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  • How to open the download window when a dynamically created link is clicked in asp.net

    - by Ranjana
    i have stored the txtfile in the database.i need to show the txtfile when i clik the link. and this link has to be created dynamically. my code below: aspx code: aspx.cs protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if(!Page.IsPostBack) { DataTable dtassignment = new DataTable(); dtassignment = serviceobj.DisplayAssignment(Session["staffname"].ToString()); if (dtassignment != null) { Byte[] bytes = (Byte[])dtassignment.Rows[0]["Data"]; //download(dtassignment); } divlink.InnerHtml = ""; divlink.Visible = true; foreach (DataRow r in dtassignment.Rows) { divlink.InnerHtml += "<a href='" + "'onclick='download(dtassignment)'>" + r["Filename"].ToString() + "</a>" + "<br/>"; } } } - public void download(DataTable dtassignment) { System.Diagnostics.Debugger.Break(); Byte[] bytes = (Byte[])dtassignment.Rows[0]["Data"]; Response.Buffer = true; Response.Charset = ""; Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); Response.ContentType = dtassignment.Rows[0]["ContentType"].ToString(); Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment;filename=" + dtassignment.Rows[0]["FileName"].ToString()); Response.BinaryWrite(bytes); Response.Flush(); Response.End(); } i have got the link dynamically, but i did not able to download the txtfile when i clik the link. how to carry out this. pls help me out...

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  • pthreads: reader/writer locks, upgrading read lock to write lock

    - by ScaryAardvark
    I'm using read/write locks on Linux and I've found that trying to upgrade a read locked object to a write lock deadlocks. i.e. // acquire the read lock in thread 1. pthread_rwlock_rdlock( &lock ); // make a decision to upgrade the lock in threads 1. pthread_rwlock_wrlock( &lock ); // this deadlocks as already hold read lock. I've read the man page and it's quite specific. The calling thread may deadlock if at the time the call is made it holds the read-write lock (whether a read or write lock). What is the best way to upgrade a read lock to a write lock in these circumstances.. I don't want to introduce a race on the variable I'm protecting. Presumably I can create another mutex to encompass the releasing of the read lock and the acquiring of the write lock but then I don't really see the use of read/write locks. I might as well simply use a normal mutex. Thx

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  • How do I authenticate regarding EJB3 Container ?

    - by FMR
    I have my business classes protected by EJB3 security annotations, now I would like to call these methods from a Spring controller, how do I do it? edit I will add some information about my setup, I'm using Tomcat for the webcontainer and OpenEJB for embedding EJB into tomcat. I did not settle on any version of spring so it's more or less open to suggestions. edit current setup works this way : I have a login form + controller that puts a User pojo inside SessionContext. Each time someone access a secured part of the site, the application checks for the User pojo, if it's there check roles and then show the page, if it's not show a appropriate message or redirect to login page. Now the bussiness calls are made thanks to a call method inside User which bypass a probable security context which is a remix of this code found in openejb security examples : Caller managerBean = (Caller) context.lookup("ManagerBeanLocal"); managerBean.call(new Callable() { public Object call() throws Exception { Movies movies = (Movies) context.lookup("MoviesLocal"); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Quentin Tarantino", "Reservoir Dogs", 1992)); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Joel Coen", "Fargo", 1996)); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Joel Coen", "The Big Lebowski", 1998)); List<Movie> list = movies.getMovies(); assertEquals("List.size()", 3, list.size()); for (Movie movie : list) { movies.deleteMovie(movie); } assertEquals("Movies.getMovies()", 0, movies.getMovies().size()); return null; } });

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  • for cycle not works allright

    - by joseph
    Hello. I call addNotify() method in class that I posted here. The problem is, that when I call addNotify() as it is in the code, setKeys(objs) do nothing. Nothing appears in my explorer of running app. But when I call addNotify()without loop(for int....), and add only one item to ArrayList, it shows that one item correctly. Does anybody knows where can be problem? See the cede class ProjectsNode extends Children.Keys{ private ArrayList objs = new ArrayList(); public ProjectsNode() { } @Override protected Node[] createNodes(Object o) { MainProject obj = (MainProject) o; AbstractNode result = new AbstractNode (new DiagramsNode(), Lookups.singleton(obj)); result.setDisplayName (obj.getName()); return new Node[] { result }; } @Override protected void addNotify() { //this loop causes nothing appears in my explorer. //but when I replace this loop by single line "objs.add(new MainProject("project1000"));", it shows that one item in explorer for (int i=0;i==10;i++){ objs.add(new MainProject("project1000")); } setKeys (objs); } }

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  • What is the way to go to fake my database layer in a unit test?

