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  • RetinaJS and LESS : Background image doesn't show on iOS

    - by jidma
    I am trying to make a background image into a retina image using LESS CSS and RetinaJs: in my index.html file : <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width, initial-scale=1.0, user-scalable=0, minimum-scale=1.0, maximum-scale=1.0"> <meta name="apple-mobile-web-app-capable" content="yes"> <meta name="apple-mobile-web-app-status-bar-style" content="black"> [...] <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet/less" href="resources/css/retina.less"> <script type="text/javascript" src="resources/js/less-1.3.0.minjs" ></script> [...] </head> <body> [...] <script type="text/javascript" src="resources/js/retina.js"></script> </body> </html> in my retina.less file: .at2x(@path, @w: auto, @h: auto) { background-image: url("@{path}"); @at2x_path: ~`"@{path}".split('.').slice(0, "@{path}".split('.').length - 1).join(".") + "@2x" + "." + "@{path}".split('.')["@{path}".split('.').length - 1]`; @media all and (-webkit-min-device-pixel-ratio : 1.5) { background-image: url("@{at2x_path}"); background-size: @w @h; } } .topMenu { .at2x('../../resources/img/topMenuTitle.png'); } I have both topMenuTitle.png (320px x 40px) and [email protected] (640px x 80px) in the same folder. When test this code: In Firefox i have the normal Background In the XCode iPhone simulator I also have the normal Background In the iPhone device, I don't have any background at all. I'm using GWT if that matters. Any suggestions ? Thanks.

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  • Is it possible to spoof or reuse VIEWSTATE or detect if it is protected from modification?

    - by Peter Jaric
    Question ASP and ASP.NET web applications use a value called VIEWSTATE in forms. From what I understand, this is used to persist some kind of state on the client between requests to the web server. I have never worked with ASP or ASP.NET and need some help with two questions (and some sub-questions): 1) Is it possible to programmatically spoof/construct a VIEWSTATE for a form? Clarification: can a program look at a form and from that construct the contents of the base64-encoded VIEWSTATE value? 1 a) Or can it always just be left out? 1 b) Can an old VIEWSTATE for a particular form be reused in a later invocation of the same form, or would it just be luck if that worked? 2) I gather from http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms972976.aspx#viewstate_topic12 that it is possible to turn on security so that the VIEWSTATE becomes secure from spoofing. Is it possible for a program to detect that a VIEWSTATE is safeguarded in such a way? 2 a) Is there a one-to-one mapping between the occurrence of EVENTVALIDATION values and secure VIEWSTATEs? Regarding 1) and 2), if yes, can I have a hint about how I would do that? For 2) I am thinking I could base64-decode the value and search for a string that always is found in unencrypted VIEWSTATEs. "First:"? Something else? Background I have made a small tool for detecting and exploiting so called CSRF vulnerabilities. I use it to quickly make proof of concepts of such vulnerabilities that I send to the affected site owners. Quite often I encounter these forms with a VIEWSTATE, and these I don't know if they are secure or not. Edit 1: Clarified question 1 somewhat. Edit 2: Added text in italics.

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  • Sync two SqlExpress using NHibernate

    - by Christian
    Hello, I am creating a simple project management system which uses NHibernate for object storage. The underlying database is SQL express (at least currently for development). The client runs on either the desktop or laptop. I know I could use web-services and store the DB only on the desktop, but this would force the desktop to be available all the time. I am currently thinking about duplicating the DB, having two instances with "different data". To clarify, we are not talking about a productive app here, its a prototype. One way to achieve this very simple would be the following process: Client: Check if desktop DB is available (through web service) Client: If yes, use desktop storage, no problem here Client: If not, use own DB as storage Client: Poll desktop regulary, as soon as it comes on, sync Client: Switch to desktop storage ... Desktop: Do not attempt any DB operation before checking for required sync Desktop: If sync needed, do it... My question is now, how would you sync? Assume 4 or 5 types of objects, all have GUID as identifiers. Would you always manually "lazy load" all objects of a certain type and feed them to the DB. Would you always drop the whole desktop DB in case the client DB may be newer and out of sync? Again, I want to stress out, I am not assuming any conflicts or stale data, I basically just want to "copy the whole DB from the client". Would you use NHibernate for this? Or would you separate the copy process? When I think about it, my questions comes down to this: Is there any function from NHibernate: SyncDBs_SourceWins_(SourceDB, TargetDB) Thanks for help, Chris

