Search Results

Search found 3679 results on 148 pages for 'definition'.

Page 117/148 | < Previous Page | 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124  | Next Page >

• Duplicate Symbol Linker Error (C++ help)

  - by Vash265

  Hi. I'm learning some CSP (constraint satisfaction) theory stuff right now, and am using this library to parse XML files. I'm using Xcode as an IDE. My program compiles fine, but when it goes to link the files, I get a duplicate symbol error with the XMLParser_libxml2.hh file. My files are separated as such: A class header file that includes the XMLParser file above A class implementation file that include the class header file A main file that includes the class header file The duplicate symbol is occurring in main.o and classfile.o, but as far as I can tell, I'm not actually adding that .hh file twice. Full error: ld: duplicate symbol bool CSPXMLParser::UTF8String::to<std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> > >(std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >&) constin /Users/vash265/CSP/Untitled/build/Untitled.build/Debug/Untitled.build/Objects-normal/x86_64/dStructFill.o and /Users/vash265/CSP/Untitled/build/Untitled.build/Debug/Untitled.build/Objects-normal/x86_64/main.o Copying the implementation of the class into the main file and taking the class implementation file out of the compilation target alleviates the error, but it's a disorganized mess this way, and I'll be adding more classes very soon (and it would be nice to have them in separate files). As I've come to understand it, this is caused by the file (XMLParser_libxml2.hh) having both the class and function definition and implementation in one file (and it seems as though this might have been necessary due to the use of templates in that 'header' file). Any ideas on how to get around sticking all my class files in my main.cpp? (I've tried ifdefs, they don't work).

  Read the article

• Register new memer for vBulletin via Mobile API

  - by Nikolay Stariradeff

  I'm trying to use the vBulletin REST Mobile API to simply register. The sourced are installed on my local machine and according the documentation https://www.vbulletin.com/forum/content.php/393-User-Registration-Process-Mobile-API This procedure should not be so hard, especially without humanity and COPPA authentication. However I've stacked! The method definition describes "addnewmember" clear, so I've generated a test link, which should do the job. https://www.vbulletin.com/forum/content.php/365-User-Related-Methods The link is: .../forum/api.php?&api_m=register_addmember&api_c=1&api_s=76ec9eec61e7fdfef2f3feee28d5f392&api_sig=8fe54313b333cc0fef4ddd8e398b5c80&api_v=6&agree=1&username=testuser&email=XXXXXX%40gmail.com&emailconfirm=XXXXX%40gmail.com&password=12345678&passwordconfirm=12345678 As a response I get: register_not_agreed The Docs: register_not_agreed The agree parameter should be set to 1. Which is also clear - agree parameter was not there. Here comes the funny part - In the API-Log I can see that the 'agree' parameter is correctly passed *1 test_client Gast 13:23, 18.06.2012 register_addmember Array ( [api_m] = register_addmember [api_c] = 1 [api_s] = 76ec9eec61e7fdfef2f3feee28d5f392 [api_sig] = 8fe54313b333cc0fef4ddd8e398b5c80 [api_v] = 6 [agree] = 1 [username] = testuser [email] = ....* Is there anybody with experience with the Mobile API that could help?

  Read the article

• Ruby: how does constant-lookup work in instance_eval/class_eval?

  - by Alan O'Donnell

  I'm working my way through Pickaxe 1.9, and I'm a bit confused by constant-lookup in instance/class_eval blocks. I'm using 1.9.2. It seems that Ruby handles constant-lookup in *_eval blocks the same way it does method-lookup: look for a definition in receiver.singleton_class (plus mixins); then in receiver.singleton_class.superclass (plus mixins); then continue up the eigenchain until you get to #<Class:BasicObject>; whose superclass is Class; and then up the rest of the ancestor chain (including Object, which stores all the constants you define at the top-level), checking for mixins along the way Is this correct? The Pickaxe discussion is a bit terse. Some examples: class Foo CONST = 'Foo::CONST' class << self CONST = 'EigenFoo::CONST' end end Foo.instance_eval { CONST } # => 'EigenFoo::CONST' Foo.class_eval { CONST } # => 'EigenFoo::CONST', not 'Foo::CONST'! Foo.new.instance_eval { CONST } # => 'Foo::CONST' In the class_eval example, Foo-the-class isn't a stop along Foo-the-object's ancestor chain! And an example with mixins: module M CONST = "M::CONST" end module N CONST = "N::CONST" end class A include M extend N end A.instance_eval { CONST } # => "N::CONST", because N is mixed into A's eigenclass A.class_eval { CONST } # => "N::CONST", ditto A.new.instance_eval { CONST } # => "M::CONST", because A.new.class, A, mixes in M

