Search Results

Search found 3322 results on 133 pages for 'equivalent'.

Page 117/133 | < Previous Page | 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124  | Next Page >

  • Very strange Application.ThreadException behaviour.

    - by Brann
    I'm using the Application.ThreadException event to handle and log unexpected exceptions in my winforms application. Now, somewhere in my application, I've got the following code (or rather something equivalent, but this dummy code is enough to reproduce my issue) : try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } I'm clearly expecting my Application_ThreadException handler to be passed the "test2" exception, but this is not always the case. Typically, if another thread marshals my code to the UI, my handler receives the "test" exception, exactly as if I hadn't caught "test" at all. Here is a short sample reproducing this behavior. I have omitted the designer's code. static class Program { [STAThread] static void Main() { Application.ThreadException += new System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventHandler(Application_ThreadException); Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } static void Application_ThreadException(object sender, System.Threading.ThreadExceptionEventArgs e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Exception.Message); } } public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); button1.Click+=new EventHandler(button1_Click); System.Threading.Thread t = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(ThrowEx)); t.Start(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { throw new NullReferenceException("test"); } catch (Exception ex) { throw new Exception("test2", ex); } } void ThrowEx() { this.BeginInvoke(new EventHandler(button1_Click)); } } The output of this program on my computer is : test ... here I click button1 test2 I've reproduced this on .net 2.0,3.5 and 4.0. Does someone have a logical explanation ?

    Read the article

  • ReaderWriterLockSlim and Pulse/Wait

    - by Jono
    Is there an equivalent of Monitor.Pulse and Monitor.Wait that I can use in conjunction with a ReaderWriterLockSlim? I have a class where I've encapsulated multi-threaded access to an underlying queue. To enqueue something, I acquire a lock that protects the underlying queue (and a couple of other objects) then add the item and Monitor.Pulse the locked object to signal that something was added to the queue. public void Enqueue(ITask task) { lock (mutex) { underlying.Enqueue(task); Monitor.Pulse(mutex); } } On the other end of the queue, I have a single background thread that continuously processes messages as they arrive on the queue. It uses Monitor.Wait when there are no items in the queue, to avoid unnecessary polling. (I consider this to be good design, but any flames (within reason) are welcome if they help me learn otherwise.) private void DequeueForProcessing(object state) { while (true) { ITask task; lock (mutex) { while (underlying.Count == 0) { Monitor.Wait(mutex); } task = underlying.Dequeue(); } Process(task); } } As more operations are added to this class (requiring read-only access to the lock protected underlying), someone suggested using ReaderWriterLockSlim. I've never used the class before, and assuming it can offer some performance benefit, I'm not against it, but only if I can keep the Pulse/Wait design.

    Read the article

  • Utility of List<T>.Sort() versus List<T>.OrderBy() for a member of a custom container class

    - by ccomet
    I've found myself running back through some old 3.5 framework legacy code, and found some points where there are a whole bunch of lists and dictionaries that must be updated in a synchronized fashion. I've determined that I can make this process infinitely easier to both utilize and understand by converging these into custom container classes of new custom classes. There are some points, however, where I came to concerns with organizing the contents of these new container classes by a specific inner property. For example, sorting by the ID number property of one class. As the container classes are primarily based around a generic List object, my first instinct was to write the inner classes with IComparable, and write the CompareTo method that compares the properties. This way, I can just call items.Sort() when I want to invoke the sorting. However, I've been thinking instead about using items = items.OrderBy(Func) instead. This way it is more flexible if I need to sort by any other property. Readability is better as well, since the property used for sorting will be listed in-line with the sort call rather than having to look up the IComparable code. The overall implementation feels cleaner as a result. I don't care for premature or micro optimization, but I like consistency. I find it best to stick with one kind of implementation for as many cases as it is appropriate, and use different implementations where it is necessary. Is it worth it to convert my code to use the LINQ OrderBy instead of using List.Sort? Is it a better practice to stick with the IComparable implementation for these custom containers? Are there any significant mechanical advantages offered by either path that I should be weighing the decision on? Or is their end-functionality equivalent to the point that it just becomes coder's preference?

    Read the article

  • Matlab matrix translation and rotation multiple times

    - by pinnacler
    I have a map of individual trees from a forest stored as x,y points in a matrix. I call it fixedPositions. It's cartesian and (0,0) is the origin. I would like 0/360 degrees to be the top of the screen and 90 degrees to be to the right. Given a velocity and a heading, i.e. .5 m/s and 60 degrees (2 o'clock equivalent on a watch), how do I rotate that x,y points, so that the new origin is centered at (.5cos(60),.5sin(60)) and 60 degrees is now at the top of the screen? Then if I were to give you another heading and speed, i.e. 0 degrees and 2m/s, it should calculate it from the last point, not the original fixedPositions origin. I've wasted my day trying to figure this out. I wish I took matrix algebra but I'm at a loss. I tried doing cos(30) and even those wouldn't compute correctly, which after an hour I realize were in radians.

    Read the article

  • How to add second JOIN clause in Linq To Sql?