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  • Variable not implementing correctly from if statement

    - by swiftsly
    I have an if statement that is supposed to set the variable $pc162v to a link specified in the MySQL table if content exists in the $vid column of the row. The problem is, the PHP is detecting that there's a link in the MySQL, but isn't setting the $pc162v variable correctly. Here's the variable declarations: $pc162v = ""; $vid162 = '<embed width="420" height="236" src="'.$pc162v.'" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"></embed>'; Here's the section of the if statement: if (empty($row[7])) { $vid162 = ''; } else { $pc162v = $row[7]; } In my web browsers, the part of the code where the variable $vid162 is used, shows up as the following: <embed width="420" height="236" src="" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"> I have also tried setting $vid162 to: <embed width="420" height="236" src="<?php echo $pc162v; ?>" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"></embed> and that just makes the code in my web browser: <embed width="420" height="236" src="<?php echo $pc162v; ?>" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"> Hope someone has a solution! Thanks in advance.

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  • Async task ASP.net HttpContext.Current.Items is empty - How do handle this?

    - by GuruC
    We are running a very large web application in asp.net MVC .NET 4.0. Recently we had an audit done and the performance team says that there were a lot of null reference exceptions. So I started investigating it from the dumps and event viewer. My understanding was as follows: We are using Asyn Tasks in our controllers. We rely on HttpContext.Current.Items hashtable to store a lot of Application level values. Task<Articles>.Factory.StartNew(() => { System.Web.HttpContext.Current = ControllerContext.HttpContext.ApplicationInstance.Context; var service = new ArticlesService(page); return service.GetArticles(); }).ContinueWith(t => SetResult(t, "articles")); So we are copying the context object onto the new thread that is spawned from Task factory. This context.Items is used again in the thread wherever necessary. Say for ex: public class SomeClass { internal static int StreamID { get { if (HttpContext.Current != null) { return (int)HttpContext.Current.Items["StreamID"]; } else { return DEFAULT_STREAM_ID; } } } This runs fine as long as number of parallel requests are optimal. My questions are as follows: 1. When the load is more and there are too many parallel requests, I notice that HttpContext.Current.Items is empty. I am not able to figure out a reason for this and this causes all the null reference exceptions. 2. How do we make sure it is not null ? Any workaround if present ? NOTE: I read through in StackOverflow and people have questions like HttpContext.Current is null - but in my case it is not null and its empty. I was reading one more article where the author says that sometimes request object is terminated and it may cause problems since dispose is already called on objects. I am doing a copy of Context object - its just a shallow copy and not a deep copy.

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  • ContentNegotiatingViewResolver Issue

    - by Jay
    How to map a url of this kind "/myapp/sample" to map to the default MarshallingView instead of a JSTLView. @RequestMapping("/vets") public ModelMap vetsHandler() { Vets vets = new Vets(); vets.getVetList().addAll(this.clinic.getVets()); return new ModelMap(vets); } The above code works fine. When i tried to use http://.../vets.xml, I was able to download the xml. But, @RequestMapping("/myapp/vets") public ModelMap vetsHandler() { Vets vets = new Vets(); vets.getVetList().addAll(this.clinic.getVets()); return new ModelMap(vets); } doesn't resolve to the XML MarshalView, instead it resolves to JSTLView. Any thoughts? below is the spring v 3 configuration from the petclinic example, that i'm using. <bean id="vets" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.xml.MarshallingView"> <property name="contentType" value="application/vnd.springsource.samples.petclinic+xml"/> <property name="marshaller" ref="marshaller"/> </bean> <bean id="test" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.xml.MarshallingView"> <property name="contentType" value="application/vnd.springsource.samples.petclinic+xml"/> <property name="marshaller" ref="marshaller"/> </bean> <oxm:jaxb2-marshaller id="marshaller"> <oxm:class-to-be-bound name="org.springframework.samples.petclinic.Vets"/> <oxm:class-to-be-bound name="org.springframework.samples.petclinic.Test1"/> </oxm:jaxb2-marshaller>

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  • Approaches for cross server content sharing?

