the java console. Obviously we'd like to avoid it. What sort of things should we be checking for here? On our local servers, everything seems fine. There's some turnaround time when sending questions to the on-site guy, so I'd look to cover as many possible causes as possible. Some more info: We have multiple applets, in the instance that they fail loading, all of them fail loading. The applet jar files vary in size from 2MB to 8MB. I'm told it seems more likely to happen if the applet isn't cached yet, i.e. if they've been able to load the applets once on a given machine, further runs on that machine go smoothly. I'm wondering if there's some sort of network transfer error when downloading the applets, but I don't know how to verify that. Any advise is welcome!

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• How to deserialize an element as an XmlNode?

  - by mackenir

  When using Xml serialization in C#, I want to deserialize a part of my input XML to an XmlNode. So, given this XML: <Thing Name="George"> <Document> <subnode1/> <subnode2/> </Document> </Thing> I want to deserialize the Document element to an XmlNode. Below is my attempt which given the XML above, sets Document to the 'subnode1' element rather than the 'Document' element. How would I get the code to set the Document property to the Document element? using System; using System.IO; using System.Xml; using System.Xml.Serialization; [Serializable] public class Thing { [XmlAttribute] public string Name {get;set;} public XmlNode Document { get; set; } } class Program { static void Main() { const string xml = @" <Thing Name=""George""> <Document> <subnode1/> <subnode2/> </Document> </Thing>"; var s = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Thing)); var thing = s.Deserialize(new StringReader(xml)) as Thing; } } However, when I use an XmlSerializer to deserialize the XML above to an instance of Thing, the Document property contains the child element 'subnode1', rather than the 'doc' element. How can I get the XmlSerializer to set Document to an XmlNode containing the 'doc' element.

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• What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

  - by David M

  Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

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• Question about the Cloneable interface and the exception that should be thrown

  - by Nazgulled

  Hi, The Java documentation says: A class implements the Cloneable interface to indicate to the Object.clone() method that it is legal for that method to make a field-for-field copy of instances of that class. Invoking Object's clone method on an instance that does not implement the Cloneable interface results in the exception CloneNotSupportedException being thrown. By convention, classes that implement this interface should override Object.clone (which is protected) with a public method. See Object.clone() for details on overriding this method. Note that this interface does not contain the clone method. Therefore, it is not possible to clone an object merely by virtue of the fact that it implements this interface. Even if the clone method is invoked reflectively, there is no guarantee that it will succeed. And I have this UserProfile class: public class UserProfile implements Cloneable { private String name; private int ssn; private String address; public UserProfile(String name, int ssn, String address) { this.name = name; this.ssn = ssn; this.address = address; } public UserProfile(UserProfile user) { this.name = user.getName(); this.ssn = user.getSSN(); this.address = user.getAddress(); } // get methods here... @Override public UserProfile clone() { return new UserProfile(this); } } And for testing porpuses, I do this in main(): UserProfile up1 = new UserProfile("User", 123, "Street"); UserProfile up2 = up1.clone(); So far, no problems compiling/running. Now, per my understanding of the documentation, removing implements Cloneable from the UserProfile class should throw an exception in up1.clone() call, but it doesn't. I've read around here that the Cloneable interface is broken but I don't really know what that means. Am I missing something?

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• why i dont get the check nvalue in check box?

  - by udaya

  Hi I have a check box when check that check box the id corresponding to the check box is placed on a text box ... but when there is only single value in the database i cant get the check value why? here is my code <? if(isset($AcceptFriend)) {?> <form action="<?=site_url()?>friends/Accept_Friend" name="orderform" id="orderform" method="post" style="background:#CCCC99"> <input type="text" name="chId" id="chId" > <table border="0" height="50%" id="chkbox" width="50%" > <tr> <? foreach($AcceptFriend as $row) {?> <tr> <td>Name</td><td><?=$row['dFrindName'].'</br>';?></td> <td> <input type="checkbox" name="checkId" id="checkId" value="<? echo $row['dMemberId']; ?>" onClick="get_check_value()" ></td> </tr> <? }}?> </tr> <tr> <td width="10px"><input type="submit" name="submit" id="submit" class="buttn" value="AcceptFriend"></td></tr> </table> </form> This is the script i am using function get_check_value() { var c_value = ""; for (var i=0; i < document.orderform.checkId.length; i++) { if (document.orderform.checkId[i].checked) { c_value = c_value + document.orderform.checkId[i].value + "\n"; } } alert(c_value); document.getElementById('chId').value= c_value; }

