Search Results

Search found 3680 results on 148 pages for 'confused'.

Page 114/148 | < Previous Page | 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121  | Next Page >

  • Flex-built SWF's no longer work, error 2048, 2046, 2032

    - by Kevin
    I'm really confused about this problem, and I'm pretty new to Flex. Basically, anything I try to build with mxmlc fails to run now, giving me the above three errors depending on what I do. It was working 30 minutes ago, I've been spending that time trying to figure out what has changed. I redownloaded the Flex SDK, cleared my assetcache, have cleared Firefox's cache. (I'm using Linux.) Even if I compile with -static-link-runtime-shared-libraries=false, since it seems like #2048 is a RSL problem, it still refuses to run. Another strange thing, if I keep <policy-file-url>http://fpdownload.adobe.com/pub/swz/crossdomain.xml</policy-file-url> <rsl-url>textLayout_1.0.0.595.swz</rsl-url> in my flex-config file, then firebug tells me that my swf file is trying to access a copy of that in the app's folder, giving error 2032. And if I stick the one I have in frameworks/rsls/ then it gives me error 2046. I don't know how it could not be properly signed, unless Adobe magically changed a signature and didn't update their flex SDK. Any help will be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • [ASP.NET] Difficulties using custom control - RichTextEditor

    - by Chris
    I am working on a school project that uses ASP.NET. I found this TextEditor control ( http://blogs.msdn.com/kirti/archive/2007/11/10/rich-text-editor-is-here.aspx ) that I am trying to include but it isn't working. The error I am getting is: Error Rendering Control - TextEditor. An unhandled exception has occurred. Index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection. Parameter name: index. I see this error when I go Design part of the editor. I just don't understand this error at all. Also I am a lil bit confused as there is no parameter called index. :( What I have done is reference the binary in my project and then on the page I am trying to use it have registered its namespace and assembly with this line: <%@ Register Assembly="RichTextEditor" Namespace="AjaxControls" TagPrefix="rtt" %> I then go ahead and try to add the control to the page with this line of code: <rtt:richtexteditor ID="TextEditor" Theme="Blue" runat="server" /> Any help would be much appreciated. I haven't done anything like add a custom control before.

    Read the article

  • Deployed a Zend App on EC2 and its not working

    - by Gublooo
    Hey Guys, I'm confused about the problem and not sure if I can provide enough details. I have a php app built on Zend framework which I've successfully deployed on other hosting companies. I am now trying to move to Amazon EC2 I moved all my code and set my domain to point to the IP address. So far so good. Now when I access my home page say www.example.com - everything looks good - The home page opens up which means the IndexController is being called and the index method is properly executed which pulls data from the database and displays it in the index.phtml page. So this lets me to believe that everything is working fine. But every link I click on the home page whether its a simple contact us link - or any other action that I directly try to call even through the URL results in 404 Not Found The requested URL /user/add was not found on this server. Apache/2.2.9 (Fedora) Server at www.example.com Port 80 The interesting thing is the home page opens up fine when I call www.example.com but when I give the entire path which is www.example.com/index/index - I get the same above error. I have checked the logs and there are no errors. Has anyone encountered something similar or have any idea if I'm missing a simple step or something like rewrite rule maybe. Its running on LAMP Any ideas Thanks

    Read the article

  • Application design in Spring MVC

    - by Ravi
    Hello All, I'm new to Spring MVC and trying out a simple project.It will contain a simple adding, viewing, updating and deleting user work flows. It will have login page and once authenticated the user will be taken to a welcome screen which will have links to add, view, update and delete users. Clicking on any of the links will take to individual pages where the user can do the specific tasks. What I'm doing here is, I'm using a MultiActionController to group together all requests related to User work flow. So the request from "Add User" link will handled by the addUser method in the UserController which will redirect the user to the "Add User" page, and the user can then fill in the details and save the new user. Now here is where I'm getting confused. Where should I put the save process of the new user, should I put that in new mehtod inside UserController, or use the same "addUser" method. What is the best way to handle this kind of scenario. I hope I was able to clear my question.