    - by Anonymity
    I've currently been tasked with finding a best solution to serving up content on our new site from another one of our other sites. Several approaches suggested to me, that I've looked into include using SharePoint's Lists Web Service to grab the list through javascript - which results in XSS and is not an option. Another suggestion was to build a server side custom web service and use SharePoint Request Forms to get the information - this is something I've only very briefly looked at. It's been suggested that I try permitting the requesting site in the HTTP headers of the serving site since I have access to both. This ultimately resulted in a semi-working solution that had major security holes. (I had to include username/password in the request to appease AD Authentication). This was done by allowing Access-Control-Allow-Origin: * The most direct approach I could think of was to simply build in the webpart in our new environment to have the authors manually update this content the same as they would on the other site. Are any one of the suggestions here more valid than another? Which would be the best approach? Are there other suggestions I may be overlooking? I'm also not sure if WebCrawling or Content Scrapping really holds water here...

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  • Is the REST support in Spring 3's MVC Framework production quality yet?

    - by glenjohnson
    Hi all, Since Spring 3 was released in December last year, I have been trying out the new REST features in the MVC framework for a small commercial project involving implementing a few RESTful Web Services which consume XML and return XML views using JiBX. I plan to use either Hibernate or JDBC Templates for the data persistence. As a Spring 2.0 developer, I have found Spring 3's (and 2.5's) new annotations way of doing things quite a paradigm shift and have personally found some of the new MVC annotation features difficult to get up to speed with for non-trivial applications - as such, I am often having to dig for information in forums and blogs that is not apparent from going through the reference guide or from the various Spring 3 REST examples on the web. For deadline-driven production quality and mission critical applications implementing a RESTful architecture, should I be holding off from Spring 3 and rather be using mature JSR 311 (JAX-RS) compliant frameworks like RESTlet or Jersey for the REST layer of my code (together with Spring 2 / 2.5 to tie things together)? I had no problems using RESTlet 1.x in a previous project and it was quite easy to get up to speed with (no magic tricks behind the scenes), but when starting my current project it initially looked like the new REST stuff in Spring 3's MVC Framework would make life easier. Do any of you out there have any advice to give on this? Does anyone know of any commercial / production-quality projects using, or having successfully delivered with, the new REST stuff in Spring 3's MVC Framework. Many thanks Glen

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  • NSTimer as a timeout mechanism

    - by alexantd
    I'm pretty sure this is really simple, and I'm just missing something obvious. I have an app that needs to download data from a web service for display in a UITableView, and I want to display a UIAlertView if the operation takes more than X seconds to complete. So this is what I've got (simplified for brevity): MyViewController.h @interface MyViewController : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSTimer *timer; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSTimer *timer; MyViewController.m @implementation MyViewController @synthesize timer; - (void)viewDidLoad { timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:20 target:self selector:@selector(initializationTimedOut:) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime]; [timer invalidate]; } - (void)doSomethingThatTakesALongTime { sleep(30); // for testing only // web service calls etc. go here } - (void)initializationTimedOut:(NSTimer *)theTimer { // show the alert view } My problem is that I'm expecting the [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime] call to block while the timer keeps counting, and I'm thinking that if it finishes before the timer is done counting down, it will return control of the thread to viewDidLoad where [timer invalidate] will proceed to cancel the timer. Obviously my understanding of how timers/threads work is flawed here because the way the code is written, the timer never goes off. However, if I remove the [timer invalidate], it does.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler goes not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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  • Java getInputStream 400 errors

    - by Bill Szerdy
    When I contact a web service using a Java HttpUrlConnection it just returns a 400 Bad Request (IOException). How do I get the XML information that the server is returning; it does not appear to be in the getErrorStream of the connection nor is it in any of the exception information. When I run the following PHP code against a web service: <?php $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, "https://www.myclientaddress.com/here/" ); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1 ); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST,1 ); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS,"username=ted&password=scheckler&type=consumer&id=123456789&zip=12345"); $result=curl_exec ($ch); echo $result; ?> it returns the following: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <response> <status>failure</status> <errors> <error name="RES_ZIP">Zip code is not valid.</error> <error name="ZIP">Invalid zip code for residence address.</error> </errors> </response> so I know the information exists

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  • Inconsistent behavior working with "Flex on Rails" example.