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• PHPUnit - multiple stubs of same class

  - by keithjgrant

  I'm building unit tests for class Foo, and I'm fairly new to unit testing. A key component of my class is an instance of BarCollection which contains a number of Bar objects. One method in Foo iterates through the collection and calls a couple methods on each Bar object in the collection. I want to use stub objects to generate a series of responses for my test class. How do I make the Bar stub class return different values as I iterate? I'm trying to do something along these lines: $stubs = array(); foreach ($array as $value) { $barStub->expects($this->any()) ->method('GetValue')) ->will($this->returnValue($value)); $stubs[] = $barStub; } // populate stubs into `Foo` // assert results from `Foo->someMethod()` So Foo->someMethod() will produce data based on the results it receives from the Bar objects. But this gives me the following error whenever the array is longer than one: There was 1 failure: 1) testMyTest(FooTest) with data set #2 (array(0.5, 0.5)) Expectation failed for method name is equal to <string:GetValue> when invoked zero or more times. Mocked method does not exist. /usr/share/php/PHPUnit/Framework/MockObject/Mock.php(193) : eval()'d code:25 One thought I had was to use ->will($this->returnCallback()) to invoke a callback method, but I don't know how to indicate to the callback which Bar object is making the call (and consequently what response to give). Another idea is to use the onConsecutiveCalls() method, or something like it, to tell my stub to return 1 the first time, 2 the second time, etc, but I'm not sure exactly how to do this. I'm also concerned that if my class ever does anything other than ordered iteration on the collection, I won't have a way to test it.

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• preg_match_all and newlines inside quotes

  - by David

  Another noob regex problem/question. I'm probably doing something silly so I thought I'd exploit the general ingenuity of the SO regulars ;) Trying to match newlines but only if they occur within either double quotes or single quotes. I also want to catch strings that are between quotes but contain no newlines. Okay so there's what i got, with output. Below that, will be the output I would like to get. Any help would be greatly appreciated! :) I use Regex Coach to help me create my patterns, being a novice and all. According to RC, The pattern I supply does match all occurances within the data, but in my PHP, it skips over the multi-line part. I have tried with the 'm' pattern modifier already, to no avail. Contents of $CompressedData: <?php $Var = "test"; $Var2 = "test2"; $Var3 = "blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah"; $Var4 = "hello"; ?> Pattern / Code: preg_match_all('!(\'|")(\b.*\b\n*)*(\'|")!', $CompressedData, $Matches); Current print_r output of $Matches: Array ( [0] => Array ( [0] => "test" [1] => "test2" [2] => "hello" ) ... } DESIRED print_r output of $Matches: Array ( [0] => Array ( [0] => "test" [1] => "test2" [2] => "blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah blah" [3] => "hello" ) ... }

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• Can someone copyright an SQL query?

  - by Samutz

  I work for a school district. Every year we have to export a list of students from our student management system and send it to a company that handles our online exams. So to do this export, we had to hire someone who knew the inner workings of our student management system. He wrote an sql (Adaptive Sybase SQL Anywhere) query to export the students to a csv file like we needed. This was before I started working for the district, so for a while I assumed this was an actually application, until it came time for me to do the export myself. And every year he charges us $500 to update this query to export the students for the current year. So when I discovered it was only a query (.bat file and .sql file), my thought was "I can update this myself". All I have to do is change the years in the query (eg. 2009 to 2010). The query (.sql file) itself has this comment at the top: // This code was writtend by [the guy] // and is the property of [his company]...Copyright 2005,2006,2008,2009 // This code MAY NOT BE USED without the expressed written consent of // [his company]. (Yes, it really does says "writtend".) So now my boss is worried that we're violating the copyright. And that the guy is gonna find out that I updated the query myself because we haven't asked him to update it this year and take legal action. So back to the subject's question: Can he really copyright this query? And if so, is modifying it ourselves a copyright violation? In my mind, a single query isn't program code. It's more a command line command. But I don't know what it's considered legally.