    Read the article

  • Base Href vs. .htaccess RewriteBase

    - by Wayne
    Normally I use <base href="http://domain.com/" /><!--[if ie]></base><![endif]--> I haven't tried much with RewriteBase, I normally get confused and keep changing it till it works. Which method would be best, I obviously find the best solution because the links stay the same so that no links are broken most of the time when attaching a css file, e.g. http://domain.com/css/main.css It just always stay the same when accessing to sub-directories. Although, when I don't use the tag, and I access to a sub directory, it breaks the css links when I use <link href="css/main.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> As my PHP documents would include the header, <?php include("include/global_header.php"); ?> If I do that without the I would have to use: <link href="../css/main.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> Which can break when accessing to a sub-directory. So... does the RewriteBase work the same as the ? Your thoughts.

    Read the article

  • CIE XYZ colorspace: is it RGBA or XYZA?

    - by Tronic
    I plan to write a painting program based on linear combinations of xy plane points (0,1), (1,0 ) and (0,0). Such system works identically to RGB, except that the primaries are not within the gamut but at the corners of a triangle that encloses the entire gamut, therefore allowing for all colors to be reproduced. I have seen the three points being referred to as X, Y and Z (upper case) somewhere, but I cannot find the page anymore. My pixel format stores the intensity of each of those three components the same way as RGB does, together with alpha value. This allows using pretty much any image manipulation operation designed for RGBA without modifying the code. What is my format called? Is it XYZA, RGBA or something else? Google doesn't seem to know of XYZA and RGBA will get confused with sRGB + alpha (which I also need to use in the same program). Notice that the primaries X, Y and Z and their intensities have little to do with the x, y and z coordinates (lower case) that are more commonly used.

    Read the article

  • Launch User Control in a tab control dynamically

    - by Redburn
    I have a custom built menu system in which I would like to load user controls from another project into a tab control on my main project (menu control) User control Project : foobar Menu system Project : Menu The function to load them into the tab control: private void LaunchWPFApplication(string header, string pPath) { // Header - What loads in the tabs header portion. // pPath - Page where to send the user //Create a new browser tab object BrowserTab bt = tabMain.SelectedItem as BrowserTab; bt = new BrowserTab(); bt.txtHeader.Text = header; bt.myParent = BrowserTabs; //Load in the path try { Type formType = Type.GetType(pPath, true); bt.Content = (UserControl)Activator.CreateInstance(formType); } catch { MessageBox.Show("The specified user control : " + pPath + " cannot be found"); } //Add the browser tab and then focus BrowserTabs.Add(bt); bt.IsSelected = true; } And what I send to the function as an example: LaunchWPFApplication("Calculater", "foobar.AppCalculater"); But every time run, the application complains that the formType is null. I am confused on how to load the user control and curious if I'm sending the correct parameters.

    Read the article

  • how to close popup using javascript with xml formatting

    - by Michael Robinson
    I bought this program that created a pretty nice imageuploader flash script however I can't get the Javascript function close window to close the popup and redirect the original page. here is the XML piece that defines the url's: <urls urlToUpload="upload.php?" urlOnUploadSuccess="http://www.home.com/purchase.html" urlOnUploadFail="http://www.home.com/tryagain.html" urlUpdateFlashPlayer="http://www.home.com/flashalternative.html" jsFunctionNameOnUpload=""/> This last line calls a javascript function on upload. The problem is I don't know what to call and where to put it. Here is the HTML file that is the popup: <HEAD> <title>Baublet Uploader</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="swfobject.js"></script> </HEAD> <BODY> <!-- Q-ImageUploader www.quadroland.com --> <div id="QImageUploader"> Flash Player stuff here </div> <script type="text/javascript"> // <![CDATA[ var so = new SWFObject("q_image_uploader.swf", "imageuploader", "650", "430", "9", "#FFFFFF"); so.addParam("scale", "noscale"); so.addParam("salign", "TL"); so.addVariable("AdditionalStringVariable","pass additional data here"); so.write("QImageUploader"); // ]]> </script> I found this Closing script I thought might work: <script language="javascript"> function close_window(page) { window.opener.location.href=page setTimeout(function(){window.close()},10); } </script> Does this go into the Popup HTML page above or would it be a separate close.js file in the root? Thanks, I'm really confused.