    - by Michel
    Hi, i have a question about unit testing. say i have a controller with one create method which puts a new customer in the database: //code a bit shortened public actionresult Create(Formcollection formcollection){ client c = nwe client(); c.Name = formcollection["name"]; ClientService.Save(c); { Clientservice would call a datalayer object and save it in the database. What i do now is create a database testscript and set my database in a know condition before testing. So when i test this method in the unit test, i know that there must be one more client in the database, and what it's name is. In short: ClientController cc = new ClientController(); cc.Create(new FormCollection (){name="John"}); //i know i had 10 clients before assert.areEqual(11, ClientService.GetNumberOfClients()); //the last inserted one is John assert.areEqual("John", ClientService.GetAllClients()[10].Name); So i've read that unit testing should not be hitting the database, i've setup an IOC for the database classes, but then what? I can create a fake database class, and make it do nothing. But then ofcourse my assertions will not work because if i say GetNumberOfClients() it will alwasy return X because it has no interaction with the fake database class used in the Create Method. I can also create a List of Clients in the fake database class, but as there will be two different instance created (one in the controller action and one in the unit test), they will have no interaction. What is the way to make this unit test work without a database?

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  • 401 Unauthorized returned on GET request (https) with correct credentials

    - by Johnny Grass
    I am trying to login to my web app using HttpWebRequest but I keep getting the following error: System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized. Fiddler has the following output: Result Protocol Host URL 200 HTTP CONNECT mysite.com:443 302 HTTPS mysite.com /auth 401 HTTP mysite.com /auth This is what I'm doing: // to ignore SSL certificate errors public bool AcceptAllCertifications(object sender, System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates.X509Certificate certification, System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates.X509Chain chain, System.Net.Security.SslPolicyErrors sslPolicyErrors) { return true; } try { // request Uri uri = new Uri("https://mysite.com/auth"); HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(uri) as HttpWebRequest; request.Accept = "application/xml"; // authentication string user = "user"; string pwd = "secret"; string auth = "Basic " + Convert.ToBase64String(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetBytes(user + ":" + pwd)); request.Headers.Add("Authorization", auth); ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback = new System.Net.Security.RemoteCertificateValidationCallback(AcceptAllCertifications); // response. HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); // Display Stream dataStream = response.GetResponseStream(); StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(dataStream); string responseFromServer = reader.ReadToEnd(); Console.WriteLine(responseFromServer); // Cleanup reader.Close(); dataStream.Close(); response.Close(); } catch (WebException webEx) { Console.Write(webEx.ToString()); } I am able to log in to the same site with no problem using ASIHTTPRequest in a Mac app like this: NSURL *login_url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"https://mysite.com/auth"]; ASIHTTPRequest *request = [ASIHTTPRequest requestWithURL:login_url]; [request setDelegate:self]; [request setUsername:name]; [request setPassword:pwd]; [request setRequestMethod:@"GET"]; [request addRequestHeader:@"Accept" value:@"application/xml"]; [request startAsynchronous];

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  • What is the base open source java package to filter/match URLs?

    - by Boaz
    Hi, I have an high performance application which deals with URLs. For every URL it needs to retrieve the appropriate settings from a predefined pool. Every settings object is associated with a URL pattern which indicates which URLs should use these settings. The matching rules are as follows: "google.com" match pattern should match all URLs pointing to the google domain (thus, maps.google.com and www.google.com/match are matched). "*.google.com" should match all URLs pointing to a subdomain of google.com (thus, maps.google.com matches, but google.com and www.google.com don't). "maps.google.com" should match all URLs pointing to this specific subdomain. Apart from the above rules, every match rule can contain a path, which means that the path part of the URL should start with the match rule path. So: "*.google.com/maps" matches "maps.google.com/maps" but not "maps.google.com/advanced". As you can see the rules above are overlapping. In the case two rules exist which match the same URL the most specific should apply. The list above is ranked from least specific to most specific. This seems to be such a standard problem that I was hoping to use a ready made library rather than program my self. Google reveals a couple of options but without a clear way to choose between them. What would you recommend as a good library for this task? Thanks, Boaz