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• Reading email address from contacts fails with weird memory issue

  - by CapsicumDreams

  Hi all, I'm stumped. I'm trying to get a list of all the email address a person has. I'm using the ABPeoplePickerNavigationController to select the person, which all seems fine. I'm setting my ABRecordRef personDealingWith; from the person argument to - (BOOL)peoplePickerNavigationController:(ABPeoplePickerNavigationController *)peoplePicker shouldContinueAfterSelectingPerson:(ABRecordRef)person property:(ABPropertyID)property identifier:(ABMultiValueIdentifier)identifier { and everything seems fine up till this point. The first time the following code executes, all is well. When subsequently run, I can get issues. First, the code: // following line seems to make the difference (issue 1) // NSLog(@"%d", ABMultiValueGetCount(ABRecordCopyValue(personDealingWith, kABPersonEmailProperty))); // construct array of emails ABMultiValueRef multi = ABRecordCopyValue(personDealingWith, kABPersonEmailProperty); CFIndex emailCount = ABMultiValueGetCount(multi); if (emailCount 0) { // collect all emails in array for (CFIndex i = 0; i < emailCount; i++) { CFStringRef emailRef = ABMultiValueCopyValueAtIndex(multi, i); [emailArray addObject:(NSString *)emailRef]; CFRelease(emailRef); } } // following line also matters (issue 2) CFRelease(multi); If compiled as written, the are no errors or static analysis problems. This crashes with a *** -[Not A Type retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x4e9dc60 error. But wait, there's more! I can fix it in either of two ways. Firstly, I can uncomment the NSLog at the top of the function. I get a leak from the NSLog's ABRecordCopyValue every time through, but the code seems to run fine. Also, I can comment out the CFRelease(multi); at the end, which does exactly the same thing. Static compilation errors, but running code. So without a leak, this function crashes. To prevent a crash, I need to haemorrhage memory. Neither is a great solution. Can anyone point out what's going on?

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• How can I display an ASP.NET MVC html part from one application in another

  - by Frank Sessions

  We have several asp.net MVC apps in the following setup SecurityApp (root application - handles forms auth for SSO and has a profile edit page) Application1 (virtual directory) Application2 (virtual directory) Application3 (virtual directory) so that domain.com points to SecurityApp and domain.com/Application1 etc point to their associated virtual directories. All of our Single Sign On (SSO) is working properly using forms authentication. Based on the users permissions when logging in a menu that lists their available applications and a logout link will be generated and saved in the cache - this menu displays fine whenever the user is in the SecurityApp (editing their profile) but we cannot figure out how to get the Applications in the virtual directories to display the same application menu. We have tried: 1) Using JSONP to do an request that will return the html for the menu. The ajax call returns the HTML with the html; however, because User.IsAuthenticated is false the menu comes back empty. 2) We created a user control and include it along with the dll's for the SecurityApp project and this works; however, we dont want to have to include all the dlls for the SecurityApp project in every application that we create (along with all the app settings in the web.config) We would like this to be as simple as possible to implement so that anyone creating a new app can add the menu to their application in as few steps as possible... Any ideas? To Clarify - we are using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 since these apps are in production and we do not have the okay to go to ASP.NET MVC 2.0 (unfortunately)

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• Is there a PHP benchmark that meets these specific criteria? [closed]

  - by Alex R

  I'm working on a tool which converts PHP code to Scala. As one of the finishing touches, I'm in need of a really good (er, somewhat biased) benchmark. By dumb luck my first benchmark attempt was with some code which uses bcmath extensively, which unfortunately is 1000x slower in Java, making the Scala code 22x slower overall than the original PHP. So I'm looking for some meaningful PHP benchmark with the following characteristics: The PHP source needs to be in a single file. It should solve a real-world problem. No silly looping over empty methods etc. I need it to be simple to setup - no databases, hard-to-find input files, etc. Simple text input and output preferred. It should not use features that are slow in Java (BigInteger, trigonometric functions, etc). It should not use exoteric or dynamic PHP functions (e.g. no "eval" or "variable vars"). It should not over-rely on built-in libraries, e.g. MD5, crypt, etc. It should not be I/O bound. A CPU-bound memory-hungry algorithm is preferred. Basically, intensive OO operations, integer and string manipulation, recursion, etc would be great. Thanks