    Read the article

  • What am I doing wrong with HttpResponse content and headers when downloading a file?

    - by Slauma
    I want to download a PDF file from a SQL Server database which is stored in a binary column. There is a LinkButton on an aspx page. The event handler of this button looks like this: protected void LinkButtonDownload(object sender, EventArgs e) { ... byte[] aByteArray; // Read binary data from database into this ByteArray // aByteArray has the size: 55406 byte Response.ClearHeaders(); Response.ClearContent(); Response.BufferOutput = true; Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=" + "12345.pdf"); Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; using (BinaryWriter aWriter = new BinaryWriter(Response.OutputStream)) { aWriter.Write(aByteArray, 0, aByteArray.Length); } } A "File Open/Save dialog" is offered in my browser. When I store this file "12345.pdf" to disk, the file has a size of 71523 Byte. The additional 16kB at the end of the PDF file are the HTML code of my page (as I can see when I view the file in an editor). I am confused because I was believing that ClearContent and ClearHeaders would ensure that the page content is not sent together with the file content. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks for help!

    Read the article

  • Are local variables in Fortran 77 static or stack dynamic?

    - by mm2887
    For my programming languages class one hw problem asks: Are local variables in FORTRAN static or stack dynamic? Are local variables that are INITIALIZED to a default value static or stack dynamic? Show me some code with an explanation to back up your answer. Hint: The easiest way to check this is to have your program test the history sensitivity of a subprogram. Look at what happens when you initialize the local variable to a value and when you don’t. You may need to call more than one subprogram to lock in your answer with confidence. I wrote a few subroutines: - create a variable - print the variable - initialize the variable to a value - print the variable again Each successive call to the subroutine prints out the same random value for the variable when it is uninitialized and then it prints out the initialized value. What is this random value when the variable is uninitialized? Does this mean Fortran uses the same memory location for each call to the subroutine or it dynamically creates space and initializes the variable randomly? My second subroutine also creates a variable, but then calls the first subroutine. The result is the same except the random number printed of the uninitialized variable is different. I am very confused. Please help! Thank you so much.

    Read the article

  • Updating permissions on Amazon S3 files that were uploaded via JungleDisk

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I am starting to use Jungle Disk to upload files to an Amazon S3 bucket which corresponds to a Cloudfront distribution. i.e. I can access it via an http:// URL and I am using Amazon as a CDN. The problem I am facing is that Jungle Disk doesn't set 'read' permissions on the files so when I go to the corresponding URL in a browser I get an Amazon 'AccessDenied' error. If I use a tool like BucketExplorer to set the ACL then that URL now returns a 200. I really really like the simplicity of dragging files to a network drive. JungleDisk is the best program I've found to do this reliably without tripping over itself and getting confused. However it doesn't seem to have an option to make the files read-able. I really don't want to have to go to a different tool (especially if i have to buy it) to just change the permissions - and this seems really slow anyway because they generally seem to traverse the whole directory structure. JungleDisk provides some kind of 'web access' - but this is a paid feature and I'm not sure if it will work or not. S3 doesn't appear to propagate permissions down which is a real pain. I'm considering writing a manual tool to traverse my tree and set everything to 'read' but I'd rather not do this if this is a problem someone else has already solved.

    Read the article

  • How to make Class for DataObjectAttribute visible in ObjectDataSourse in Web Application

    - by nCdy
    here is a class code : > [DataObjectAttribute] public class > Report { public this() {} > > > [DataObjectMethodAttribute(DataObjectMethodType.Select, > true)] public static > GetAllEmployees() : DataTable { > null } > > > [DataObjectMethodAttribute(DataObjectMethodType.Delete, > true)] public > DeleteEmployeeByID(employeeID : int) : > void { > throw Exception("The value passed to the delete method is " + > employeeID.ToString()); } } but I still can't find where and how and what I must to config to access it ? <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="ObjectDataSource1" runat="server" SelectMethod=" ?????????? "> </asp:ObjectDataSource> Web Application doesn't support App_Code so but I can use compiled Bin somehow, the question is how ? text from this link only confused me more :( thank you

    Read the article

  • DDD and MVC: Difference between 'Model' and 'Entity'