    - by kmontgom
    I'm experimenting with Flex and Rails right now (Rails is cool). I'm following the examples in the book "Flex on Rails", and I'm getting some puzzling and inconsistent behavior. Heres the Flex MXML: <mx:HTTPService id="index" url="http://localhost:3000/people.xml" resultFormat="e4x" /> <mx:DataGrid dataProvider="{index.lastResult.person}" width="100%" height="100%"> <mx:columns> <mx:DataGridColumn headerText="First Name" dataField="first-name"/> <mx:DataGridColumn headerText="Last Name" dataField="last-name"/> </mx:columns> </mx:DataGrid> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.Alert; private function main():void { Alert.show( "In main()" ); } ]]> </mx:Script> When I run the app from my IDE (Amythyst beta, also cool), the DataGrid appears, but is not populated. The Alert.show() also triggers. When I go out to a web browser and manually enter the url (http://localhost:3000/people.xml), the Mongrel console shows the request coming through and the browser shows the web response. No exceptions or other error messages occur. Whats the difference? Do I need to alter some OS setting? I'm using Win7 on an x64 machine.

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  • Leveraging hobby experience to get a job

    - by Bernard
    Like many other's I began programming at an early age. I started when I was 11 and I learned C when I was 14 (now 26). While most of what I did were games just to entertain myself I did everything from low level 2D graphics, and binary I/O, to interfacing with free API's, custom file systems, audio, 3D animations, OpenGL, web sites, etc. I worked on a wide variety of things trying to make various games. Because of this experience I have tested out of every college level C/C++ programming course I have ever been offered. In the classes I took, my classmates would need a week to do what I finished in class with an hour or two of work. I now have my degree now and I have 2 years of experience working full time as a web developer however I would like to get back into C++ and hopefully do simulation programming. Unfortunately I have yet to do C++ as a job, I have only done it for testing out of classes and doing my senior project in college. So most of what I have in C++ is still hobby experience and I don't know how to best convey that so that I don't end up stuck doing something too low level for me. Right now I see a job offer that requires 2 years of C++ experience, but I have at least 9 (I didn't do C++ everyday for the last 14 years). How do I convey my experience? How much is it truly worth? and How do I get it's full value? The best thing that I can think of is a demo and a portfolio, however that only comes into play after an interview has been secured. I used a portfolio to land my current job. All answers and advice are appreciated.

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  • AssemblyResolve event is not firing during compilation of a dynamic assembly for an aspx page.

    - by John
    This one is really pissing me off. Here goes: My goal is to load assemblies at run-time that contain embedded aspx,ascx etc. What I would also like is to not lock the assembly file on disk so I can update it at run-time without having to restart the application (I know this will leave the previous version(s) loaded). To that end I have written a virtual path provider that does the trick. I have subscribed to the CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve event so as to redirect the framework to my assemblies. The problem is that the when the framework tries to compile the dynamic assembly for the aspx page I get the following: Compiler Error Message: CS0400: The type or namespace name 'Pages' could not be found in the global namespace (are you missing an assembly reference?) Source Error: public class app_resource_pages__version_1_0_0_0__culture_neutral__publickeytoken_null_default_aspx : global::Pages._Default, System.Web.SessionState.IRequiresSessionState, System.Web.IHttpHandle I noticed that if I load the assembly with Assembly.Load(AssemblyName) or Assembly.LoadFrom(filename) I dont get the above error. If I load it with Assembly.Load(byte[]) (so as to not lock it), the exception is thrown but my AssemblyResolve handler, when called is returning the assembly correctly (it is called once). So I am guessing that it is called once when the framework parses the asp markup but not when it tries to create the dynamic assembly for the aspx page.