  Read the article

• Java Generics Class Parameter Type Inference

  - by Pindatjuh

  Given the interface: public interface BasedOnOther<T, U extends BasedList<T>> { public T getOther(); public void staticStatisfied(final U list); } The BasedOnOther<T, U extends BasedList<T>> looks very ugly in my use-cases. It is because the T type parameter is already defined in the BasedList<T> part, so the "uglyness" comes from that T needs to be typed twice. Problem: is it possible to let the Java compiler infer the generic T type from BasedList<T> in a generic class/interface definition? Ultimately, I'd like to use the interface like: class X implements BasedOnOther<BasedList<SomeType>> { public SomeType getOther() { ... } public void staticStatisfied(final BasedList<SomeType> list) { ... } } // Does not compile, due to invalid parameter count. Instead: class X implements BasedOnOther<SomeType, BasedList<SomeType>> { public SomeType getOther() { ... } public void staticStatisfied(final BasedList<SomeType> list) { ... } }

  Read the article

• Rails: creating a custom data type, to use with generator classes and a bunch of questions related t

  - by Shyam

  Hi, After being productive with Rails for some weeks, I learned some tricks and got some experience with the framework. About 10 days ago, I figured out it is possible to build a custom data type for migrations by adding some code in the Table definition. Also, after learning a bit about floating points (and how evil they are) vs integers, the money gem and other possible solutions, I decided I didn't WANT to use the money gem, but instead try to learn more about programming and finding a solution myself. Some suggestions said that I should be using integers, one for the whole numbers and one for the cents. When playing in script/console, I discovered how easy it is to work with calculations and arrays. But, I am talking to much (and the reason I am, is to give some sufficient background). Right now, while playing with the scaffold generator (yes, I use it, because I like they way I can quickly set up a prototype while I am still researching my objectives), I like to use a DRY method. In my opinion, I should build a custom "object", that can hold two variables (Fixnum), one for the whole, one for the cents. In my big dream, I would be able to do the following: script/generate scaffold Cake name:string description:text cost:mycustom Where mycustom should create two integer columns (one for wholes, one for cents). Right now I could do this by doing: script/generate scaffold Cake name:string description:text cost_w:integer cost_c:integer I had also had an idea that would be creating a "cost model", which would hold two columns of integers and create a cost_id column to my scaffold. But wouldn't that be an extra table that would cause some kind of performance penalty? And wouldn't that be defy the purpose of the Cake model in the first place, because the costs are an attribute of individual Cake entries? The reason why I would want to have such a functionality because I am thinking of having multiple "costs" inside my rails application. Thank you for your feedback, comments and answers! I hope my message got through as understandable, my apologies for incorrect grammar or weird sentences as English is not my native language.

  Read the article

• Magento config XML for adding a controller action to a core admin controller

  - by N. B.