    - by Nathan Loding
    I'm seriously confused about the concept of the 'Model' in MVC. Most frameworks that exist today put the Model between the Controller and the database, and the Model almost acts like a database abstraction layer. The concept of 'Fat Model Skinny Controller' is lost as the Controller starts doing more and more logic. In DDD, there is also the concept of a Domain Entity, which has a unique identity to it. As I understand it, a user is a good example of an Entity (unique userid, for instance). The Entity has a life-cycle -- it's values can change throughout the course of the action -- and then it's saved or discarded. The Entity I describe above is what I thought Model was supposed to be in MVC? How off-base am I? To clutter things more, you throw in other patterns, such as the Repository pattern (maybe putting a Service in there). It's pretty clear how the Repository would interact with an Entity -- how does it with a Model? Controllers can have multiple Models, which makes it seem like a Model is less a "database table" than it is a unique Entity. So, in very rough terms, which is better? No "Model" really ... class MyController { public function index() { $repo = new PostRepository(); $posts = $repo->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); foreach($posts as $post) { echo $post->Author; } } } Or this, which has a Model as the DAO? class MyController { public function index() { $model = new PostModel(); // maybe this returns a PostRepository? $posts = $model->findAllByDateRange('within 30 days'); while($posts->getNext()) { echo $posts->Post->Author; } } } Both those examples didn't even do what I was describing above. I'm clearly lost. Any input?

    Read the article

  • How to Manage project in this scenario

    - by vijay.shad
    Hi All, I am working on a web application which has got good amount of static or pre-login pages. These pages can have some simple forms as well where we would like to capture the visitor's details. Post login, I have got my main application. I am confused about the development and deployment architecture of my application. Post login part of my application has a release cycle of 1-2 months while pre-login pages are to be updated on a weekly basis. It is difficult to make a release of pre-login pages as the overall war also contains post-login application & which sometimes is not release ready. Currently, I have got both these parts bundled in the single war project. Please help me by letting me know the best practices whereby I can achieve following: Manage the releases of these two parts independently. I am using Maven. So is there a way I can share the resources, such as CSS, images etc between these two parts. Header and footer of my application is going to be same on pre-login & post-login pages. I was thinking of deploying these apps as two war files in my tomcat container. But then how will I manage the common resources like Css, images etc. Rgds Vijay

    Read the article

  • How do I setup NInject? (I'm getting can't resolve "Bind", in the line "Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>()

    - by Greg
    Hi, I'm getting confused in the doco how I should be setting up Ninject. I'm seeing different ways of doing it, some v2 versus v1 confusion probably included... Question - What is the best way in my WinForms application to set things up for NInject (i.e. what are the few lines of code required). I'm assuming this would go into the MainForm Load method. In other words what code do I have to have prior to getting to: Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); I have the following code, so effectively I just want to get clarification on the setup and bind code that would be required in my MainForm.Load() to end up with a concrete Samurai instance? internal interface IWeapon { void Hit(string target); } class Sword : IWeapon { public void Hit(string target) { Console.WriteLine("Chopped {0} clean in half", target); } } class Samurai { private IWeapon _weapon; [Inject] public Samurai(IWeapon weapon) { _weapon = weapon; } public void Attack(string target) { _weapon.Hit(target); } } thanks PS. I've tried the following code, however I can't resolve the "Bind". Where does this come from? what DLL or "using" statement would I be missing? private void MainForm_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); // <== *** CAN NOT RESOLVE Bind *** IKernel kernel = new StandardKernel(); var samurai = kernel.Get<Samurai>();

    Read the article

  • Should this even be a has_many :through association?

