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  • How to define an extern, C struct returning function in C++ using MSVC?

    - by DK
    The following source file will not compile with the MSVC compiler (v15.00.30729.01): /* stest.c */ #ifdef __cplusplus extern "C" { #endif struct Test; extern struct Test make_Test(int x); struct Test { int x; }; extern struct Test make_Test(int x) { struct Test r; r.x = x; return r; } #ifdef __cplusplus } #endif Compiling with cl /c /Tpstest.c produces the following error: stest.c(8) : error C2526: 'make_Test' : C linkage function cannot return C++ class 'Test' stest.c(6) : see declaration of 'Test' Compiling without /Tp (which tells cl to treat the file as C++) works fine. The file also compiles fine in DigitalMars C and GCC (from mingw) in both C and C++ modes. I also used -ansi -pedantic -Wall with GCC and it had no complaints. For reasons I will go into below, we need to compile this file as C++ for MSVC (not for the others), but with functions being compiled as C. In essence, we want a normal C compiler... except for about six lines. Is there a switch or attribute or something I can add that will allow this to work? The code in question (though not the above; that's just a reduced example) is being produced by a code generator. As part of this, we need to be able to generate floating point nans and infinities as constants (long story), meaning we have to compile with MSVC in C++ mode in order to actually do this. We only found one solution that works, and it only works in C++ mode. We're wrapping the code in extern "C" {...} because we want to control the mangling and calling convention so that we can interface with existing C code. ... also because I trust C++ compilers about as far as I could throw a smallish department store. I also tried wrapping just the reinterpret_cast line in extern "C++" {...}, but of course that doesn't work. Pity. There is a potential solution I found which requires reordering the declarations such that the full struct definition comes before the function foward decl., but this is very inconvenient due to the way the codegen is performed, so I'd really like to avoid having to go down that road if I can.

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  • Need help accessing PHP DOM elements

    - by Michael Pasqualone
    Hey guys, I have the following HTML structure that I am trying to pull information from: // Product 1 <div class="productName"> <span id="product-name-1">Product Name 1</span> </div> <div class="productDetail"> <span class="warehouse">Warehouse 1, ACT</span> <span class="quantityInStock">25</span> </div> // Product 2 <div class="productName"> <span id="product-name-2">Product Name 2</span> </div> <div class="productDetail"> <span class="warehouse">Warehouse 2, ACT</span> <span class="quantityInStock">25</span> </div> … // Product X <div class="productName"> <span id="product-name-X">Product Name X</span> </div> <div class="productDetail"> <span class="warehouse">Warehouse X, ACT</span> <span class="quantityInStock">25</span> </div> I don't have control of the source html and as you'll see productName and it's accompanying productDetail are not contained within a common element. Now, I am using the following php code to try and parse the page. $html = new DOMDocument(); $html->loadHtmlFile('product_test.html'); $xPath = new DOMXPath($html); $domQuery = '//div[@class="productName"]|//div[@class="productDetail"]'; $entries = $xPath->query($domQuery); foreach ($entries as $entry) { echo "Detail: " . $entry->nodeValue) . "<br />\n"; } Which prints the following: Detail: Product Name 1 Detail: Warehouse 1, ACT Detail: 25 Detail: Product Name 2 Detail: Warehouse 2, ACT Detail: 25 Detail: Product Name X Detail: Warehouse X, ACT Detail: 25 Now, this is close to what I want. But I need to do some processing on each Product, Warehouse and Quantity stock and can't figure out how to parse it out into separate product groups. The final output I am after is something like: Product 1: Name: Product Name 1 Warehouse: Warehouse 1, ACT Stock: 25 Product 2: Name: Product Name 2 Warehouse: Warehouse 2, ACT Stock: 25 I can't just figure it out, and I can't wrap my head around this DOM stuff as the elements don't quite work the same as a standard array. If anyone can assist, or point me in the right direction I will be ever appreciative.

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  • Does this sound like a stack overflow?

    - by Jordan S
    I think I might be having a stack overflow problem or something similar in my embedded firmware code. I am a new programmer and have never dealt with a SO so I'm not sure if that is what's happening or not. The firmware controls a device with a wheel that has magnets evenly spaced around it and the board has a hall effect sensor that senses when magnet is over it. My firmware operates the stepper and also count steps while monitoring the magnet sensor in order to detect if the wheel has stalled. I am using a timer interrupt on my chip (8 bit, 8057 acrh.) to set output ports to control the motor and for the stall detection. The stall detection code looks like this... // Enter ISR // Change the ports to the appropriate value for the next step // ... StallDetector++; // Increment the stall detector if(PosSensor != LastPosMagState) { StallDetector = 0; LastPosMagState = PosSensor; } else { if (PosSensor == ON) { if (StallDetector > (MagnetSize + 10)) { HandleStallEvent(); } } else if (PosSensor == OFF) { if (StallDetector > (GapSize + 10)) { HandleStallEvent(); } } } this code is called every time the ISR is triggered. PosSensor is the magnet sensor. MagnetSize is the number of stepper steps that it takes to get through the magnet field. GapSize is the number of steps between two magnets. So I want to detect if the wheel gets stuck either with the sensor over a magnet or not over a magnet. This works great for a long time but then after a while the first stall event will occur because 'StallDetector (MagnetSize + 10)' but when I look at the value of StallDetector it is always around 220! This doesn't make sense because MagnetSize is always around 35. So the stall event should have been triggered at like 46 but somehow it got all the way up to 220? And I don't set the value of stall detector anywhere else in my code. Do you have any advice on how I can track down the root of this problem? The ISR looks like this void Timer3_ISR(void) interrupt 14 { OperateStepper(); // This is the function shown above TMR3CN &= ~0x80; // Clear Timer3 interrupt flag } HandleStallEvent just sets a few variable back to their default values so that it can attempt another move... #pragma save #pragma nooverlay void HandleStallEvent() { ///* PulseMotor = 0; //Stop the wheel from moving SetMotorPower(0); //Set motor power low MotorSpeed = LOW_SPEED; SetSpeedHz(); ERROR_STATE = 2; DEVICE_IS_HOMED = FALSE; DEVICE_IS_HOMING = FALSE; DEVICE_IS_MOVING = FALSE; HOMING_STATE = 0; MOVING_STATE = 0; CURRENT_POSITION = 0; StallDetector = 0; return; //*/ } #pragma restore

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  • WP7: play MP3 using Media with phonegap/Cordova