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  • Calling a subclass method from a superclass

    - by Shaun
    Preface: This is in the context of a Rails application. The question, however, is specific to Ruby. Let's say I have a Media object. class Media < ActiveRecord::Base end I've extended it in a few subclasses: class Image < Media def show # logic end end class Video < Media def show # logic end end From within the Media class, I want to call the implementation of show from the proper subclass. So, from Media, if self is a Video, then it would call Video's show method. If self is instead an Image, it would call Image's show method. Coming from a Java background, the first thing that popped into my head was 'create an abstract method in the superclass'. However, I've read in several places (including Stack Overflow) that abstract methods aren't the best way to deal with this in Ruby. With that in mind, I started researching typecasting and discovered that this is also a relic of Java thinking that I need to banish from my mind when dealing with Ruby. Defeated, I started coding something that looked like this: def superclass_method # logic this_media = self.type.constantize.find(self.id) this_media.show end I've been coding in Ruby/Rails for a while now, but since this was my first time trying out this behavior and existing resources didn't answer my question directly, I wanted to get feedback from more-seasoned developers on how to accomplish my task. So, how can I call a subclass's implementation of a method from the superclass in Rails? Is there a better way than what I ended up (almost) implementing?

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  • FindControl() from UserControl inside a for loop

    - by Kyle
    I'm creating a usercontrol that will have a series of LinkButtons. I've declared all of my link buttons at the top of my class LinkButton LB1 = new LinkButton(); LinkButton LB2 = new LinkButton(); //... LinkButton LB9 = new LinkButton(); now I'd like to be able to create a loop to access all of those link buttons so I don't have to write them all out every time. I tried something like this within my overridden CreateChildControls() method: for (int i = 1; i < 10; i++) { LinkButton lb = (LinkButton)FindControl("LB" + i.ToString()); lb.Text = i.ToString() + "-Button"; } I keep getting an exception saying that lb.Text... is not set to an instance of an object. I also tried giving all of my LB1, LB2 etc valid Ids. ie: LB1.ID = "LB1"; still not dice. how can I do this?

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  • Complex SQL query, one to many relationship

    - by Ethan
    Hey SO, I have a query such that I need to get A specific dog All comments relating to that dog The user who posted each comment All links to images of the dog the user who posted each link I've tried a several things, and can't figure out quite how to work it. Here's what I have (condensed so you don't have to wade through it all): SELECT s.dog_id, s.name, c.comment, c.date_added AS comment_date_added, u.username AS comment_username, u.user_id AS comment_user_id, l.link AS link, l.date_added AS link_date_added, u2.username AS link_username, u2.user_id AS link_user_id FROM dogs AS d LEFT JOIN comments AS c ON c.dog_id = d.dog_id LEFT JOIN users AS u ON c.user_id = u.user_id LEFT JOIN links AS l ON l.dog_id = d.dog_id LEFT JOIN users AS u2 ON l.user_id = u2.user_id WHERE d.dog_id = '1' It's sorta close to working, but it'll only return me the first comment, and the first link all as one big array with all the info i requested. The are multiple comments and links per dog, so I need it to give me all the comments and all the links. Ideally it'd return an object with dog_id, name, comments(an array of the comments), links(an array of the links) and then comments would have a bunch of comments, date_added, username, and user_id and links would have a bunch of links with link, date_added, username and user_id. It's got to work even if there are no links or comments. I learned the basics of mySQL somewhat recently, but this is pretty far over my head. Any help would be wonderful. Thanks!

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  • problems with Console.SetOut in Release Mode?