    - by GoodGets
    A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

    Read the article

  • Why Finalize method not allowed to override

    - by somaraj
    I am new to .net ..and i am confused with the destructor mechanism in C# ..please clarify In C# destructors are converted to finalize method by CLR. If we try to override it (not using destructor ) , will get an error Error 2 Do not override object.Finalize. Instead, provide a destructor. But it seems that the Object calss implementation in mscorlib.dll has finalize defined as protected override void Finalize(){} , then why cant we override it , that what virtual function for . Why is the design like that , is it to be consistent with c++ destructor concept. Also when we go to the definition of the object class , there is no mention of the finalize method , then how does the hmscorlib.dll definition shows the finalize funtion . Does it mean that the default destructor is converted to finalize method. public class Object { public Object(); public virtual bool Equals(object obj); public static bool Equals(object objA, object objB); public virtual int GetHashCode(); public Type GetType(); protected object MemberwiseClone(); public static bool ReferenceEquals(object objA, object objB); public virtual string ToString(); }

    Read the article

  • How to make designer generated .Net application settings portable

    - by Ville Koskinen
    Hello, I've been looking at modifying the source of the Doppler podcast aggregator with the goal of being able to run the program directly from my mp3 player. Doppler stores application settings using a Visual Studio designer generated Settings class, which by default serializes user settings to the user's home directory. I'd like to change this so that all settings would be stored in the same directory as the exe. It seems that this would be possible by creating a custom provider class which inherits the SettingsProvider class. Has anyone created such a provider and would like to share code? Update: I was able to get a custom settings provider nearly working by using this MSDN sample, i.e. with simple inheritance. I was initially confused as Windows Forms designer stopped working until I did this trick suggested at Codeproject: internal sealed partial class Settings { private MySettingsProvider settingsprovider = new MySettingsProvider(); public Settings() { foreach (SettingsProperty property in this.Properties) { property.Provider = settingsprovider; } ... The program still starts with window size 0;0 though. Anyone with any insight to this? Why the need to assing the provider in runtime---instead of using attributes as suggested by MSDN? Why the changes in how the default settings are passed to the application with the default settings provider vs. the custom one?

    Read the article

  • How CPU finds ISR and distinguishes between devices

    - by ripunjay-tripathi-gmail-com
    I should first share all what I know - and that is complete chaos. There are several different questions on the topic, so please don't get irritated :). 1) To find an ISR, CPU is provided with a interrupt number. In x86 machines (286/386 and above) there is a IVT with ISRs in it; each entry of 4 bytes in size. So we need to multiply interrupt number by 4 to find the ISR. So first bunch of questions is - I am completely confused in mechanism of CPU receiving the interrupt. To raise an interrupt, firstly device shall probe for IRQ - then what ? The interrupt number travels "on IRQ" towards CPU? I also read something like device putting ISR address on data bus ; whats that then ? What is the concept of devices overriding the ISR. Can somebody tell me few example devices where CPU polls for interrupts? And where does it finds ISR for them ? 2) If two devices share an IRQ (which is very much possible), how does CPU differs amongst them ? What if both devices raise an interrupt of same priority simultaneously. I got to know there will be masking of same type and low priority interrupts - but how this communication happens between CPU and device controller? I studied the role of PIC and APIC for this problem, but could not understand. Thanks for reading. Thank you very much for answering.

    Read the article

  • Linq to XML Document Traversal

    - by Perpetualcoder
    I have an xml document like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <demographics> <country id="1" value="USA"> <state id ="1" value="California"> <city>Long Beach</city> <city>Los Angeles</city> <city>San Diego</city> </state> <state id ="2" value="Arizona"> <city>Tucson</city> <city>Phoenix</city> <city>Tempe</city> </state> </country> <country id="2" value="Mexico"> <state id ="1" value="Baja California"> <city>Tijuana</city> <city>Rosarito</city> </state> </country> </demographics> How do I setup LINQ queries for doing things like: 1. Get All Countries 2. Get All States in a Country 3. Get All Cities inside a state of a paricular country ? I gave it a try and I am kind of confused when to use Elements["NodeName"] and Descendants etc. I know I am not the brightest XML guy around. Is the format of the XML file even correct for simple traversal?