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  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

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  • WCF cross-domain policy security error

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + WCF + .Net 3.5 + Silverlight 3.0. I host Silverlight control in an html page and debug it from VSTS 2008 (press F5, then run in VSTS 2008 built-in ASP.Net development web server), then call another WCF service (hosted in another machine running IIS 7.0 + Vista). The WCF service is very simple, just return a constant string to client. When invoking the WCF service from Silverlight, I got the following error message, An error occurred while trying to make a request to URI 'https://LabTest/Test.svc'. This could be due to attempting to access a service in a cross-domain way without a proper cross-domain policy in place, or a policy that is unsuitable for SOAP services. You may need to contact the owner of the service to publish a cross-domain policy file and to ensure it allows SOAP-related HTTP headers to be sent. This error may also be caused by using internal types in the web service proxy without using the InternalsVisibleToAttribute attribute. Please see the inner exception for more details. Here is the clientaccesspolicy.xml file, anything wrong? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*"> </domain> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true"></resource> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy> thanks in advance, George

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  • Soap 1.2 Endpoint Performance

    - by mflair2000
    I have a Client WCF Host Service SOAP 1.2 Service setup and i'm having performance issues on the SOAP Java proxy. I have no control over how the Java service is setup, aside from the endpoint config. I have the Client running Asynchronously, and the host WCF service running in Async pattern, but i see the SOAP 1.2 proxy bottlenecking and handling the requests in a Synchronous way. Can someone take a look at the auto-generated SOAP 1.2 configuration below, from the SOAP 1.2 Service wsdl? Is there a way to configure this for Async way and improve performance? Could be configured for SOAP 1.1? <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true"/> </system.web> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <customBinding> <binding name="WebserviceListenerSoap12Binding" closeTimeout="00:30:00" openTimeout="00:30:00" receiveTimeout="00:30:00" sendTimeout="00:30:00"> <textMessageEncoding maxReadPoolSize="64" maxWritePoolSize="16" messageVersion="Soap12" writeEncoding="utf-8"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="20000000" maxArrayLength="20000000" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> </textMessageEncoding> <httpTransport manualAddressing="false" maxBufferPoolSize="20000000" maxReceivedMessageSize="20000000" allowCookies="false" authenticationScheme="Anonymous" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" decompressionEnabled="true" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" keepAliveEnabled="true" maxBufferSize="20000000" proxyAuthenticationScheme="Anonymous" realm="" transferMode="Buffered" unsafeConnectionNtlmAuthentication="false" useDefaultWebProxy="true" /> </binding> </customBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://10.18.2.117:8080/java/webservice/WebserviceListener.WebserviceListenerHttpSoap12Endpoint/" binding="customBinding" bindingConfiguration="WebserviceListenerSoap12Binding" contract="ResolveServiceReference.WebserviceListenerPortType" name="WebserviceListenerHttpSoap12Endpoint" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration>

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  • Telerik chart not loading correctly in new window (ajax issue?)

    - by Phillip Schmidt
    I have a page which contains user controls with Telerik Charts (grids also, but they work fine). From this page, the user can click on a button to be redirected to a "Printer-Friendly Version" type page, which opens a new window via javascript and goes through a slightly different view (for formatting and stuff), but the telerik code is all the same. The problem is, my Chart displays just fine in the original window, but the new window displays basically an empty chart with no data. This bug is only present in IE, and only applies to Charts. Grids work fine, for whatever reason. I'm thinking this is due to differences in script caching between browsers -- correct me if I'm wrong, I'm semi-new to client-directed web development. Anyway I read somewhere that Telerik has issues with loading data and/or js files when loaded via ajax, so maybe that's the problem? If so, how could I get around this? And if not, any ideas on what could be causing this issue? It's causing me a great deal of frustration, since a print preview page seems like it should be the easiest of jobs. Edit: The charts are being rendered as html (if somebody can explain how to render them as images, that would be awesome). And dev tools shows basically the same thing between chrome and IE. Whenever my web service goes back up ill WinMerge them and look for any peculiarities/differences between them. In the mean time, though, the "render as an image" concept sounds promising. That way I could just save the image from the first page, and insert it right into the print preview page, right?. And since it's a print-preview page, it's not going to need to be interactive or anything, so that'd work out nicely. Another (important) Edit: These are probably the culprit... And here is a little more detail on that: And here is a side-by-side of it working(in chrome) and not working (in IE):

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  • Permission issue when webservice deployed as virtual directory.Works in VS IDE