    - by Matt Jacobsen
    i have a bunch of Console.WriteLines in my code that I can observe at runtime. I communicate with a native library that I also wrote. I'd like to stick some printf's in the native library and observe them too. I don't see them at runtime however. I've created a convoluted hello world app to demonstrate my problem. When the app runs, I can debug into the native library and see that the hello world is called. The output never lands in the textwriter though. Note that if the same code is run as a console app then everything works fine. C#: [DllImport("native.dll")] static extern void Test(); StreamWriter writer; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); writer = new StreamWriter(@"c:\output.txt"); writer.AutoFlush = true; System.Console.SetOut(writer); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Test(); } and the native part: __declspec(dllexport) void Test() { printf("Hello World"); } Update: hamishmcn below started talking about debug/release builds. I removed the native call in the above button1_click method and just replaced it with a standard Console.WriteLine .net call. When I compiled and ran this in debug mode the messages were redirected to the output file. When I switched to release mode however the calls weren't redirected. Console redirection only seems to work in debug mode. How do I get around this?

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  • boost::shared_ptr in Objective-C++

    - by John Smith
    This is a better understanding of a question I had earlier. I have the following Objective-C++ object @interface OCPP { MyCppobj * cppobj; } @end @implementation OCPP -(OCPP *) init { cppobj = new MyCppobj; } @end Then I create a completely differently obj which needs to use cppobj in a boost::shared_ptr (I have no choice in this matter, it's part of a huge library which I cannot change) @interface NOBJ -(void) use_cppobj_as_shared_ptr { //get an OCPP obj called occ from somewhere.. //troubling line here } @end I have tried the following and that failed: I tried synthesising cppobj. Then I created a shared_ptr in "troubling line" in the following way: MyCppobj * cpp = [occ cppobj]; bsp = boost::shared_ptr<MyCppobj>(cpp); It works fine first time around. Then I destroy the NOBJ and recreate it. When I for cppobj it's gone. Presumably shared_ptr decided it's no longer needed and did away with it. So I need help. How can I keep cppobj alive? Is there a way to destroy bsp (or it's reference to cppobj) without destroying cppobj?

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  • Constraining to parent container with MouseDragElementBehavior

    - by anonymous
    Hi all, I just had a question regarding constraining a control's drag and drop movement to its parent canvas. I tried using the ConstrainToParentBounds property on the MouseDragElementBehavior, however, when this is used the drag must be done really slowly or the movement of the control is choppy or stops altogether. So I am attempting to implement my own boundary constraints. I seem to be running into difficulty though. I am still using the MouseDragElementBehavior but am attempting to supplement it by also handling mouseleftbuttondown, mousemove, mouseleftbuttonup events. I know that these are working (haven't been overridden by the MouseDragElementBehavior) as I have tested them using other methods. I will post my current code below: private void Control_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { MyControl mc = (MyControl)sender; Canvas canvas = (Canvas)mc.parent; GeneralTransform ct = canvas.TransformToVisual(Application.Current.RootVisual as UIElement; Point canvas_offset = ct.Transform(new Point(0,0)); double canvasTop = canvas_offset.Y; double canvasLeft = canvas_offset.X; GeneralTransform gt = mc.TransformToVisual(Application.Current.RootVisual as UIElement); Point offset = gt.Transform(new Point(0,0)); double controlTop = offset.Y; double controlLeft = offset.X; if(isMouseCaptured) { if(controlTop < canvasTop) { mc.Opacity = 1; //to test if conditions are being met, seems to indicate ok mc.setValue(Canvas.TopProperty, canvasTop); } if(controlLeft < canvasLeft) { mc.Opacity = 1; mc.setValue(Canvas.TopProperty, canvasTop); } } } This is what my code looks like at the moment (I realize there is nothing there for right/bottom). I've tried a bunch of different things at this point and none of them seem to give the desired result; the control's movement is still not constrained to the canvas. Any help/pointers would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • JQuery UI Tabs - replace tab and contents

    - by Tauren
    What is the best way to replace the currently selected tab and its contents? The content is dynamically generated with jquery, not loaded via a URL. I need to do this from outside of any tab code or tab event handler (show, add, etc.). There is a link elsewhere on the page that should do the following when clicked: Change the tab's title Change the tab's className Clear out all elements of the tabcontent div Change the tabcontent div's className Generate new content inside the tabcontent div Note that the only reference this link's click() handler has is to the JQuery tabs object ($Tabs). I can get the selected tab with $Tabs.tabs('option','selected'). But how can I get a reference to the selected tab's tab and panel? Inside of a jquery tab handler (show, add, etc.), I have access to ui.tab and ui.panel, but is there a way to get them from a tabs option? Would it be better to simply remove the currently selected tab and then add a new tab in the same index location? I'd have to put the code to generate the tab content into the add() handler then I suppose.