    Read the article

  • How reliable is DateTime.UtcNow in Silverlight applications?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have a silverlight application which users will be running in various time zones. These applications load their data from the server upon start up, then cache it in IsolatedStorage. When I make changes to the data on the server, I want to be able to change the "last updated time" so that all silverlight clients download the newest data the next time they check this date. However, I'm a bit confused as to how to handle the time zone issue since a if the server is in New York and the update time is set to 2010-01-01 17:00:00 and a client in Seattle checks compares it to its local time of 2010-01-01 14:00:00 it won't update and will continue to provide old data for three more hours. My solution is to always post the update time in UTC time, not with the time on the server, then make the Silverlight app check with DateTime.UtcNow. Is this as easy as it sounds or are their issues with this, e.g. that timezones are not set correctly on computers and hence the SilverlightApp does not report the correct UTC time. Can anyone say from experience how likely it is that using DateTime.UtcNow like this for cache refreshing will work in all cases? If DateTime.UtcNow is not reliable, I will just use an incremented "DataVersion" integer but there are other scenarios in which getting time zone sychronization down would make it useful to thoroughly understand how to solve this in silverlight apps.

    Read the article

  • Rails 2.3 session

    - by Sam Kong
    Hi, I am developing a rails 2.3.2 app. I need to keep session_id for an order record, retrieve it and finally delete the session_id when the order is completed. It worked when I used cookies as session store but it doesn't for active_record store. (I restarted my browser, so no cache issue.) I know rails 2.3 implements lazy session load. I read some info about it but am still confused. Can somebody clarify how I use session_id for such a case? What I am doing is... A user make an order going through several pages. There is no sign-up, neither login. So I keep session_id in the order record so that no other user can access the order. @order = Order.last :conditions = {:id = params[:id], :session_id = session[:session_id] } When the order is finished, I set nil to session_id column. How would you implement such a case in lazy session(and active_record store) environment? Thanks. Sam

    Read the article

  • Javascript scope chain

    - by Geromey
    Hi, I am trying to optimize my program. I think I understand the basics of closure. I am confused about the scope chain though. I know that in general you want a low scope (to access variables quickly). Say I have the following object: var my_object = (function(){ //private variables var a_private = 0; return{ //public //public variables a_public : 1, //public methods some_public : function(){ debugger; alert(this.a_public); alert(a_private); }; }; })(); My understanding is that if I am in the some_public method I can access the private variables faster than the public ones. Is this correct? My confusion comes with the scope level of this. When the code is stopped at debugger, firebug shows the public variable inside the this keyword. The this word is not inside a scope level. How fast is accessing this? Right now I am storing any this.properties as another local variable to avoid accessing it multiple times. Thanks very much!

    Read the article

  • Why isn't UIScrollView always calling viewDidLoad on subviews?

    - by Rob S.
    I'm a bit confused on the behaviour of UIScrollView as it pertains to subview loading. In my app, I lazily load subviews into my scroller. Most of the time, -viewDidLoad is called on the subview immediately after adding it the UIScrollView. There is one scenario where it isn't being called. At the 'end' of my scroll view I have a "please wait" view. When it is fully scrolled on to the page, it fades out, I add the subview and -viewDidLoad is not called. In this case, when I remove the last subview and add another subview, I get nothing. I've tried [scrollView setNeedsDisplay] and [scrollView setNeedsLayout] to no avail. I've also sent the same messages to the view I just added - no dice. Does anyone have any insight here? Many people have many questions about -viewDidLoad and I haven't been able to find one related to direct subviews inside of a scrollview. Or I have and I haven't realized it :) Thanks in advance! Rob

    Read the article

  • Passing control references as ref parameters

    - by Enmanuel
    Hi everyone. Please help me out here because im getting kind of confused.. I have a form in a C# winforms project and a couple of methods that are suposed to perform some tasks for this particular form and all derived ones, so one of those helper methods can make the example.. this one should fill comboboxes with a dataset. Its working properly now but when i coded the method with this signature protected void FillComboBox(kComboBox target, IEntClass_DA entity) { target.DataSource = entity.GetList().Tables[0]; target.DisplayMember = "name"; target.ValueMember = "id"; } I saw that the displayMember and ValueMember in the comboboxes were not holding the values after the method call. I just thought I should use ref parameters so the asignments are not wasted in read-only reference variables. It was ok by then but later, making an exercise of passing the whole form as a parameter I was warned by the compiler with the notice that this could not be passed as a ref parameter because it is read-only. Fine then, I keep working and see that even without the ref keyword i can use the ref variable from the form, update some properties and see the changes. So whats happening here: passing a reference of the control to the helper method gives me ability to change its members even when not using the ref parameter?? Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121  | Next Page >