    - by Loda
    My problem: I use the Media Class from Cordova. The MP3 file is only played once (the first time). Code: Add this code to the Cordova Starter project to reproduce my problem: var playCounter = 0; function playMP3(){ console.log("playMP3() counter " + playCounter); var my_media = new Media("app/www/test.mp3");//ressource buildAction == content my_media.play(); playCounter++; } [...] <p onclick="playMP3();">Click to Play MP3</p> VS output: [...] GapBrowser_Navigated :: /app/www/index.html 'UI Task' (Managed): Loaded 'System.ServiceModel.Web.dll' 'UI Task' (Managed): Loaded 'System.ServiceModel.dll' Log:"onDeviceReady. You should see this message in Visual Studio's output window." 'UI Task' (Managed): Loaded 'Microsoft.Xna.Framework.dll' Log:"playMP3() counter 0" 'UI Task' (Managed): Loaded 'System.SR.dll' Log:"media on status :: {\"id\": \"fa123123-bc55-a266-f447-8881bd32e2aa\", \"msg\": 1, \"value\": 1}" A first chance exception of type 'System.ArgumentException' occurred in mscorlib.dll Log:"media on status :: {\"id\": \"fa123123-bc55-a266-f447-8881bd32e2aa\", \"msg\": 1, \"value\": 2}" Log:"media on status :: {\"id\": \"fa123123-bc55-a266-f447-8881bd32e2aa\", \"msg\": 2, \"value\": 2.141}" Log:"media on status :: {\"id\": \"fa123123-bc55-a266-f447-8881bd32e2aa\", \"msg\": 1, \"value\": 4}" Log:"playMP3() counter 1" A first chance exception of type 'System.ArgumentException' occurred in mscorlib.dll A first chance exception of type 'System.IO.IOException' occurred in mscorlib.dll A first chance exception of type 'System.IO.IsolatedStorage.IsolatedStorageException' occurred in mscorlib.dll Log:"media on status :: {\"id\": \"2de3388c-bbb6-d896-9e27-660f1402bc2a\", \"msg\": 9, \"value\": 5}" My Config: cordova-1.6.1.js Lumia 800 WP 7.5 (7.10.7740.16) WorkAround (kind of): Desactivate the app (turn off the screen) reactivate the app (turn on the screen) - you get one more shot. Any help is welcome as I am blocked on this since may days and I found no usefull information anywhere. Also, Can you tell me if this code work on your config ? . . . Update: add a demo code using a global var. Keeping the instance alive. result The test2.mp3 is played and can replay fine. the test.mp3 is not played at all. It is the first file you play that will work. Code function onDeviceReady() { document.getElementById("welcomeMsg").innerHTML += "Cordova is ready! version=" + window.device.cordova; console.log("onDeviceReady. You should see this message in Visual Studio's output window."); my_media = new Media("app/www/test.mp3");//ressource buildAction == content my_media2 = new Media("app/www/test2.mp3");//ressource buildAction == content } var playCounter = 0; var my_media = null; function playMP3(){ console.log("playMP3() counter " + playCounter); my_media.play(); playCounter++; } var my_media2 = null; function playMP32(){ console.log("playMP32() counter " + playCounter); my_media2.play(); playCounter++; } </script> [...] <p onclick="playMP3();">Click to Play MP3</p> <p onclick="playMP32();">Click to Play MP3 2</p> VS output: Log:"onDeviceReady. You should see this message in Visual Studio's output window." INFO: startPlayingAudio could not find mediaPlayer for 71888b14-86fe-4769-95c9-a9bb05d5555b Log:"playMP32() counter 0" INFO: startPlayingAudio could not find mediaPlayer for 71888b14-86fe-4769-95c9-a9bb05d5555b Log:"playMP32() counter 1" Log:"playMP3() counter 2" INFO: startPlayingAudio could not find mediaPlayer for b60fa266-d105-a295-a5be-fa2c6b824bc1 A first chance exception of type 'System.ArgumentException' occurred in System.Windows.dll Error: El parámetro es incorrecto. Log:"playMP32() counter 3" INFO: startPlayingAudio could not find mediaPlayer for 71888b14-86fe-4769-95c9-a9bb05d5555b Can anybody reproduce this ? link to bug report: https://issues.apache.org/jira/browse/CB-941

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  • Why is my producer-consumer blocking?

    - by User007
    My code is here: http://pastebin.com/Fi3h0E0P Here is the output 0 Should we take order today (y or n): y Enter order number: 100 More customers (y or n): n Stop serving customers right now. Passing orders to cooker: There are total of 1 order(s) 1 Roger, waiter. I am processing order #100 The goal is waiter must take orders and then give them to the cook. The waiter has to wait cook finishes all pizza, deliver the pizza, and then take new orders. I asked how P-V work in my previous post here. I don't think it has anything to do with \n consuming? I tried all kinds of combination of wait(), but none work. Where did I make a mistake? The main part is here: //Producer process if(pid > 0) { while(1) { printf("0"); P(emptyShelf); // waiter as P finds no items on shelf; P(mutex); // has permission to use the shelf waiter_as_producer(); V(mutex); // cooker now can use the shelf V(orderOnShelf); // cooker now can pickup orders wait(); printf("2"); P(pizzaOnShelf); P(mutex); waiter_as_consumer(); V(mutex); V(emptyShelf); printf("3 "); } } if(pid == 0) { while(1) { printf("1"); P(orderOnShelf); // make sure there is an order on shelf P(mutex); //permission to work cooker_as_consumer(); // take order and put pizza on shelf printf("return from cooker"); V(mutex); //release permission printf("just released perm"); V(pizzaOnShelf); // pizza is now on shelf printf("after"); wait(); printf("4"); } } So I imagine this is the execution path: enter waiter_as_producer, then go to child process (cooker), then transfer the control back to parent, finish waiter_as_consumer, switch back to child. The two waits switch back to parent (like I said I tried all possible wait() combination...).

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  • Why SQL2008 debugger would NOT step into a certain child stored procedure