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  • Using a string inside the DocumentBuilder parse method (need it for parsing XML using XPath)

    - by dierre
    Hi guys! I'm trying to create a RESTful webservice using a Java Servlet. The problem is I have to pass via POST method to a webserver a request. The content of this request is not a parameter but the body itself. So I basically send from ruby something like this: url = URI.parse(@host) req = Net::HTTP::Post.new('/WebService/WebServiceServlet') req['Content-Type'] = "text/xml" # req.basic_auth 'account', 'password' req.body = data response = Net::HTTP.start(url.host, url.port){ |http| puts http.request(req).body } Then I have to retrieve the body of this request in my servlet. I use the classic readline, so I have a string. The problem is when I have to parse it as XML: private void useXML( final String soft, final PrintWriter out) throws ParserConfigurationException, SAXException, IOException, XPathExpressionException, FileNotFoundException { DocumentBuilderFactory domFactory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); domFactory.setNamespaceAware(true); // never forget this! DocumentBuilder builder = domFactory.newDocumentBuilder(); Document doc = builder.parse(soft); XPathFactory factory = XPathFactory.newInstance(); XPath xpath = factory.newXPath(); XPathExpression expr = xpath.compile("//software/text()"); Object result = expr.evaluate(doc, XPathConstants.NODESET); NodeList nodes = (NodeList) result; for (int i = 0; i < nodes.getLength(); i++) { out.println(nodes.item(i).getNodeValue()); } } The problem is that builder.parse() accepts: parse(File f), parse(InputSource is), parse(InputStream is). Is there any way I can transform my xml string in an InputSource or something like that? I know it could be a dummy question but Java is not my thing, I'm forced to use it and I'm not very skilled.

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  • Method works on Emulator but no on Microsoft Surface unit?

    - by Roflcoptr
    I have the following code. The StartRecord method trows an error on the Microsoft Surface Unit. But when I'm testing it on the emulator, it all works great. Any hints how 1) to find the exception that is thrown on the Microsoft Surface Unit? 2) to find the error in the code? any assumptions? private void StartRecord(object sender, ContactEventArgs e) { isRecording = true; StartButton.IsEnabled = false; recordTimer = new Timer(10); recordTimer.Elapsed += new ElapsedEventHandler(recordTimer_Elapsed); PlaybackRoot.Visibility = System.Windows.Visibility.Collapsed; EllapsedRecord.Visibility = System.Windows.Visibility.Visible; InputLevel.Visibility = System.Windows.Visibility.Visible; long time = DateTime.Now.Ticks; String fileName = Convert.ToString(time) + ".wav"; Console.WriteLine(fileName); startTime = DateTime.UtcNow; recordTimer.Start(); record = new AudioRecording(fileName); record.getSampleAggregator().MaximumCalculated += new EventHandler<MaxSampleEventArgs>(AudioControl_MaximumCalculated); record.start(); }

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  • Cannot run Python script on Windows with output redirected??

    - by Wai Yip Tung
    This is running on Windows 7 (64 bit), Python 2.6 with Win32 Extensions for Python. I have a simple script that just print "hello world". I can launch it with python hello.py. In this case I can redirect the output to a file. But if I run it by just typing hello.py on the command line and redirect the output, I get an exception. C:> python hello.py hello world C:> python hello.py >output C:> type output hello world C:> hello.py hello world C:> hello.py >output close failed in file object destructor: Error in sys.excepthook: Original exception was: I think I first get this error after upgrading to Windows 7. I remember it should work in XP. I have seen people talking about this bug python-Bugs-1012692 | Can't pipe input to a python program. But that was long time ago. And it does not mention any solution. Have anyone experienced this? Anyone can help?