  I'm trying to add a custom action to a core controller by extending it in a local module. Below I have the class definition which resides in magento1_3_2_2/app/code/local/MyCompany/MyModule/controllers/Catalog/ProductController.php class MyCompany_MyModule_Catalog_ProductController extends Mage_Adminhtml_Catalog_ProductController { public function massAttributeSetAction(){ ... } } Here is my config file at magento1_3_2_2/app/code/local/MyCompany/MyModule/etc/config.xml: ... <global> <rewrite> <mycompany_mymodule_catalog_product> <from><![CDATA[#^/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/#]]></from> <to>/mymodule/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/</to> </mycompany_mymodule_catalog_product> </rewrite> <admin> <routers> <MyCompany_MyModule> <use>admin</use> <args> <module>MyCompany_MyModule</module> <frontName>MyModule</frontName> </args> </MyCompany_MyModule> </routers> </admin> </global> ... However, https://example.com/index.php/admin/catalog_product/massAttributeSet/ simply yields a admin 404 page. I know that the module is active - other code is executing fine. I feel it's simply a problem with my xml syntax. Am I going about this the write way? I'm hesitant because I'm not actually rewriting a controller method... I'm adding one entirely. However it does make sense in that, the original admin url won't respond to that action name and it will need to be redirected. I'm using Magento 1.3.2.2 Thanks for any guidance.

  Read the article

• 'WebException' error on back button even when calling 'void' async method

  - by BlazingFrog

  I have a windows phone app that allows the user to interact with it. Each interaction will always result in an async WCF call. In addition to that, some interactions will result in opening the browser, maps, email, etc... The problem is that, when hitting the back button, I sometime get the following error "An error (WebException) occurred while transmitting data over the HTTP channel." with the following stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.OnGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeGetResponseCallback>b__8(Object state2) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.doWork(Object o) at System.Threading.Timer.ring() My understanding is that it's happening because my app opened another app (browser, maps, etc) before it had the time to execute the EndMyAsyncMethod(System.IAsyncResult result). Fair enough... What's really annoying is that it seems it should get fixed by cloning the server-side method, only making it void with the following operation contract [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] but I'm still getting the error. What's worse is that the exception is thrown in a system-generated part of the code and, thus, cannot be manually caught causing the app to just crash. I simply don't understand the need to execute an Endxxx method when it's explicitely marked as OneWay and void. EDIT I did find a similar issue here. It does seem that it is related to the message getting to the service (not the client callback). My next question is: if I'm now calling a method marked AsyncPattern and OneWay, what exactly should I be waiting for on the client to be sure the message was transmitted successfully? This is new service definition: [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, AsyncPattern = true)] IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s); void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r); And the implementation: public IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s) { // do some stuff return new CompletedAsyncResult<string>(""); } public void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r) { }

  Read the article

• alternative to #include within namespace { } block

  - by Jeff

  Edit: I know that method 1 is essentially invalid and will probably use method 2, but I'm looking for the best hack or a better solution to mitigate rampant, mutable namespace proliferation. I have multiple class or method definitions in one namespace that have different dependencies, and would like to use the fewest namespace blocks or explicit scopings possible but while grouping #include directives with the definitions that require them as best as possible. I've never seen any indication that any preprocessor could be told to exclude namespace {} scoping from #include contents, but I'm here to ask if something similar to this is possible: (see bottom for explanation of why I want something dead simple) // NOTE: apple.h, etc., contents are *NOT* intended to be in namespace Foo! // would prefer something most this: namespace Foo { #include "apple.h" B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } #include "banana.h" int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } #include "blueberry.h" void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo ... // over this: #include "apple.h" #include "banana.h" #include "blueberry.h" namespace Foo { B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo ... // or over this: #include "apple.h" namespace Foo { B *A::blah(B const *x) { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo #include "banana.h" namespace Foo { int B::whatever(C const &var) { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo #include "blueberry.h" namespace Foo { void B::something() { /* ... */ } } // namespace Foo My real problem is that I have projects where a module may need to be branched but have coexisting components from the branches in the same program. I have classes like FooA, etc., that I've called Foo::A in the hopes being able to branch less painfully as Foo::v1_2::A, where some program may need both a Foo::A and a Foo::v1_2::A. I'd like "Foo" or "Foo::v1_2" to show up only really once per file, as a single namespace block, if possible. Moreover, I tend to prefer to locate blocks of #include directives immediately above the first definition in the file that requires them. What's my best choice, or alternatively, what should I be doing instead of hijacking the namespaces?