    - by John Galt
    I'm encountering differences in T-SQL with SQL2008 (vs. SQL2000) that are leading me to dead-ends. I've verified that the technique of sharing #TEMP tables between a caller which CREATES the #TEMP and the child sProc which references it remain valid in SQL2008 See recent SO question. My core problem remains a critical "child" stored procedure that works fine in SQL2000 but fails in SQL2008 (i.e. a FROM clause in the child sProc is coded as: SELECT * FROM #AREAS A) despite #AREAS being created by the calling parent. Rather than post snippets of the code now, here is another symptom that may help you suggest something. I fired up the new debugger in SQL Mgmt Studio: EXEC dbo.AMS1 @S1='06',@C1='037',@StartDate='01/01/2008',@EndDate='07/31/2008',@Type=1,@ACReq = 1,@Output = 0,@NumofLines = 30,@SourceTable = 'P',@LoanPurposeCatg='P' This is a very large sProc and the key snippet that is weird is the following: **create table #Areas ( State char(2) , County char(3) , ZipCode char(5) NULL , CityName varchar(28) NULL , PData varchar(3) NULL , RData varchar(3) NULL , SMSA_CD varchar(10) NULL , TypeCounty varchar(50) , StateAbbr char(2) ) EXECUTE dbo.AMS_I_GetAreasV5 -- this child populates #Areas @SMSA = @SMSA , @S1 = @S1 , @C1 = @C1 , @Z1 = @Z1 , @SourceTable = @SourceTable , @CustomID = @CustomID , @UserName = @UserName , @CityName = @CityName , @Debug=0 EXECUTE dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC -- this child cannot reference #Areas @StartDate = @StartDate , @EndDate = @EndDate , @SMSA_CD = @SMSA_CD , @S1 = @S1 , @C1 = @C1 , @Z1 = @Z1 , @CityName = @CityName , @CustomID = @CustomID , @Debug=0 -- continuation of the parent sProc** I can step through the execution of the parent stored procedure. When I get to the first child sproc above, I can either STEP INTO dbo.AMS_I_GetAreasV5 or STEP OVER its execution. When I arrive at the invocation of the 2nd child sProc - dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC - I try to STEP INTO it (because that is where the problem statement is) and STEP INTO is ignored (i.e. treated like STEP OVER instead; yet I KNOW I pressed F11 not F10). It WAS executed however, because when control is returned to the statement after the EXECUTE, I click Continue to finish execution and the results windows shows the errors in the dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC (i.e. the 2nd child) stored procedure. Is there a way to "pre-load" an sProc with the goal of setting a breakpoint on its entry so that I can pursue execution inside it? In summary, I wonder if the inability to step into a given child sproc might be related to the same inability of this particular child to reference a #temp created by its parent (caller).

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  • AngularJS: download pdf file from the server

    - by Bartosz Bialecki
    I want to download a pdf file from the web server using $http. I use this code which works great, my file only is save as a html file, but when I open it it is opened as pdf but in the browser. I tested it on Chrome 36, Firefox 31 and Opera 23. This is my angularjs code (based on this code): UserService.downloadInvoice(hash).success(function (data, status, headers) { var filename, octetStreamMime = "application/octet-stream", contentType; // Get the headers headers = headers(); if (!filename) { filename = headers["x-filename"] || 'invoice.pdf'; } // Determine the content type from the header or default to "application/octet-stream" contentType = headers["content-type"] || octetStreamMime; if (navigator.msSaveBlob) { var blob = new Blob([data], { type: contentType }); navigator.msSaveBlob(blob, filename); } else { var urlCreator = window.URL || window.webkitURL || window.mozURL || window.msURL; if (urlCreator) { // Try to use a download link var link = document.createElement("a"); if ("download" in link) { // Prepare a blob URL var blob = new Blob([data], { type: contentType }); var url = urlCreator.createObjectURL(blob); $window.saveAs(blob, filename); return; link.setAttribute("href", url); link.setAttribute("download", filename); // Simulate clicking the download link var event = document.createEvent('MouseEvents'); event.initMouseEvent('click', true, true, window, 1, 0, 0, 0, 0, false, false, false, false, 0, null); link.dispatchEvent(event); } else { // Prepare a blob URL // Use application/octet-stream when using window.location to force download var blob = new Blob([data], { type: octetStreamMime }); var url = urlCreator.createObjectURL(blob); $window.location = url; } } } }).error(function (response) { $log.debug(response); }); On my server I use Laravel and this is my response: $headers = array( 'Content-Type' => $contentType, 'Content-Length' => strlen($data), 'Content-Disposition' => $contentDisposition ); return Response::make($data, 200, $headers); where $contentType is application/pdf and $contentDisposition is attachment; filename=" . basename($fileName) . '"' $filename - e.g. 59005-57123123.PDF My response headers: Cache-Control:no-cache Connection:Keep-Alive Content-Disposition:attachment; filename="159005-57123123.PDF" Content-Length:249403 Content-Type:application/pdf Date:Mon, 25 Aug 2014 15:56:43 GMT Keep-Alive:timeout=3, max=1 What am I doing wrong?

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  • Cached ObjectDataSource not firing Select Event even Cache Dependecy Removed

    - by John Polvora
    I have the following scenario. A Page with a DetailsView binded to an ObjectDatasource with cache-enabled. The SelectMethod is assigned at Page_Load event, depending on my User Level Logic. After assigned the selectMethod and Parameters for the ODS, if Cache not exists, then ODS will be cached the first time. The next time, the cache will be applied to the ODS and the select event don't need to be fired since the dataresult is cached. The problem is, the ODS Cache works fine, but I have a Refresh button to clear the cache and rebind the DetailsView. Am I doing correctly ? Below is my code. <asp:DetailsView ID="DetailsView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource_Summary" EnableModelValidation="True" EnableViewState="False" ForeColor="#333333" GridLines="None"> </asp:DetailsView> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="ObjectDataSource_Summary" runat="server" SelectMethod="" TypeName="BL.BusinessLogic" EnableCaching="true"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="idCompany" Type="String" /> <SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:ImageButton ID="ImageButton_Refresh" runat="server" OnClick="RefreshClick" ImageUrl="~/img/refresh.png" /> And here is the code behind public partial class Index : Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = ""; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = ""; switch (this._loginData.UserLevel) //this is a struct I use for control permissions e pages behaviour { case OperNivel.SysAdmin: case OperNivel.SysOperator: { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = "SystemSummary"; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = "0"; break; } case OperNivel.CompanyAdmin: case OperNivel.CompanyOperator: { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = "CompanySummary"; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = this._loginData.UserLevel.ToString(); break; } default: break; } } protected void Page_LoadComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Cache[ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency] == null) { this._loginData.LoginDatetime = DateTime.Now; Session["loginData"] = _loginData; Cache[ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency] = _loginData; DetailsView1.DataBind(); } } protected void RefreshClick(object sender, ImageClickEventArgs e) { Cache.Remove(ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency); } } Can anyone help me? The Select() Event of the ObjectDasource is not firing even I Remove the CacheKey Dependency

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  • How to Sync CI (Hudson) Activity into an existing automated Build Process (phing, svn)?