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  • Connect to a remote Oracle 11g server using OracleClient of .NET 2.0

    - by Raghu M
    I have to connect to a Oracle server on the network using a .NET / C# (Winform) application. I am trying to use System.Data.OracleClient but in vain. Here are the details I can possibly think of (that might help someone reading this question): Platform: Visual Studio 2005 / .NET 2.0 with C# on Windows Vista Home Premium Library: System.Data.OracleClient Server: Oracle 11g (located on the same LAN) Please note that I don't have Oracle installed locally and I have hunted every discussion forum possible for help - but most of them assume local Oracle installation! Here is my connection string: "User Id=TSUSER;Password=ts12TS;Data Source=(DESCRIPTION=(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=TCP)(HOST=MyServerIP)(PORT=1521))(CONNECT_DATA=(SERVICE_NAME=ORCL)));" And I get this error: OCIEnvCreate failed with return code -1 but error message text was not available. Stack trace: at System.Data.OracleClient.OciHandle..ctor(OciHandle parentHandle, HTYPE handleType, MODE ocimode, HANDLEFLAG handleflags) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleInternalConnection.OpenOnLocalTransaction(String userName, String password, String serverName, Boolean integratedSecurity, Boolean unicode, Boolean omitOracleConnectionName) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleInternalConnection..ctor(OracleConnectionString connectionOptions) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.OracleClient.OracleConnection.Open() at DGKit.Util.DataUtil.Generate() in D:\SVNRoot\sandbox\DGDev\Util\DataUtil.cs:line 68

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  • Using Reflection.Emit to emit a "using (x) { ... }" block?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I'm trying to use Reflection.Emit in C# to emit a using (x) { ... } block. At the point I am in code, I need to take the current top of the stack, which is an object that implements IDisposable, store this away in a local variable, implement a using block on that variable, and then inside it add some more code (I can deal with that last part.) Here's a sample C# piece of code I tried to compile and look at in Reflector: public void Test() { TestDisposable disposable = new TestDisposable(); using (disposable) { throw new Exception("Test"); } } This looks like this in Reflector: .method public hidebysig instance void Test() cil managed { .maxstack 2 .locals init ( [0] class LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable disposable, [1] class LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable CS$3$0000, [2] bool CS$4$0001) L_0000: nop L_0001: newobj instance void LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable::.ctor() L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: nop L_000a: ldstr "Test" L_000f: newobj instance void [mscorlib]System.Exception::.ctor(string) L_0014: throw L_0015: ldloc.1 L_0016: ldnull L_0017: ceq L_0019: stloc.2 L_001a: ldloc.2 L_001b: brtrue.s L_0024 L_001d: ldloc.1 L_001e: callvirt instance void [mscorlib]System.IDisposable::Dispose() L_0023: nop L_0024: endfinally .try L_0009 to L_0015 finally handler L_0015 to L_0025 } I have no idea how to deal with that ".try ..." part at the end there when using Reflection.Emit. Can someone point me in the right direction?

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  • Use of Syntactic Sugar / Built in Functionality

    - by Kyle Rozendo
    I was busy looking deeper into things like multi-threading and deadlocking etc. The book is aimed at both pseudo-code and C code and I was busy looking at implementations for things such as Mutex locks and Monitors. This brought to mind the following; in C# and in fact .NET we have a lot of syntactic sugar for doing things. For instance (.NET 3.5): lock(obj) { body } Is identical to: var temp = obj; Monitor.Enter(temp); try { body } finally { Monitor.Exit(temp); } There are other examples of course, such as the using() {} construct etc. My question is when is it more applicable to "go it alone" and literally code things oneself than to use the "syntactic sugar" in the language? Should one ever use their own ways rather than those of people who are more experienced in the language you're coding in? I recall having to not use a Process object in a using block to help with some multi-threaded issues and infinite looping before. I still feel dirty for not having the using construct in there. Thanks, Kyle

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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  • Entity Framework Validation & usage

    - by kmsellers
    I'm aware there is an AssociationChanged event, however, this event fires after the association is made. There is no AssociationChanging event. So, if I want to throw an exception for some validation reason, how do I do this and get back to my original value? Also, I would like to default values for my entity based on information from other entities but do this only when I know the entitiy is instanced for insertion into the database. How do I tell the difference between that and the object getting instanced because it is about to be populated based on existing data? Am I supposed to know? Is that considiered business logic that should be outside of my entity business logic? If that's the case, then should I be designing controller classes to wrap all these entities? My concern is that if I deliver back an entity, I want the client to get access to the properties, but I want to retain tight control over validations on how they are set, defaulted, etc. Every example I've seen references context, which is outside of my enity partial class validation, right? BTW, I looked at the EFPocoAdapter and for the life of me cannot determine how to populate lists of from within my POCO class... anyone know how I get to the context from a EFPoco Class?