  Read the article

• Visual C++ doesn't operator<< overload

  - by PierreBdR

  I have a vector class that I want to be able to input/output from a QTextStream object. The forward declaration of my vector class is: namespace util { template <size_t dim, typename T> class Vector; } I define the operator<< as: namespace util { template <size_t dim, typename T> QTextStream& operator<<(QTextStream& out, const util::Vector<dim,T>& vec) { ... } template <size_t dim, typename T> QTextStream& operator>>(QTextStream& in,util::Vector<dim,T>& vec) { .. } } However, if I ty to use these operators, Visual C++ returns this error: error C2678: binary '<<' : no operator found which takes a left-hand operand of type 'QTextStream' (or there is no acceptable conversion) A few things I tried: Originaly, the methods were defined as friends of the template, and it is working fine this way with g++. The methods have been moved outside the namespace util I changed the definition of the templates to fit what I found on various Visual C++ websites. The original friend declaration is: friend QTextStream& operator>>(QTextStream& ss, Vector& in) { ... } The "Visual C++ adapted" version is: friend QTextStream& operator>> <dim,T>(QTextStream& ss, Vector<dim,T>& in); with the function pre-declared before the class and implemented after. I checked the file is correctly included using: #pragma message ("Including vector header") And everything seems fine. Doesn anyone has any idea what might be wrong?

  Read the article

• Synth LaF JLabel DISABLED color

  - by mmoris

  Hi all, Using the Synth LaF, I am unable to set a JLabel's FOREGROUND color for the DISABLED state. has anybody succeeded in doing this? Here is my label's style definition in my LaF.xml file. <style id="whiteLabelStyle"> <opaque value="false"/> <font name="Bitstream Vera Sans" size="16" /> <state> <color type="FOREGROUND" value="WHITE"/> </state> <state value="DISABLED"> <color type="FOREGROUND" value="BLACK"/> </state> </style> <bind style="whiteLabelStyle" type="name" key="WhiteOrbitLabel"/> Please not that all the other styles defined in my LaF.xml file are rendered properly in my application including my label's WHITE normal state color (it just never goes to black when I do lbl.setEnabled(false) Also, going through the Synth code, I have found the following comment in SynthStyle.getColor if ((context.getComponentState() & SynthConstants.DISABLED) != 0) { //This component is disabled, so return the disabled color. //In some cases this means ignoring the color specified by the //developer on the component. In other cases it means using a //specified disabledTextColor, such as on JTextComponents. //For example, JLabel doesn't specify a disabled color that the //developer can set, yet it should have a disabled color to the //text when the label is disabled. This code allows for that. if (c instanceof JTextComponent) { JTextComponent txt = (JTextComponent)c; Color disabledColor = txt.getDisabledTextColor(); if (disabledColor == null || disabledColor instanceof UIResource) { return getColorForState(context, type); } } else if (c instanceof JLabel && (type == ColorType.FOREGROUND || type == ColorType.TEXT_FOREGROUND)){ return getColorForState(context, type); } But I could not figure out how to set a disabled color for a JLabel Thanks for your help!

  Read the article

• Type classe, generic memoization

  - by nicolas

  Something quite odd is happening with y types and I quite dont understand if this is justified or not. I would tend to think not. This code works fine : type DictionarySingleton private () = static let mutable instance = Dictionary<string*obj, obj>() static member Instance = instance let memoize (f:'a -> 'b) = fun (x:'a) -> let key = f.ToString(), (x :> obj) if (DictionarySingleton.Instance).ContainsKey(key) then let r = (DictionarySingleton.Instance).[key] r :?> 'b else let res = f x (DictionarySingleton.Instance).[key] <- (res :> obj) res And this ones complains type DictionarySingleton private () = static let mutable instance = Dictionary<string*obj, _>() static member Instance = instance let memoize (f:'a -> 'b) = fun (x:'a) -> let key = f.ToString(), (x :> obj) if (DictionarySingleton.Instance).ContainsKey(key) then let r = (DictionarySingleton.Instance).[key] r :?> 'b else let res = f x (DictionarySingleton.Instance).[key] <- (res :> obj) res The difference is only the underscore in the dictionary definition. The infered types are the same, but the dynamic cast from r to type 'b exhibits an error. 'this runtime coercition ... runtime type tests are not allowed on some types, etc..' Am I missing something or is it a rough edge ?