    - by maraspin
    OUR CURRENT BUILD PROCESS We're a small team of developers (2 to 4 people depending on project) who currently use Phing to deploy code to a staging environment, before going live. We keep our code in a SVN repo, where the trunk holds current active development and, at certain times, we do make branches that we test and then (if successful), tag and export to the staging env. If everything goes well there too, we finally deploy'em in production servers. Actions are highly automated, but always triggered by human intervention. THE DOUBT We'd now like to introduce Continuous Integration (with Hudson) in the process; unfortunately we have a few doubts about activity syncing, since we're afraid that CI could somewhat interfere with our build process and cause certain problems. Considering that an automated CI cycle has a certain frequency of automatically executed actions, we see 2 possible cases for "integration", each with its own problems: Case A: each CI cycle produces a new branch with its own name; we do use such a name to manually (through phing as it happens now) export the code from the SVN to the staging env. The problem I see here is that (unless specific countermeasures are taken - IE deletion) the number of branches we have can easily grow out of control (let's suppose we commit often, so that we have a fresh new build/branch every N minutes). Case B: each CI cycle creates a new branch named 'current', which is then tagged with a unique name only when we manually decide to export it to staging; the current branch, at any case is then deleted, as soon as the next CI cycle starts up. The problem we see here is that a new cycle could kick in while someone is tagging/exporting the 'current' branch to staging thus creating an inconsistent build (but maybe here I'm just too pessimist, since I confess I don't know whether SVN offers some built-in protection against this). With all this being said, I was wondering if anyone with similar experiences could be so kind to give us some hints on the subject, since none of the approaches depicted above looks completely satisfing to us. Is there something important we just completely left off in the overall picture? Thanks for your attention & (in advance) for your help!

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  • WPF Reusing Xaml Effectively

    - by Steve
    Hi, I've recently been working on a project using WPF to produce a diagram. In this I must show text alongside symbols that illustrate information associated with the text. To draw the symbols I initially used some png images I had produced. Within my diagram these images appeared blurry and only looked worse when zoomed in on. To improve on this I decided I would use a vector rather than a rastor image format. Below is the method I used to get the rastor image from a file path: protected Image GetSymbolImage(string symbolPath, int symbolHeight) { Image symbol = new Image(); symbol.Height = symbolHeight; BitmapImage bitmapImage = new BitmapImage(); bitmapImage.BeginInit(); bitmapImage.UriSource = new Uri(symbolPath); bitmapImage.DecodePixelHeight = symbolHeight; bitmapImage.EndInit(); symbol.Source = bitmapImage; return symbol; } Unfortunately this does not recognise vector image formats. So instead I used a method like the following, where "path" is the file path to a vector image of the format .xaml: public static Canvas LoadXamlCanvas(string path) { //if a file exists at the specified path if (File.Exists(path)) { //store the text in the file string text = File.ReadAllText(path); //produce a canvas from the text StringReader stringReader = new StringReader(text); XmlReader xmlReader = XmlReader.Create(stringReader); Canvas c = (Canvas)XamlReader.Load(xmlReader); //return the canvas return c; } return null; } This worked but drastically killed performance when called repeatedly. I found the logic necessary for text to canvas conversion (see above) was the main cause of the performance problem therefore embedding the .xaml images would not alone resolve the performance issue. I tried using this method only on the initial load of my application and storing the resulting canvases in a dictionary that could later be accessed much quicker but I later realised when using the canvases within the dictionary I would have to make copies of them. All the logic I found online associated with making copies used a XamlWriter and XamlReader which would again just introduce a performance problem. The solution I used was to copy the contents of each .xaml image into its own user control and then make use of these user controls where appropriate. This means I now display vector graphics and performance is much better. However this solution to me seems pretty clumsy. I'm new to WPF and wonder if there is some built in way of storing and reusing xaml throughout an application? Apologies for the length of this question. I thought having a record of my attempts might help someone with any similar problem. Thanks.

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  • Best practices managing JavaScript on a single-page app

    - by seanmonstar
    With a single page app, where I change the hash and load and change only the content of the page, I'm trying to decide on how to manage the JavaScript that each "page" might need. I've already got a History module monitoring the location hash which could look like domain.com/#/company/about, and a Page class that will use XHR to get the content and insert it into the content area. function onHashChange(hash) { var skipCache = false; if(hash in noCacheList) { skipCache = true; } new Page(hash, skipCache).insert(); } // Page.js var _pageCache = {}; function Page(url, skipCache) { if(!skipCache && (url in _pageCache)) { return _pageCache[url]; } this.url = url; this.load(); } The cache should let pages that have already been loaded skip the XHR. I also am storing the content into a documentFragment, and then pulling the current content out of the document when I insert the new Page, so I the browser will only have to build the DOM for the fragment once. Skipping the cache could be desired if the page has time sensitive data. Here's what I need help deciding on: It's very likely that any of the pages that get loaded will have some of their own JavaScript to control the page. Like if the page will use Tabs, needs a slide show, has some sort of animation, has an ajax form, or what-have-you. What exactly is the best way to go around loading that JavaScript into the page? Include the script tags in the documentFragment I get back from the XHR? What if I need to skip the cache, and re-download the fragment. I feel the exact same JavaScript being called a second time might cause conflicts, like redeclaring the same variables. Would the better way be to attach the scripts to the head when grabbing the new Page? That would require the original page know all the assets that every other page might need. And besides knowing the best way to include everything, won't I need to worry about memory management, and possible leaks of loading so many different JavaScript bits into a single page instance?

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  • Geolocation through Android's GPS Provider on a website?

    - by Corey Ogburn
    I'm trying to get the geolocation of the mobile device in a regular website, not a webview of an application or anything native like that. I'm getting a location, but it's highly inaccurate, the accuracy comes back as 3230 or some other outrageous number. I'm assuming that's in meters, either way it's not nearly accurate enough. By comparison, the same webpage on a laptop gets an accuracy of 30-40. My first thought was that it was using the Network Provider instead of the GPS Provider, telling me where I am based on tower location and reach. A little research later I found enableHighAccuracy and set it true in the options that I pass. After including that, I still notice no difference. Here's the test page's HTML/javascript: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ecn.dev.virtualearth.net/mapcontrol/mapcontrol.ashx?v=7.0"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function OnLoad() { $("#Status").text("Init"); if (navigator.geolocation) { $("#Status").text("Supports Geolocation"); navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(HandleLocation, LocationError, { enableHighAccuracy: true }); $("#Status").text("Sent position request..."); } else { $("#Status").text("Doesn't support geolocation"); } } function HandleLocation(position) { $("#Status").text("Received response:"); $("#Position").text("(" + position.coords.latitude + ", " + position.coords.longitude + ") accuracy: " + position.coords.accuracy); var loc = new Microsoft.Maps.Location(position.coords.latitude, position.coords.longitude); GetMap(loc); } function LocationError(error) { switch(error.code) { case error.PERMISSION_DENIED: alert("Location not provided"); break; case error.POSITION_UNAVAILABLE: alert("Current location not available"); break; case error.TIMEOUT: alert("Timeout"); break; default: alert("unknown error"); break; } } function GetMap(loc) { var map = new Microsoft.Maps.Map(document.getElementById("mapDiv"), {credentials: "Aj59meaCR1e7rNgkfQy7j08Pd3mzfP1r04hGesGmLe2a3ZwZ3iGecwPX2SNPWq5a", center: loc, mapTypeId: Microsoft.Maps.MapTypeId.road, zoom: 15}); } </script> </head> <body onload="javascript:OnLoad()"> <div id="Status"></div> <div id="Position"></div><br/> <div id='mapDiv' style="position:relative; width:600px; height:400px;"></div> </body> </html> I'm testing this on a rooted MyTouch 3G running Cyanogen 6.1 stable, Android 2.2 and GPS is enabled. In case rooting was a problem, I have also had various friends and coworkers try the webpage on their non-rooted 2.0+ Android devices. Each phone had various effects on the accuracy, but none were better than 1000, I attribute this to the different carriers. I have not (but eventually will) tested with iPhone or other location-aware cell phones.