    - by Shyju
    I have an ASP.NET web service which will create a text file in a path which is being passed as a parameter to the method. private void CreateFile(string path) { string strFileName = path; StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(strFileName, true); sw.WriteLine(""); sw.Write("Created at " + DateTime.Now.ToString()); sw.Close(); } Now I am passing a folder in the network as the parameter and calling the method CreateFile(@"\\192.168.0.40\\labels\\test.txt"); When running the code from the Visual studio IDE,the file is getting created in the path.But when i published this and deployed as a virtual directoty,Its throwing me some error like "System.UnauthorizedAccessException: Access to the path '\\192.168.0.40\labels\test.txt' is denied. at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.FileStream.Init(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, Int32 rights, Boolean useRights, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options, SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES secAttrs, String msgPath, Boolean bFromProxy) at System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options) at System.IO.StreamWriter.CreateFile(String path, Boolean append) at System.IO.StreamWriter..ctor(String path, Boolean append, Encoding encoding, Int32 bufferSize) at System.IO.StreamWriter..ctor(String path, Boolean append) I have in my web.config.My machine is running in XP and the other is in Windows Server 2003 Any idea to solve this ?? Thanks in advance

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  • implementing a Intelligent File Transfer Software in java over TCP/IP

    - by whyjava
    Hello I am working on a proposal where we have to implement a software which can move files between one source to destination.The overall goal of this project is to create intelligent file transfer.This software will have three components :- 1) Broker : Broker is the module that communicates with other brokers, monitors files, moves files, retrieves configurations from the Configuration Manager, supplies process information for the monitor, archives files, writes all process data to log files and escalates issues if necessary 2) Configuration Manager :Configuration Manager is a web-based application used to configure and deploy the configuration to all brokers. 3) Monitor : Monitor is a web-based application used to monitor each Broker in the environment. This project has to be built up in java and protocol for file transfer in tcp/ip. Client does not want to use FTP. File Transfer seems very easy, until there are several processes who are waiting to pick the file up automatically. Several problems arise: How can we guarantee the file is received at the destination? If a file isn’t received the first time, we should try it again (even after a restart or power breakdown) ? How does the receiver knows the file that is received is complete? How can we transfer multiple files synchronously? How can we protect the bandwidth, so file transfer isn’t blocking other processes? How does one interoperate between multiple OS platforms? What about authentication? How can we monitor het workflow? Auditing / logging Archiving Can you please provide answer to some of these? Thanks

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  • I just need one dependent module , but don't need its dependencies (Maven)

    - by smallufo
    In my project , there is a spring XML config that utilizes ehcache to cache method returns. xml snippet : http://www.springmodules.org/schema/ehcache http://www.springmodules.org/schema/cache/springmodules-ehcache.xsd <ehcache:config configLocation="classpath:ehcache.xml"/> <ehcache:proxy id="explainRetriever" refId="explainRetrieverImpl"> <ehcache:caching methodName="get*" cacheName="explainCache"/> </ehcache:proxy> but in runtime , server complains it cannot find definitions of http://www.springmodules.org/schema/ehcache , I know I have to add "spring-modules-cache.jar" to WEB-INF/lib directory. But my project is maintained by maven , if I add "spring-modules-cache" to the runtime dependency , it will bring a lot of dependencies to my WAR file , filling my WAR with a lot of unnecessary jars. I just need one declaration in it , not all of its dependencies ... Is there any way to tell maven not to include its dependencies to the project ? Or ... another way , when packaging WAR , just copy another prepared spring-modules-cache.jar to WEB-INF/lib , how to do this ? Thanks !

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  • Request-local storage in ASP.NET (accessible to the code from IHttpModule implementation)