  Read the article

• How to solve generic algebra using solver/library programmatically? Matlab, Mathematica, Wolfram etc?

  - by DevDevDev

  I'm trying to build an algebra trainer for students. I want to construct a representative problem, define constraints and relationships on the parameters, and then generate a bunch of Latex formatted problems from the representation. As an example: A specific question might be: If y < 0 and (x+3)(y-5) = 0, what is x? Answer (x = -3) I would like to encode this as a Latex formatted problem like. If $y<0$ and $(x+constant_1)(y+constant_2)=0$ what is the value of x? Answer = -constant_1 And plug into my problem solver constant_1 > 0, constant_1 < 60, constant_1 = INTEGER constant_2 < 0, constant_2 > -60, constant_2 = INTEGER Then it will randomly construct me pairs of (constant_1, constant_2) that I can feed into my Latex generator. Obviously this is an extremely simple example with no real "solving" but hopefully it gets the point across. Things I'm looking for ideally in priority order * Solve algebra problems * Definition of relationships relatively straight forward * Rich support for latex formatting (not just writing encoded strings) Thanks!

  Read the article

• SQL Server getdate() to a string like "2009-12-20"

  - by Adam Kane

  In Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and .NET 2.0, I want to convert the current date to a string of this format: "YYYY-MM-DD". For example, December 12th 2009 would become "2009-12-20". How do I do this in SQL. The context of this SQL statement in the table definiton. In other words, this is the default value. So when a new record is created the default value of the current date is stored as a string in the above format. I'm trying: SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD] But SQL server keeps converting that to: ('SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]') so the result is just: 'SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]' Here's a screen shot of what the Visual Studio server explorer, table, table definition, properties shows: These wrapper bits are being adding automatically and converting it all to literal string: (N' ') Here's the reason I'm trying to use something other than the basic DATETIME I was using previously: This is the error I get when hooking everything to an ASP.NET GridView and try to do an update via the grid view: Server Error in '/' Application. The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'.] Note: I've added a related question to try to get around the SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date' error so that I can use a DATETIME as recommended.

  Read the article

• Generic ASP.NET MVC Route Conflict

  - by Donn Felker

  I'm working on a Legacy ASP.NET system. I say legacy because there are NO tests around 90% of the system. I'm trying to fix the routes in this project and I'm running into a issue I wish to solve with generic routes. I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithPdn", "{controller}/{action}/{pdn}", new { controller = "", action = "Index", pdn = "" }, null ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithClientId", "{controller}/{action}/{clientId}", new { controller = "", action = "index", clientid = "" }, null ); The problem is that the first route is catching all of the traffic for what I need to be routed to the second route. The route is generic (no controller is defined in the constraint in either route definition) because multiple controllers throughout the entire app share this same premise (sometimes we need a "pdn" sometimes we need a "clientId"). How can I map these generic routes so that they go to the proper controller and action, yet not have one be too greedy? Or can I at all? Are these routes too generic (which is what I'm starting to believe is the case). My only option at this point (AFAIK) is one of the following: In the contraints, apply a regex to match the action values like: (foo|bar|biz|bang) and the same for the controller: (home|customer|products) for each controller. However, this has a problem in the fact that I may need to do this: ~/Foo/Home/123 // Should map to "DefaultwithPdn" ~/Foo/Home/abc // Should map to "DefaultWithClientId" Which means that if the Foo Controller has an action that takes a pdn and another action that takes a clientId (which happens all the time in this app), the wrong route is chosen. To hardcode these contstraints into each possible controller/action combo seems like a lot of duplication to me and I have the feeling I've been looking at the problem for too long so I need another pair of eyes to help out. Can I have generic routes to handle this scenario? Or do I need to have custom routes for each controller with constraints applied to the actions on those routes? Thanks