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  • Why does my entire page reload in Chrome and Firefox when using asynchronous UpdatePanel postbacks?

    - by Alex
    Being a bit perplexed about this issue by now, I hope some of you gurus can shed some light on my problem... I've developed a AJAX-enhanced website, which has been running fine in IE, Chrome and Firefox for a year or so. I use a Timer-control to check for incoming messages every 30 seconds, and this updates an UpdatePanel showing potential new messages. Now several one of my Firefox users complain about the page refreshing every 30 seconds! I my self cannot reproduce this behaviour, but given the "30 seconds"-description, I cursed my Timer-solution as the culprit. But now, I'm experiencing this error myself, not in Firefox though, but in Google Chrome! (And only on one of my two computers!) Every 30 seconds the page reloads! But I found that it's not only related to the Timer, because all other asynchronous postbacks to the server within UpdatePanels reloads the entire page as well. This error has never been experienced in Internet Explorer (to my knowledge). As I said, this it not only related to the Timer postback, but if it's of interest to anybody the code is like this: <asp:Timer runat="server" ID="MailCheckTimer" Interval="30000" OnTick="MailChecker_Tick"></asp:Timer> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server" ID="MailCheckerUpdatePanel" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <div class="newmail_box" runat="server" id="newmail_box"> <!-- Content stripped for this example --> </div> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="MailCheckTimer" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> In other places of the website I call the client side __doPostBack function directly from JavaScript in relation to an UpdatePanel. Normal behaviour for this call is to updated the referenced UpdatePanel with some content, but now in Chrome this refreshes the entire page! (but again not consistently, and never in IE) Even the most fundamental UpdatePanel operations like refreshing the content after a button (inside the panel) is clicked, forces the page to reload completely: <asp:Button ID="btnSearch" runat="server" Text="Search" OnClick="btnSearch_Click"></asp:Button> And just to torment me further, I only experience this on my public website, and not in my local development environment, making it a tedious affair for me to find the actual cause! :( Any ideas on why this happens? Why so inconsistently? Has it to do with my UpdatePanel-design? Or does some security setting in Firefox/Chrome that prevent some asynchronous UpdatePanel callbacks? Any help or idea is highly appreciated!

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  • PHP miniwebsever file download

    - by snikolov
    $httpsock = @socket_create_listen("9090"); if (!$httpsock) { print "Socket creation failed!\n"; exit; } while (1) { $client = socket_accept($httpsock); $input = trim(socket_read ($client, 4096)); $input = explode(" ", $input); $input = $input[1]; $fileinfo = pathinfo($input); switch ($fileinfo['extension']) { default: $mime = "text/html"; } if ($input == "/") { $input = "index.html"; } $input = ".$input"; if (file_exists($input) && is_readable($input)) { echo "Serving $input\n"; $contents = file_get_contents($input); $output = "HTTP/1.0 200 OK\r\nServer: APatchyServer\r\nConnection: close\r\nContent-Type: $mime\r\n\r\n$contents"; } else { //$contents = "The file you requested doesn't exist. Sorry!"; //$output = "HTTP/1.0 404 OBJECT NOT FOUND\r\nServer: BabyHTTP\r\nConnection: close\r\nContent-Type: text/html\r\n\r\n$contents"; function openfile() { $filename = "a.pl"; $file = fopen($filename, 'r'); $filesize = filesize($filename); $buffer = fread($file, $filesize); $array = array("Output"=$buffer,"filesize"=$filesize,"filename"=$filename); return $array; } $send = openfile(); $file = $send['filename']; $filesize = $send['filesize']; $output = 'HTTP/1.0 200 OK\r\n'; $output .= "Content-type: application/octet-stream\r\n"; $output .= 'Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="'.$file.'"\r\n'; $output .= "Content-Length:$filesize\r\n"; $output .= "Accept-Ranges: bytes\r\n"; $output .= "Cache-Control: private\n\n"; $output .= $send['Output']; $output .= "Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary"; $output .= "Connection: Keep-Alive\r\n"; } socket_write($client, $output); socket_close ($client); } socket_close ($httpsock); Hello, I am snikolov i am creating a miniwebserver with php and i would like to know how i can send the client a file to download with his browser such as firefox or internet explore i am sending a file to the user to download via sockets, but the cleint is not getting the filename and the information to download can you please help me here,if i declare the file again i get this error in my server Fatal error: Cannot redeclare openfile() (previously declared in C:\User s\fsfdsf\sfdsfsdf\httpd.php:31) in C:\Users\hfghfgh\hfghg\httpd.php on li ne 29, if its possible, i would like to know if the webserver can show much banwdidth the user request via sockets, perl has the same option as php but its more hardcore than php i dont understand much about perl, i even saw that a miniwebserver can show much the client user pulls from the server would it be possible that you can assist me with this coding, i much aprreciate it thank you guys.

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  • Generating custom-form documents from base-form plus XML?

    - by KlaymenDK
    Hi all, this is my first stack overflow, and it's a complex one. Sorry. My task is to generate custom documents from a basic template plus some XML without having a custom form design element for each case. Here's the whole picture: We are building a Lotus Notes (client, not web) application for world-wide application access control; the scope is something like 400.000 users being able to request access to any of 1000+ applications. Each application needs its own request form -- different number of approvers, various info required, that sort of thing. We simply can't have a thousand forms in a database (one per application), and anyway their maintenance really needs to be pushed from the developers to the application owners. So instead of custom forms, we'd like to create a generic "template" form that stores a block of basic fields, but then allows application owners to define another block of fields dynamically -- "I want a mandatory plain-text field named 'Name' here, and then a date field named 'Due' here that must be later than today's date, and then ...". I hope this makes sense (if not, think of it as a generic questionnaire application). I pretty much have the structure in place for designing the dynamic fields (form builder GUI - XML-encoded data - pre-rendered DXL for injecting into a form), including mark-up for field types, value options, and rudimentary field validation instructions. My problem is generating a document with this dynamic content injected at the proper location (without needing a custom form design element for each case). Doing the dynamic content via HTML is out. The Notes client web rendering is simply way too poor, and it would be quite a challenge to implement things like field validation instructions, date selectors, and name look-ups. DXL, on the other hand, would allow us to use native Notes fields and code. As a tech demo, I've managed to implement a custom form generator that injects the pre-rendered DXL for the dynamic content into a base form; but as I said, we don't want a ton of custom form design elements. I've tried to implement a way to create a document with the "store form in document" flag set, but once I've created the document from the base form, I can't get DXL access to the stored form design, and so I can't inject my dynamic content. I know this is not something Notes was ever intended to do. Has anyone ever tried something like it (and gotten away with it)? Thanks for reading this far. With a boatload of thanks in advance, Jan Gundtofte-Bruun