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• Help needed in grokking password hashes and salts

  - by javafueled

  I've read a number of SO questions on this topic, but grokking the applied practice of storing a salted hash of a password eludes me. Let's start with some ground rules: a password, "foobar12" (we are not discussing the strength of the password). a language, Java 1.6 for this discussion a database, postgreSQL, MySQL, SQL Server, Oracle Several options are available to storing the password, but I want to think about one (1): Store the password hashed with random salt in the DB, one column Found on SO and elsewhere is the automatic fail of plaintext, MD5/SHA1, and dual-columns. The latter have pros and cons MD5/SHA1 is simple. MessageDigest in Java provides MD5, SHA1 (through SHA512 in modern implementations, certainly 1.6). Additionally, most RDBMSs listed provide methods for MD5 encryption functions on inserts, updates, etc. The problems become evident once one groks "rainbow tables" and MD5 collisions (and I've grokked these concepts). Dual-column solutions rest on the idea that the salt does not need to be secret (grok it). However, a second column introduces a complexity that might not be a luxury if you have a legacy system with one (1) column for the password and the cost of updating the table and the code could be too high. But it is storing the password hashed with a random salt in single DB column that I need to understand better, with practical application. I like this solution for a couple of reasons: a salt is expected and considers legacy boundaries. Here's where I get lost: if the salt is random and hashed with the password, how can the system ever match the password? I have theory on this, and as I type I might be grokking the concept: Given a random salt of 128 bytes and a password of 8 bytes ('foobar12'), it could be programmatically possible to remove the part of the hash that was the salt, by hashing a random 128 byte salt and getting the substring of the original hash that is the hashed password. Then re hashing to match using the hash algorithm...??? So... any takers on helping. :) Am I close?

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• Switch between multiple views while respecting orientation

  - by zoul

  Hello! I have an MVC application with a single model and several views (something like skins). I want the user to be able to switch the views and I can’t get it working with interface orientation. The most simple approach looks like this: - (void) switchToADifferentView: (UIView*) newView { // self is a descendant of UIViewController self.view = newView; } This does not work because the incoming view does not get rotated according to current orientation (until the next orientation change, test case). Is there a way to force the orientation on a view? It looks like the system is trying really hard to keep the interface controls for itself. (Or is it as simple as setting the right transform by hand?) I figured I’d better not switch the views directly and switch controllers instead. This makes sense, as it makes the initial code simpler. But how do I switch controllers that have no “navigation relation” between them? I guess I could use presentModalViewController:, but that seems like a hack. Same goes for navigation controller. If I exchange the controllers by hand, I get the wrong orientation again: - (void) switchToAController: (id) incoming { [currentController.view removeFromSuperview]; [window addSubview:incoming.view]; // does not respect current orientation } Now how the heck do I simply exchange the current controller for another one? Again, the controllers are something like “skins” operating above a shared model, so it really makes no sense to pretend that skin A is a “modal” dialog above skin B or that they’re a part of a navigation stack.

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• Java - Custom PropertyEditorSupport to display units

  - by I82Much

  All, I'm trying to make the properties of my node have Units associated with the measure. ( I am using the JScience.org implementation of JSR 275) So for instance, public class Robot extends AbstractNode { // in kg float vehicleMass; @Override public Sheet createSheet() { Sheet s = Sheet.createDefault(); Sheet.Set set = s.createPropertiesSet(); try { PropertySupport.Reflection vehicleMassField = new PropertySupport.Reflection(this, float.class, "vehicleMass"); vehicleMassField.setValue("units", SI.KILOGRAMS); vehicleMassField.setName("vehicleMass"); set.put(vehicleMassField); PropertyEditorManager.registerEditor(float.class, UnitInPlaceEditor.class); } catch (NoSuchMethodException ex) { Exceptions.printStackTrace(ex); } s.put(set); return s; } } I want my UnitInPlaceEditor to append the units to the end of the string representation of the number, and when the field is clicked (enters edit mode) for the units to disappear and just the number becomes selected for editing. I can make the units appear, but I cannot get the units to disappear when the field enters editing mode. public class UnitsInplaceEditor extends PropertyEditorSupport implements ExPropertyEditor { private PropertyEnv pe; @Override public String getAsText() { // Append the unit by retrieving the stored value } @Override public void setAsText(String s) { // strip off the unit, parse out the number } public void attachEnv(PropertyEnv pe) { this.pe = pe; } } Here's a screenshot of the display - I like it like this.. but here's the value being edited; note the unit stays there. Basically I want one value (string) to be displayed in the field when the field is NOT being edited, and a different to be displayed when user starts editing the field. Barring that, I'd like to put a constant jlabel for the units (uneditable) to the right of the text field. Anyone know how to do this?