  Read the article

• Ruby TypeErrors involving `expected Data`

  - by Kenny Peng

  I've ran into situations where I have gotten these expected Data errors before, but they have always pointed to ActiveRecord not playing well with other libraries in the past. This piece of code: def load(kv_block, debug=false) # Converts a string block to a Hash using split kv_map = StringUtils.kv_array_to_hash(kv_block) # Loop through each key, value kv_map.each do |mem,val| # Format the member from camel case to underscore member = mem.camel_to_underscore() # If the object includes a method to set the key (i.e. the key # is a member of self), invoke the method, setting the value of # the member) if self.methods.include?(member.to_set_method_name()) then # Exception thrown here self.send(member.to_set_method_name(), val) # Else, check for the same case, this time for an instance variable elsif self.instance_variable_defined?(member.to_instance_var_name()) self.instance_variable_set(member.to_instance_var_name(), val) # Else, complain that the object doesn't understand the key with # respect to its class definition. else raise ArgumentError, "I don't know what to do with #{member}. #{self.class} does not have a member or function called #{member}" end end end produces the error wrong argument type #<Class:0x11a02088> (expected Data) (TypeError) in the each loop on the first if test. I've inspected a post-mortem debugging instance using rdebug, and running that line manually, it works without a hitch. Has anyone seen this error before and what's been your solution to it? I used to think it was ActiveRecord and other gems stomping on each other's definitions, but I removed any references to ActiveRecord and this still occurs.

  Read the article

• Strategies for when to use properties and when to use internal variables on internal classes?

  - by Edward Tanguay

  In almost all of my classes, I have a mixture of properties and internal class variables. I have always chosen one or the other by the rule "property if you need it externally, class variable if not". But there are many other issues which make me rethink this often, e.g.: at some point I want to use an internal variable from outside the class, so I have to refactor it into a property which makes me wonder why I don't just make all my internal variables properties in case I have to access them externally anyway, since most classes are internal classes anyway it aren't exposed on an API so it doesn't really matter if the internal variables are accessible from outside the class or not but then since C# doesn't allow you to instantiate e.g. List<string> property in the definition, then these properties have to be initialized in every possible constructor, so these variables I would rather have internal variables just to keep things cleaner in that they are all initialized in one place C# code reads more cleanly if constructor/method parameters are camel case and you assign them to pascal case properties instead of the ambiguity of seeing "templateIdCode" and having to look around to see if it is a local variable, method parameter or internal class variable, e.g. it is easier when you see "TemplateIdCode = templateIdCode" that this is a parameter being assigned to a class property. This would be an argument for always using only properties on internal classes. e.g.: public class TextFile { private string templateIdCode; private string absoluteTemplatePathAndFileName; private string absoluteOutputDirectory; private List<string> listItems = new List<string>(); public string Content { get; set; } public List<string> ReportItems { get; set; } public TextFile(string templateIdCode) { this.templateIdCode = templateIdCode; ReportItems = new List<string>(); Initialize(); } ... When creating internal (non-API) classes, what are your strategies in deciding if you should create an internal class variable or a property?

  Read the article

• How to develop Online Shopping Portal Application using PHP ?

  - by Sarang

  I do not know PHP & I have to develop a Shopping Portal with following Definition : Scenario: Online Shopping Portal XYZ.com wants to create an online shopping portal for managing its registered customers and their shopping. The customers need to register themselves first before they do shopping using the shopping portal. However, everyone, whether registered or not, can view the various products along with the prices listed in the portal. The registered customers, after logging in, are allowed to place order for one or more products from the products listed in the portal. Once the order is placed, the customer gets a reference order number and the order status should be “order in process”. The customers can track their order using the given reference number. The management of XYZ.com should be able to modify the order status of a particular reference order number to “shipped” once the products are shipped to the shipping address entered by the customer at the time of placing the order. The Functionalities required are : Create the interface for the XYZ.com shopping portal using HTML/XHTML and CSS. Implement the client side validations using JavaScript. Create the tables using MySQL. Implement the functionality using the server side scripting language, PHP. Integrate all the above tasks and make the XYZ.com shopping portal functional. How do I develop this application with following proper steps of development ?