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  • Child data grid is not showing the values in the page

    - by prince23
    hi, Child data grid is not showing the values in the page for the child datagrid I am binding with an list <sdk:DataGrid MinHeight="100" x:Name="contacts" Margin="51,21,88,98" RowDetailsVisibilityChanged="contacts_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged" LoadingRowDetails="contacts_LoadingRowDetails" RowDetailsVisibilityMode="VisibleWhenSelected" MouseLeftButtonUp="contacts_MouseLeftButtonUp" MouseLeftButtonDown="contacts_MouseLeftButtonDown"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding EmployeeID}" Header="ID" /> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding EmployeeFName}" Header="Fname" /> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding EmployeeLName}" Header="LName" /> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Binding="{Binding EmployeeMailID}" Header="MailID" /> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> <DataTemplate> <sdk:DataGrid x:Name="dgrdRowDetail" Width="200" AutoGenerateColumns="False" HorizontalAlignment="Center" IsReadOnly="True"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Header="CompanyName" Binding="{Binding Company name}"/> <sdk:DataGridTextColumn Header="CompanyName" Binding="{Binding EmpID}"/> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> </sdk:DataGrid> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGrid.RowDetailsTemplate> </sdk:DataGrid> I am having 2 grids "contacts" and "dgrdRowDetail" globally i have defined an variable like this:- DataGrid dgrdRowDetail; in the contacts_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged event I have this code if (e.Row.DataContext != null) { string strEmpID = ((SilverlightApplication1.DBServiceEMP.Employee)((e.DetailsElement).DataContext)).EmployeeID; dgrdRowDetail = (DataGrid)e.DetailsElement.FindName("dgrdRowDetail"); // here i am finding the child datgrid control in contacts datagrid // then in dgrdRowDetail i will be binding this grid with new values if (strEmpID != null) { int EmpID = Convert.ToInt32(strEmpID.ToString()); DBServiceEmp.GetEmployeeIDCompleted += new EventHandler<GetEmployeeIDCompletedEventArgs>(DBServiceEmp_GetEmployeeIDCompleted); DBServiceEmp.GetEmployeeIDAsync(EmpID); } } this is my method void DBServiceEmp_GetEmployeeIDCompleted(object sender, GetEmployeeIDCompletedEventArgs e) { // List<Employee> Employes = new List<Employee>(); List<Employee> rows = new List<Employee>(); for (int i = 0; i < e.Result.Count; i++) { rows.Add(e.Result[i]); } dgrdRowDetail.ItemsSource = rows; // here i am binding the child datagrid with new data source } dgrdRowDetail.ItemsSource = rows// what ever rows i am binding to dgrdRowDetail are not shown in the page if i check the rows i am able to see the value ther. but in the child grid it is not reflecting plz plz help me out i am struck thanks in advance prince

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  • Hibernate updating records and implementing listeners : getting only required attribute values for event.getOldState()

    - by Narendra
    Hi All, I am using Hibernate 3 as my persistence framework. Below is the sample hbm file I am using. <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <hibernate-mapping> <class name="com.test.User" table="user"> <meta attribute="implements">com.test.dao.interfaces.IEntity</meta> <id name="key" type="long" column="user_key"> <generator class="increment" /> </id> <property name="userName" column="user_name" not-null="true" type="string" /> <property name="password" column="password" not-null="true" type="string" /> <property name="firstName" column="first_name" not-null="true" type="string" /> <property name="lastName" column="last_name" not-null="true" type="string" /> <property name="createdDate" column="created_date" not-null="true" type="timestamp" insert="false" update="false" /> <property name="createdBy" column="created_by" not-null="true" type="string" update="false" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I am added a post-update listener. What it will do is if there any updations perfomed on User then it will be invoked and cahnges will be inserted to audit table. Below is the sample implementation for postupdate event. public void onPostUpdate(PostUpdateEvent event) { LogHelper.info(logger, "Begin - onPostUpdate " + event.getEntity().getClass().getSimpleName()); if (!this.checkForAudit(event.getEntity().getClass().getSimpleName())) { // check do we need to audit it. } // Get Attribute Names String[] attrNames = event.getPersister().getEntityMetamodel() .getPropertyNames(); Object[] oldobjectValue = c Object[] newObjectValue = event.getState(); this.auditDetailsEvent(attrNames, oldobjectValue, newObjectValue); LogHelper.info(logger, "End - onPostUpdate"); // return false; } Here is my requirement. event.getPersister().getEntityMetamodel() .getPropertyNames(); or event.getOldState(); or event.getState(); must return attribute names or value which i can update or insert. Is there any way to control the return values of above one's. Pleas help me on this regard. Thanks, Narendra

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  • Moving a unit precisely along a path in x,y coordinates

    - by Adam Eberbach
    I am playing around with a strategy game where squads move around a map. Each turn a certain amount of movement is allocated to a squad and if the squad has a destination the points are applied each turn until the destination is reached. Actual distance is used so if a squad moves one position in the x or y direction it uses one point, but moving diagonally takes ~1.4 points. The squad maintains actual position as float which is then rounded to allow drawing the position on the map. The path is described by touching the squad and dragging to the end position then lifting the pen or finger. (I'm doing this on an iPhone now but Android/Qt/Windows Mobile would work the same) As the pointer moves x, y points are recorded so that the squad gains a list of intermediate destinations on the way to the final destination. I'm finding that the destinations are not evenly spaced but can be further apart depending on the speed of the pointer movement. Following the path is important because obstacles or terrain matter in this game. I'm not trying to remake Flight Control but that's a similar mechanic. Here's what I've been doing, but it just seems too complicated (pseudocode): getDestination() { - self.nextDestination = remove_from_array(destinations) - self.gradient = delta y to destination / delta x to destination - self.angle = atan(self.gradient) - self.cosAngle = cos(self.angle) - self.sinAngle = sin(self.angle) } move() { - get movement allocation for this turn - if self.nextDestination not valid - - getNextDestination() - while(nextDestination valid) && (movement allocation remains) { - - find xStep and yStep using movement allocation and sinAngle/cosAngle calculated for current self.nextDestination - - if current position + xStep crosses the destination - - - find x movement remaining after self.nextDestination reached - - - calculate remaining direct path movement allocation (xStep remaining / cosAngle) - - - make self.position equal to self.nextDestination - - else - - - apply xStep and yStep to current position - } - round squad's float coordinates to integer screen coordinates - draw squad image on map } That's simplified of course, stuff like sign needs to be tweaked to ensure movement is in the right direction. If trig is the best way to do it then lookup tables can be used or maybe it doesn't matter on modern devices like it used to. Suggestions for a better way to do it? an update - iPhone has zero issues with trig and tracking tens of positions and tracks implemented as described above and it draws in floats anyway. The Bresenham method is more efficient, trig is more precise. If I was to use integer Bresenham I would want to multiply by ten or so to maintain a little more positional accuracy to benefit collisions/terrain detection.