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• Can I combine two functions into one using Javascript?

  - by Melissa

  I have the following code that I would like to simplify. With javascript and jQuery is there an easy way that I could combine these two functions? Most of the code is the same but I am not sure how I could create a single function that works differently depending on what is clicked. $(document).ready(function () { $('#ListBooks').click(ListBooks); $('#Create').click(Create); }); function Create() { var dataSourceID = $('#DataSourceID').val(); var subjectID = $('#SubjectID').val(); var contentID = $('#ContentID').val(); if (dataSourceID && dataSourceID != '00' && subjectID && subjectID != "00" && contentID && contentID != "00") { var e = encodeURIComponent, arr = ["dataSourceID=" + e(dataSourceID), "subjectID=" + e(subjectID), "contentID=" + e(contentID)]; window.location.href = '/Administration/Books/Create?' + arr.join("&"); } else { alert('Datasource, Subject and Content must be selected.'); } return false; } function ListBooks() { var dataSourceID = $('#DataSourceID').val(); var subjectID = $('#SubjectID').val(); var contentID = $('#ContentID').val(); if (dataSourceID && dataSourceID != '00' && subjectID && subjectID != "00" && contentID && contentID != "00") { var e = encodeURIComponent, arr = ["dataSourceID=" + e(dataSourceID), "subjectID=" + e(subjectID), "contentID=" + e(contentID)]; window.location.href = '/Administration/Books/ListBooks?' + arr.join("&"); } else { alert('Datasource, Subject and Content must be selected.'); } return false; }

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• CreateDelegate with unknown types

  - by Giorgi

  Hello, I am trying to create Delegate for reading/writing properties of unknown type of class at runtime. I have a generic class Main<T> and a method which looks like this: Delegate.CreateDelegate(typeof(Func<T, object>), get) where get is a MethodInfo of the property that should be read. The problem is that when the property returns int (I guess this happens for value types) the above code throws ArgumentException because the method cannot be bound. In case of string it works well. To solve the problem I changed the code so that corresponding Delegate type is generated by using MakeGenericType. So now the code is: Type func = typeof(Func<,>); Type generic = func.MakeGenericType(typeof(T), get.ReturnType); var result = Delegate.CreateDelegate(generic, get) The problem now is that the created delegate instance of generic so I have to use DynamicInvoke which would be as slow as using pure reflection to read the field. So my question is why is that the first snippet of code fails with value types. According to MSDN it should work as it says that The return type of a delegate is compatible with the return type of a method if the return type of the method is more restrictive than the return type of the delegate and how to execute the delegate in the second snippet so that it is faster than reflection. Thanks.

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• IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

  - by Lukasz Korzybski

  I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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• Moving to .net 4 results in System.Transactions Critical: 0