  Read the article

• In a combobox, how do I determine the highlighted item (not selected item)?

  - by Harold Bamford

  First, fair warning: I am a complete newbie with C# and WPF. I have a combobox (editable, searchable) and I would like to be able to intercept the Delete key and remove the currently highlighted item from the list. The behavior I'm looking for is like that of MS Outlook when entering in email addresses. When you give a few characters, a dropdown list of potential matches is displayed. If you move to one of these (with the arrow keys) and hit Delete, that entry is permanently removed. I want to do that with an entry in the combobox. Here is the XAML (simplified): <ComboBox x:Name="Directory" KeyUp="Directory_KeyUp" IsTextSearchEnabled="True" IsEditable="True" Text="{Binding Path=CurrentDirectory, Mode=TwoWay}" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={x:Static self:Properties.Settings.Default}, Path=DirectoryList, Mode=TwoWay}" / The handler is: private void Directory_KeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { ComboBox box = sender as ComboBox; if (box.IsDropDownOpen && (e.Key == Key.Delete)) { TrimCombobox("DirectoryList", box.HighlightedItem); // won't compile! } } When using the debugger, I can see box.HighlightedItem has the value I want but when I try and put in that code, it fails to compile with: System.Windows.Controls.ComboBox' does not contain a definition for 'HighlightedItem'... So: how do I access that value? Keep in mind that the item has not been selected. It is merely highlighted as the mouse hovers over it. Thanks for your help.

  Read the article

• Enum "copy" problem

  - by f0b0s

  Hi all! I have a class, let's call it A. It has a enum (E) and a method Foo(E e), with gets E in the arguments. I want to write a wrapper (decorator) W for A. So it'll have its own method Foo(A::E). But I want to have some kind of encapsulation, so this method should defined as Foo(F f), where F is another enum defined in W, that can be converted to A::E. For example: class A { public: enum E { ONE, TWO, THREE }; void Foo(E e); }; class B { //enum F; // ??? void Foo(F f) { a_.Foo(f); } private: A a_; }; How F should be defined? I don't want to copy value like this: enum F { ONE = A::ONE, TWO = A::TWO, THREE = A::THREE }; because its a potential error in the near feature. Is the typedef definition: typedef A::E F; is the best decision? Is it legal?

  Read the article

• How to easily map c++ enums to strings

  - by Roddy

  I have a bunch of enum types in some library header files that I'm using, and I want to have a way of converting enum values to user strings - and vice-versa. RTTI won't do it for me, because the 'user strings' need to be a bit more readable than the enumerations. A brute force solution would be a bunch of functions like this, but I feel that's a bit too C-like. enum MyEnum {VAL1, VAL2,VAL3}; String getStringFromEnum(MyEnum e) { switch e { case VAL1: return "Value 1"; case VAL2: return "Value 2"; case VAL1: return "Value 3"; default: throw Exception("Bad MyEnum"); } } I have a gut feeling that there's an elegant solution using templates, but I can't quite get my head round it yet. UPDATE: Thanks for suggestions - I should have made clear that the enums are defined in a third-party library header, so I don't want to have to change the definition of them. My gut feeling now is to avoid templates and do something like this: char * MyGetValue(int v, char *tmp); // implementation is trivial #define ENUM_MAP(type, strings) char * getStringValue(const type &T) \ { \ return MyGetValue((int)T, strings); \ } ; enum eee {AA,BB,CC}; - exists in library header file ; enum fff {DD,GG,HH}; ENUM_MAP(eee,"AA|BB|CC") ENUM_MAP(fff,"DD|GG|HH") // To use... eee e; fff f; std::cout<< getStringValue(e); std::cout<< getStringValue(f);

  Read the article

• Inheritance inside a template - public members become invisible?