    - by IgorK
    I need to have some object hanging around between two events I'm interested in: PreRequestHandlerExecute (where I create an instance of my object and want to save it) and PostRequestHandlerExecute (where I want to get to the object). After the second event the object is not needed for my purposes and should be discarded either by storage or my explicit action. So the ideal context where my object should be stored is per request (with guaranteed no sharing issues when different threads are serving requests... or processes/servers :) ) Take into account that actual implementation I can do is being made from a HttpModule and is supposed to be a pluggable solution for already written web apps (so the option to provide some state using static/instance variables in Global.asax doesn't look good - I will have to modify Global.asax on every web application). Cache seems to be too broad for this use. I tried to see whether httpContext.Application (of type HttpApplicationState) is good for me or not, but cannot get whether it is exactly per HttpApplication instance or not (AFAIK you can have several instances of HttpApplications used on different threads and therefore serving several requests simultaneously - then using storage shared between threads will not work correctly; otherwise I would use it because one HttpApplication instance serves exactly one request at a time). Something could be done with storing state on the HttpModule instances if I know for sure that it's exactly bound 1-to-1 with every HttpApplication instance running (but again I need a proof that HttpApplication instance is 1-to-1 with my HttpModule's instance). Any valuable and reputable links on these topics are much appreciated... Would be great to find something particularly well-suited for per request situation (because otherwise I may end up with something ulgy... probably either some 'broader' scoped storage and some hacks to have different keys in the storage for different requests, OR using a thread-local thing and in this way commit to the theory that IIS/ASP.NET will not ever serve first event from one thread and the second event from the other thread and so on)

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  • Visual Studio 2010 randomly unable to debug WCF service.

    - by rossisdead
    I'm running Visual Studio 2010 on a Windows 7 x64 machine, and occasionally VS is giving me the good old "The remote procedure could not be debugged.This usually indicates that debugging has not been enabled on the server" error that a lot of people ask about. My problem, though, is that it seems to only do this randomly(it can be anywhere from a few minutes to a few hours), and after I've made plenty of successful calls to the service already. It doesn't prevent the service from working. It still returns values and doesn't throw any errors. The only difference is that annoying dialog pops up everytime I start to debug my application. I should mention that I'm connecting the WCF service from a WPF application. If I launch the web site the service is part of, I don't get the dialog. A few of the things I've tried that do not work: Killing and restarting the server. Compiling the web server in x86 Enabling tracing, but couldn't find any problems. Is this just a bug in Visual Studio 2010, or is there something I'm missing?

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  • Active Directory Membership Provider - how to expand on this?

    - by Jaxidian
    I'm working on getting an MVC app up and running via AD Membership Provider and I'm having some issues figuring this out. I have a base configuration setup and working when I login as [email protected] + password. <connectionStrings> <add name="MyConnString" connectionString="LDAP://domaincontroller/OU=Product Users,DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com" /> </connectionStrings> <membership defaultProvider="MyProvider"> <providers> <clear /> <add name="MyProvider" connectionStringName="MyConnString" connectionUsername="my.domain.com\service_account" connectionPassword="biguglypassword" type="System.Web.Security.ActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" /> </providers> </membership> However, I'd LIKE to do some other things and I'm not sure how to go about them. Login without typing the domain (i.e. the "@my.domain.com"). I realize that this could only work if I limit myself to just one domain - that's fine. Organize users in up to N different OUs within a single OU. As you can tell from my current connection string, I'm authenticating users in my Product Users OU. I would LIKE to create OUs for various companies within this OU and put the users into those OUs. How can I authenticate across all of these different OUs? I'm trying to figure out how the Active Directory Membership Provider ties in with the Profile and Role providers. Are there AD versions of those too or am I stuck with SQL, home-grown, or finding something somebody else has coded up? Many thanks!!

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  • SQL Server getdate() to a string like "2009-12-20"

    - by Adam Kane
    In Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and .NET 2.0, I want to convert the current date to a string of this format: "YYYY-MM-DD". For example, December 12th 2009 would become "2009-12-20". How do I do this in SQL. The context of this SQL statement in the table definiton. In other words, this is the default value. So when a new record is created the default value of the current date is stored as a string in the above format. I'm trying: SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD] But SQL server keeps converting that to: ('SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]') so the result is just: 'SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]' Here's a screen shot of what the Visual Studio server explorer, table, table definition, properties shows: These wrapper bits are being adding automatically and converting it all to literal string: (N' ') Here's the reason I'm trying to use something other than the basic DATETIME I was using previously: This is the error I get when hooking everything to an ASP.NET GridView and try to do an update via the grid view: Server Error in '/' Application. The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'.] Note: I've added a related question to try to get around the SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date' error so that I can use a DATETIME as recommended.

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