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  • Separate specific #ifdef branches

    - by detly
    In short: I want to generate two different source trees from the current one, based only on one preprocessor macro being defined and another being undefined, with no other changes to the source. If you are interested, here is my story... In the beginning, my code was clean. Then we made a new product, and yea, it was better. But the code saw only the same peripheral devices, so we could keep the same code. Well, almost. There was one little condition that needed to be changed, so I added: #if defined(PRODUCT_A) condition = checkCat(); #elif defined(PRODUCT_B) condition = checkCat() && checkHat(); #endif ...to one and only one source file. In the general all-source-files-include-this header file, I had: #if !(defined(PRODUCT_A)||defined(PRODUCT_B)) #error "Don't make me replace you with a small shell script. RTFM." #endif ...so that people couldn't compile it unless they explicitly defined a product type. All was well. Oh... except that modifications were made, components changed, and since the new hardware worked better we could significantly re-write the control systems. Now when I look upon the face of the code, there are more than 60 separate areas delineated by either: #ifdef PRODUCT_A ... #else ... #endif ...or the same, but for PRODUCT_B. Or even: #if defined(PRODUCT_A) ... #elif defined(PRODUCT_B) ... #endif And of course, sometimes sanity took a longer holiday and: #ifdef PRODUCT_A ... #endif #ifdef PRODUCT_B ... #endif These conditions wrap anywhere from one to two hundred lines (you'd think that the last one could be done by switching header files, but the function names need to be the same). This is insane. I would be better off maintaining two separate product-based branches in the source repo and porting any common changes. I realise this now. Is there something that can generate the two different source trees I need, based only on PRODUCT_A being defined and PRODUCT_B being undefined (and vice-versa), without touching anything else (ie. no header inclusion, no macro expansion, etc)?

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  • Using GA in GUI

    - by AlexT
    Sorry if this isn't clear as I'm writing this on a mobile device and I'm trying to make it quick. I've written a basic Genetic Algorithm with a binary encoding (genes) that builds a fitness value and evolves through several iterations using tournament selection, mutation and crossover. As a basic command-line example it seems to work. The problem I've got is with applying a genetic algorithm within a GUI as I am writing a maze-solving program that uses the GA to find a method through a maze. How do I turn my random binary encoded genes and fitness function (add all the binary values together) into a method to control a bot around a maze? I have built a basic GUI in Java consisting of a maze of labels (like a grid) with the available routes being in blue and the walls being in black. To reiterate my GA performs well and contains what any typical GA would (fitness method, get and set population, selection, crossover, etc) but now I need to plug it into a GUI to get my maze running. What needs to go where in order to get a bot that can move in different directions depending on what the GA says? Rough pseudocode would be great if possible As requested, an Individual is built using a separate class (Indiv), with all the main work being done in a Pop class. When a new individual is instantiated an array of ints represent the genes of said individual, with the genes being picked at random from a number between 0 and 1. The fitness function merely adds together the value of these genes and in the Pop class handles selection, mutation and crossover of two selected individuals. There's not much else to it, the command line program just shows evolution over n generations with the total fitness improving over each iteration. EDIT: It's starting to make a bit more sense now, although there are a few things that are bugging me... As Adamski has suggested I want to create an "Agent" with the options shown below. The problem I have is where the random bit string comes into play here. The agent knows where the walls are and has it laid out in a 4 bit string (i.e. 0111), but how does this affect the random 32 bit string? (i.e. 10001011011001001010011011010101) If I have the following maze (x is the start place, 2 is the goal, 1 is the wall): x 1 1 1 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 2 If I turn left I'm facing the wrong way and the agent will move completely off the maze if it moves forward. I assume that the first generation of the string will be completely random and it will evolve as the fitness grows but I don't get how the string will work within a maze. So, to get this straight... The fitness is the result of when the agent is able to move and is by a wall. The genes are a string of 32 bits, split into 16 sets of 2 bits to show the available actions and for the robot to move the two bits need to be passed with four bits from the agent showings its position near the walls. If the move is to go past a wall the move isn't made and it is deemed invalid and if the move is made and if a new wall is found then the fitness goes up. Is that right?

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  • Silverlight MVVM MEF ViewInjection

    - by silverfighter
    Hi all, since my title is buzzword compliant I hope I will get lots of answers to my question or any pointers to the right direction. OK what I usually do is have a ViewModel which contains a list of ViewModels itself. public class MasterViewModel { public ObservableCollection<DetailViewModel> DetailViewModels { get; set; } public DetailViewModel Detail { get; set; } } <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding DetailViewModels}"> <ItemsControl> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <StackPanel /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ItemsControl> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <views:DetailsView /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> With this in mind I will now come to my questions. I read a lot of good things about MEF and also saw the dashboard sample of Glenn Block but this was not helping me enough. What I want to do is sidbar (like the windows sidebar). Sidebar = StackPanel ListItems = Gadget ButI want it MVVM style OK I have something like a contract IGadget I implemented an custom Export. [ExportGadget(GadgetType = GadgetTypes.News)] I have my NewsGadgetView.xaml (which implements IGadget) and imports the NewsGadgetViewModel and also makes itself available as ExportGadget. so far so good. With this I can create a set of gadgets. Then I have my SidbarView.xaml which imports a sidebarViewModel. and now I get lost... I thought of something like a GadgetFactory which uses PartCreator to create my Gadgets. but this would sit in my SidebarView.xaml But I want to have control over my Gadgets to add and remove them from my sidebar. So I thought about something like an ObserveableCollection... Which I bind to The GadgetHost is basicaly Grid which will dynamicaly load the Gadget.... So how would I create my sidebar containing different gadgets without knowing which Gadgets are available and have a ViewModel for the sidebar as well as for each gadget?... Thanks for any help....