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  • .NET Splash screen issues

    - by CODe
    I have a splash screen for my C# database application that is called via the Shown event. The splash screen contains some information that is preprocessed when the main form's constructor is called, hence why I'm using the Shown event, because that information should be available. However, when the splash screen is shown, the main form is whited out, and the menu bar, bottom menu bar, and even the gray background are all white and invisible. It looks like the program is hanging, but after the 5 second delay I have built in, the banner goes away and the program is shown normally. Also, on the banner, I have labels that are not shown when the splash screen displays... Here is my code, some reasoning behind why it isn't working would help greatly. SPLASH SCREEN CODE : public partial class StartupBanner : Form { public StartupBanner(int missingNum, int expiredNum) { InitializeComponent(); missingLabel.Text = missingNum.ToString() + " MISSING POLICIES"; expiredLabel.Text = expiredNum.ToString() + " EXPIRED POLICIES"; } } CALLING CODE : private void MainForm_Shown(object sender, EventArgs e) { StartupBanner startup = new StartupBanner(missingPoliciesNum, expiredPoliciesNum); startup.MdiParent = this; startup.Show(); Thread.Sleep(5000); startup.Close(); } Using startup.ShowDialog() shows the correct label information on the splash screen, but that locks up the application, and I need the splash to go away after about 5 seconds, which is why it's a splash. ;)

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  • Retrieving license type (linux/windows/windows+sqlserver) for an Amazon EC2 instance via the API?

    - by Geir
    I need to calculate the hourly running costs for my Amazon EC2 instances. This varies even between instances with same hardware configs (instance types) because I use different amazon images (AMIs): some plain windows server and some windows server with sql server (both of them have additional costs compared with plain linux instances) The EC2 Java API has a describeInstances() method which returns Instance objects with metadata such as instance id, instance type (m1.small/large...), state (running,stopped..) public ip, etc. This Instance object also has a .getLicense().getPool() which according to the Java API should return "The license pool from which this license was used (ex: 'windows')." I thought this is were it may also give 'windows+sqlserver' or something to that effect. The getLicense() method does however return null.. I've navigated around the EC2 web console, not being able to find this information, but I'm hoping that it is possible - otherwise it would mean that you cannot identify the true hourly cost of an particular instance unless you know which AMI was used to create it in the first place (plain windows server or windows server with sql server). Anyone? Thanks :) /Geir

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  • Alternatives to the Entity Framework for Serving/Consuming an OData Interface

    - by Egahn
    I'm researching how to set up an OData interface to our database. I would like to be able to pull/query data from our DB into Excel, as a start. Eventually I would like to have Excel run queries and pull data over HTTP from a remote client, including authentication, etc. I've set up a working (rickety) prototype so far, using the ADO.NET Entity Data Model wizard in Visual Studio, and VSTO to create a test Excel worksheet with a button to pull from that ADO.NET interface. This works OK so far, and I can query the DB using Linq through the entities/objects that are created by the ADO.NET EDM wizard. However, I have started to run into some problems with this approach. I've been finding the Entity Framework difficult to work with (and in fact, also difficult to research solutions to, as there's a lot of chaff out there regarding it and older versions of it). An example of this is my being unable to figure out how to set the SQL command timeout (as opposed to the HTTP request timeout) on the DataServiceContext object that the wizard generates for my schema, but that's not the point of my question. The real question I have is, if I want to use OData as my interface standard, am I stuck with the Entity Framework? Are there any other solutions out there (preferably open source) which can set up, serve and consume an OData interface, and are easier to work with and less bloated than the Entity Framework? I have seen mention of NHibernate as an alternative, but most of the comparison threads I've seen are a few years old. Are there any other alternatives out there now? Thanks very much!

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