  - by Juliano

  I'm trying to use inheritance among classes defined inside a class template (inner classes). However, the compiler (GCC) is refusing to give me access to public members in the base class. Example code: template <int D> struct Space { struct Plane { Plane(Space& b); virtual int& at(int y, int z) = 0; Space& space; /* <= this member is public */ }; struct PlaneX: public Plane { /* using Plane::space; */ PlaneX(Space& b, int x); int& at(int y, int z); const int cx; }; int& at(int x, int y, int z); }; template <int D> int& Space<D>::PlaneX::at(int y, int z) { return space.at(cx, y, z); /* <= but it fails here */ }; Space<4> sp4; The compiler says: file.cpp: In member function ‘int& Space::PlaneX::at(int, int)’: file.cpp:21: error: ‘space’ was not declared in this scope If using Plane::space; is added to the definition of class PlaneX, or if the base class member is accessed through the this pointer, or if class Space is changed to a non-template class, then the compiler is fine with it. I don't know if this is either some obscure restriction of C++, or a bug in GCC (GCC versions 4.4.1 and 4.4.3 tested). Does anyone have an idea?

  Read the article

• What exactly is a reentrant function?

  - by eSKay

  Most of the times, the definition of reentrance is quoted from Wikipedia: A computer program or routine is described as reentrant if it can be safely called again before its previous invocation has been completed (i.e it can be safely executed concurrently). To be reentrant, a computer program or routine: Must hold no static (or global) non-constant data. Must not return the address to static (or global) non-constant data. Must work only on the data provided to it by the caller. Must not rely on locks to singleton resources. Must not modify its own code (unless executing in its own unique thread storage) Must not call non-reentrant computer programs or routines. How is safely defined? If a program can be safely executed concurrently, does it always mean that it is reentrant? What exactly is the common thread between the six points mentioned that I should keep in mind while checking my code for reentrant capabilities? Also, Are all recursive functions reentrant? Are all thread-safe functions reentrant? Are all recursive and thread-safe functions reentrant? While writing this question, one thing comes to mind: Are the terms like reentrance and thread safety absolute at all i.e. do they have fixed concrete definations? For, if they are not, this question is not very meaningful. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Semantically correct XHTML markup

  - by Dori

  Hello all. Just trying to get the hang of using the semantically correct XHTML markup. Just writing the code for a small navigation item. Where each button has effectivly a title and a descrption. I thought a definition list would therefore be great so i wrote the following <dl> <dt>Import images</dt> <dd>Read in new image names to database</dd> <dt>Exhibition Management</dt> <dd>Create / Delete an exhibition </dd> <dt>Image Management</dt> <dd>Edit name, medium and exhibition data </dd> </dl> But...I want the above to be 3 buttons, each button containing the dt and dd text. How can i do this with the correct code? Normally i would make each button a div and use that for the visual button behaviour (onHover and current page selection stuff). Any advice please Thanks

  Read the article

• CSS style refresh in IE after dynamic removal of style link

  - by rybz

  Hi! I've got a problem with the dynamic style manipulation in IE7 (IE8 is fine). Using javascript I need to add and remove the < link / node with the definition of css file. Adding and removing the node as a child of < head / works fine under Firefox. Unfortunately, after removing it in the IE, although The tag is removed properly, the page style does not refresh. In the example below a simple css (makes background green) is appended and removed. After the removal in FF the background turns default, but in IE stays green. index.html <html> <head> </head> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> var node; function append(){ var headID = document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0]; node = document.createElement('link'); node.type = 'text/css'; node.rel = 'stylesheet'; node.href = "s.css"; node.media = 'screen'; headID.appendChild(node); } function remove(){ var headID = document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0]; headID.removeChild(node); } </script> <body> <div onClick="append();"> add </div> <div onClick="remove();"> remove </div> </body> </html> And the style sheet: s.css body { background-color:#00CC33 } Here is the live example: http://rlab.pl/dynamic-style/ Is there a way to get it working?

  Read the article

• C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

  - by zinking

  there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124  | Next Page >