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  • What is the most elegant way to implement a business rule relating to a child collection in LINQ?

    - by AaronSieb
    I have two tables in my database: Wiki WikiId ... WikiUser WikiUserId (PK) WikiId UserId IsOwner ... These tables have a one (Wiki) to Many (WikiUser) relationship. How would I implement the following business rule in my LINQ entity classes: "A Wiki must have exactly one owner?" I've tried updating the tables as follows: Wiki WikiId (PK) OwnerId (FK to WikiUser) ... WikiUser WikiUserId (PK) WikiId UserId ... This enforces the constraint, but if I remove the owner's WikiUser record from the Wiki's WikiUser collection, I recieve an ugly SqlException. This seems like it would be difficult to catch and handle in the UI. Is there a way to perform this check before the SqlException is generated? A better way to structure my database? A way to catch and translate the SqlException to something more useful? Edit: I would prefer to keep the validation rules within the LINQ entity classes if possible. Edit 2: Some more details about my specific situation. In my application, the user should be able to remove users from the Wiki. They should be able to remove any user, except the user who is currently flagged as the "owner" of the Wiki (a Wiki must have exactly one owner at all times). In my control logic, I'd like to use something like this: wiki.WikiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); mRepository.Save(); And have any broken rules transferred to the UI layer. What I DON'T want to have to do is this: if(wikiUser.WikiUserId != wiki.OwnerId) { wiki.WikiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); mRepository.Save(); } else { //Handle errors. } I also don't particularly want to move the code to my repository (because there is nothing to indicate not to use the native Remove functions), so I also DON'T want code like this: mRepository.RemoveWikiUser(wiki, wikiUser) mRepository.Save(); This WOULD be acceptable: try { wiki.WikiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); mRepository.Save(); } catch(ValidationException ve) { //Display ve.Message } But this catches too many errors: try { wiki.WikiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); mRepository.Save(); } catch(SqlException se) { //Display se.Message } I would also PREFER NOT to explicitly call a business rule check (although it may become necessary): wiki.WIkiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); if(wiki.CheckRules()) { mRepository.Save(); } else { //Display broken rules }

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  • Assign an existing click event function to another click event using jquery

    - by Peter Delahunty
    Ok so i have some html like this: <div id="navigation"> <ul> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li class="selected"> <a>tab name</a> <span class="tab-del-btn">X</span> </li> </ul> </div> I then have javascript that is excuted on the page that i do not control (this is in liferay portal). I want to then manipulate things afterwards with my own custom javascript. SO... For each of the span.delete-tab elements an on-click event function has been assign earlier. It is the same function call for each span. I want to take that function (any) and call it from the click event of the span.tab-del-btn ? This is what i tried to do: var navigation = jQuery('#navigation'); var navTabs = navigation.find('.delete-tab'); var existingDeleteFunction = null; navTabs.each(function (i){ var tab = jQuery(this); existingDeleteFunction = tab.click; }); var selectedTab = jQuery('#navigation li.selected'); var deleteBtn = selectedTab.find('.tab-del-btn'); deleteBtn.click(function(event){ existingDeleteFunction.call(this); }); It does not work though. existingDeleteFunction is not the original function it is some jquery default function. Any ideas?

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  • After downloading an application with two Launcher components from the Marketplace, clicking "Open"

    - by user267728
    Create a sample application with two launcher icons. For example, two components such as: <application ...> <activity ... android:name="TestActivity01"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> <activity ... android:name="TestActivity02"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> Either install the application via downloading from the Marketplace, or via AppInstaller. When the message box asks you if you would like to run the application, an exception is thrown: 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): android.content.ActivityNotFoundException: Unable to find explicit activity class {com.xxx.xxx/com.android.internal.app.ResolverActivity}; have you declared this activity in your AndroidManifest.xml? 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.app.Instrumentation.checkStartActivityResult(Instrumentation.java:1 480) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.app.Instrumentation.execStartActivity(Instrumentation.java:1454) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.app.Activity.startActivityForResult(Activity.java:2660) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.app.Activity.startActivity(Activity.java:2704) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at com.android.packageinstaller.InstallAppDone.onClick(InstallAppDone.java:105 ) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.view.View.performClick(View.java:2344) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.view.View.onTouchEvent(View.java:4133) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.widget.TextView.onTouchEvent(TextView.java:6504) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.view.View.dispatchTouchEvent(View.java:3672) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:882) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:882) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:882) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.view.ViewGroup.dispatchTouchEvent(ViewGroup.java:882) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow$DecorView.superDispatchTouchEv ent(PhoneWindow.java:1712) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow.superDispatchTouchEvent(PhoneW indow.java:1202) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.app.Activity.dispatchTouchEvent(Activity.java:1987) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at com.android.internal.policy.impl.PhoneWindow$DecorView.dispatchTouchEvent(P honeWindow.java:1696) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.view.ViewRoot.handleMessage(ViewRoot.java:1658) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4203) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java: 791) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:549) 02-03 16:42:44.270: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(395): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) The crash happens because com.android.internal.app.ResolverActivity is trying to find a (single) component which resolves the following intent: <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> Please note that this has been tested BOTH with the AppInstaller, and the actual Marketplace on a real device.

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  • Unset/Change Binding in WPF

    - by captcalamares
    How can I unset the binding applied to an object so that I can apply another binding to it from a different location? Suppose I have two data templates binded to the same object reference. Data Template #1 is the default template to be loaded. I try to bind a button command to a Function1 from my DataContext class: <Button Content="Button 1" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function1, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}"/> This actually works and the function gets binded. However, when I try to load Data Template # 2 to the same object (while trying to bind another button command to a different function (Function2) from my DataContext class): <Button Content="Button 2" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function2, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" /> It doesn't work and the first binding is still the one executed. Is there a workaround to this? EDIT (for better problem context): I defined my templates in my Window.Resources: <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel1}"> <local:View1 /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel2}"> <local:View2 /> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> The View1.xaml and the View2.xaml contain the button definitions that I described above (I want them to command the control of my process flow). ViewModel1 and ViewModel2 are my ViewModels that implement the interface IPageViewModel which is the type of my variable CurrentPageViewModel. In my XAML, I binded ContentControl to the variable CurrentPageViewModel: <ContentControl Content="{Binding CurrentPageViewModel}" HorizontalAlignment="Center"/> In my .CS, I have a list defined as List<IPageViewModel> PageViewModels, which I use to contain the instances of my two View Models: PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel1()); PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel2()); // Set starting page CurrentPageViewModel = PageViewModels[0]; When I try to change my CurrentPageViewModel to the other view model, this is when I want the new binding to work. Unfortunately, it doesn't. Am I doing things the right way?

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