  - by john

  Hi I have fully working project in .net 3.5SP1, with EF 1 ORM. I tried to upgrade to .net 4. No issue while upgrading... Then i ran the project and got a NullExecptionError, with no stack trace... and no way to debug. Looking at the output windows i can read this: System.Transactions Critical: 0 : <TraceRecord xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/2004/10/E2ETraceEvent/TraceRecord" Severity="Critical"><TraceIdentifier>http://msdn.microsoft.com/TraceCodes/System/ActivityTracing/2004/07/Reliability/Exception/Unhandled</TraceIdentifier><Description>Unhandled exception</Description><AppDomain>OTCSouscriptions.vshost.exe</AppDomain><Exception><ExceptionType>System.NullReferenceException, mscorlib, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089</ExceptionType><Message>Object reference not set to an instance of an object.</Message><StackTrace> at System.Windows.StyleHelper.GetInstanceValue(UncommonField`1 dataField, DependencyObject container, FrameworkElement feChild, FrameworkContentElement fceChild, Int32 childIndex, DependencyProperty dp, Int32 i, EffectiveValueEntry&amp;amp; entry) at System.Windows.FrameworkTemplate.ReceivePropertySet(Object targetObject, XamlMember member, Object value, DependencyObject templatedParent) at System.Windows.FrameworkTemplate.&amp;lt;&amp;gt;c__DisplayClass6.&amp;lt;LoadOptimizedTemplateContent&amp;gt;b__4(Object sender, XamlSetValueEventArgs setArgs) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.OnSetValue(Object eventSender, XamlMember member, Object value) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.Logic_ApplyPropertyValue(ObjectWriterContext ctx, XamlMember prop, Object value, Boolean onParent) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.Logic_DoAssignmentToParentProperty(ObjectWriterContext ctx) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.Logic_AssignProvidedValue(ObjectWriterContext ctx) at System.Xaml.XamlObjectWriter.WriteEndObject() at System.Xaml.XamlWriter.WriteNode(XamlReader reader) at System.Windows.FrameworkTemplate.LoadTemplateXaml(XamlReader templateReader, XamlObjectWriter currentWriter) Any help appreciated... Thanks John

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• Java Arrays.equals() returns false for two dimensional arrays.

  - by Achilles

  Hi there, I was just curious to know - why does Arrays.equals(double[][], double[][]) return false? when in fact the arrays have the same number of elements and each element is the same? For example I performed the following test. ` [java] double[][] a, b; int size =5; a=new double[size][size]; b=new double[size][size]; for( int i = 0; i < size; i++ ) for( int j = 0; j < size; j++ ){ a[i][j]=1.0; b[i][j]=1.0; } if(Arrays.equals(a, b)) System.out.println("Equal"); else System.out.println("Not-equal"); [/java] ` Returns false and prints "Not-equal. on the other hand, if I have something like this: [java] double[] a, b; int size =5; a=new double[size]; b=new double[size]; for( int i = 0; i < size; i++ ){ a[i]=1.0; b[i]=1.0; } if(Arrays.equals(a, b)) System.out.println("Equal"); else System.out.println("Not-equal"); } [/java] returns true and prints "Equal". Does the method only work with single dimensions? if so, is there something similar for multi-dimensional arrays in Java?

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• Error using Session in IIS7

  - by flashnik

  After deployment of my website to IIS I'm getting a following error message when trying to access session: Session state can only be used when enableSessionState is set to true, either in a configuration file or in the Page directive. Please also make sure that System.Web.SessionStateModule or a custom session state module is included in the \\ section in the application configuration. I access it in Page_Load or PreRender events (I tried both versions). With VS Dev Server it works without a problem. I tried both InProc an SessionState storage, 1 and multiple woker processes. I added a enableSessionState = "true" to my webpage explicitly. Here is part of web.config: <system.web> <globalization culture="ru-RU" uiCulture="ru-RU" /> <compilation debug="true" defaultLanguage="c#"> <assemblies> <add assembly="System.Core, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089" /> <add assembly="System.Data.DataSetExtensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089" /> <add assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add assembly="System.Xml.Linq, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089" /> <add assembly="System.Web.Extensions.Design, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add assembly="System.Design, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B03F5F7F11D50A3A" /> <add assembly="System.Windows.Forms, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089" /> </assemblies> </compilation> <pages enableEventValidation="false" enableSessionState="true"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI.WebControls" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> </controls> </pages> <httpHandlers> <remove verb="*" path="*.asmx" /> <add verb="*" path="*.asmx" validate="false" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add verb="*" path="*_AppService.axd" validate="false" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" validate="false" /> </httpHandlers> <httpModules> <add name="ScriptModule" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptModule, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="SearchUrlRewriter" type="Synonymizer.SearchUrlRewriter, Synonymizer, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral" /> <add name="Session" type="System.Web.SessionStateModule" /> </httpModules> <sessionState cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName="My_SessionId" mode="InProc" stateNetworkTimeout="5" /> <customErrors mode="Off" /> </system.web> What else do I need to do to make it work?? UPD I tried to monitor if IIS accesses aspnet_client folder with ProcMon and didn't get any access.

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