    - by Refracted Paladin
    I am having a lot of trouble coming up with the Linq equivalent of this legacy stored procedure. The biggest hurdle is it doesn't seem to want to let me add a second 'clause' on the join with tblAddress. I am getting a Cannot resolve method... error. Can anyone point out what I am doing wrong? Below is, first, the SPROC I need to convert and, second, my LINQ attempt so far; which is FULL OF FAIL! Thanks SELECT dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.PersonInsuranceCoverageID, dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.EffectiveDate, dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.ExpirationDate, dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.Priority, dbo.tblAdminInsuranceCompanyType.TypeName AS CoverageCategory, dbo.tblBusiness.BusinessName, dbo.tblAdminInsuranceType.TypeName AS TypeName, CASE WHEN dbo.tblAddress.AddressLine1 IS NULL THEN '' ELSE dbo.tblAddress.AddressLine1 END + ' ' + CASE WHEN dbo.tblAddress.CityName IS NULL THEN '' ELSE '<BR>' + dbo.tblAddress.CityName END + ' ' + CASE WHEN dbo.tblAddress.StateID IS NULL THEN '' WHEN dbo.tblAddress.StateID = 'ns' THEN '' ELSE dbo.tblAddress.StateID END AS Address FROM dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblInsuranceCompany ON dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.InsuranceCompanyID = dbo.tblInsuranceCompany.InsuranceCompanyID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblBusiness ON dbo.tblBusiness.BusinessID = dbo.tblInsuranceCompany.BusinessID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblAddress ON dbo.tblAddress.BusinessID = dbo.tblBusiness.BusinessID and tblAddress.AddressTypeID = 'b' LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblAdminInsuranceCompanyType ON dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.InsuranceCompanyTypeID = dbo.tblAdminInsuranceCompanyType.InsuranceCompanyTypeID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.tblAdminInsuranceType ON dbo.tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.InsuranceTypeID = dbo.tblAdminInsuranceType.InsuranceTypeID WHERE tblPersonInsuranceCoverage.PersonID = @PersonID var coverage = from insuranceCoverage in context.tblPersonInsuranceCoverages where insuranceCoverage.PersonID == personID join insuranceCompany in context.tblInsuranceCompanies on insuranceCoverage.InsuranceCompanyID equals insuranceCompany.InsuranceCompanyID join address in context.tblAddresses on insuranceCompany.tblBusiness.BusinessID equals address.BusinessID where address.AddressTypeID = 'b' select new { insuranceCoverage.PersonInsuranceCoverageID, insuranceCoverage.EffectiveDate, insuranceCoverage.ExpirationDate, insuranceCoverage.Priority, CoverageCategory = insuranceCompany.tblAdminInsuranceCompanyType.TypeName, insuranceCompany.tblBusiness.BusinessName, TypeName = insuranceCoverage.InsuranceTypeID, Address = };

    Read the article

  • How to call IronPython function from C#/F#?

    - by prosseek
    This is kind of follow up questions of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2969194/integration-of-c-f-ironpython-and-ironruby In order to use C/C++ function from Python, SWIG is the easiest solution. The reverse way is also possible with Python C API, for example, if we have a python function as follows def add(x,y): return (x + 10*y) We can come up with the wrapper in C to use this python as follows. double Add(double a, double b) { PyObject *X, *Y, *pValue, *pArgs; double res; pArgs = PyTuple_New(2); X = Py_BuildValue("d", a); Y = Py_BuildValue("d", b); PyTuple_SetItem(pArgs, 0, X); PyTuple_SetItem(pArgs, 1, Y); pValue = PyEval_CallObject(pFunc, pArgs); res = PyFloat_AsDouble(pValue); Py_DECREF(X); Py_DECREF(Y); Py_DECREF(pArgs); return res; } How about the IronPython/C# or even F#? How to call the C#/F# function from IronPython? Or, is there any SWIG equivalent tool in IronPython/C#? How to call the IronPython function from C#/F#? I guess I could use "engine.CreateScriptSourceFromString" or similar, but I need to find a way to call IronPython function look like a C#/F# function.

    Read the article

  • Host ::1 resolves to remote IP

    - by thebuckst0p
    /etc/hosts files usually have this line, ::1 localhost. I thought ::1 was the equivalent of 127.0.0.1/localhost, and from my reading it seems to be the IPv6 version. So I was using it in Apache for firewalling, "Allow from ::1" and it only allowed local. Then suddenly that stopped working, so I pinged ::1 and got a remote IP address. I tracerouted it and it went through my ISP, through some Microsoft server, then another half dozen steps of asterisks... I'm not sure why this would be (the remote IP), but it doesn't seem good. I grep'd my hard drive for the remote IP and it doesn't appear anywhere. Is this some indicator that I'm being hacked, or normal behavior? Maybe my IPv6 settings are wrong? (This is a brand new MacBookPro with Snow Leopard.) Any ideas about this would be great - what is ::1 supposed to be, why would it be remote, should I be worried, how do I get it back to localhost? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • How would I go about sharing variables in a C++ class with Lua?

    - by Nicholas Flynt
    I'm fairly new to Lua, I've been working on trying to implement Lua scripting for logic in a Game Engine I'm putting together. I've had no trouble so far getting Lua up and running through the engine, and I'm able to call Lua functions from C and C functions from Lua. The way the engine works now, each Object class contains a set of variables that the engine can quickly iterate over to draw or process for physics. While game objects all need to access and manipulate these variables in order for the Game Engine itself to see any changes, they are free to create their own variables, a Lua is exceedingly flexible about this so I don't forsee any issues. Anyway, currently the Game Engine side of things are sitting in C land, and I really want them to stay there for performance reasons. So in an ideal world, when spawning a new game object, I'd need to be able to give Lua read/write access to this standard set of variables as part of the Lua object's base class, which its game logic could then proceed to run wild with. So far, I'm keeping two separate tables of objects in place-- Lua spawns a new game object which adds itself to a numerically indexed global table of objects, and then proceeds to call a C++ function, which creates a new GameObject class and registers the Lua index (an int) with the class. So far so good, C++ functions can now see the Lua object and easily perform operations or call functions in Lua land using dostring. What I need to do now is take the C++ variables, part of the GameObject class, and expose them to Lua, and this is where google is failing me. I've encountered a very nice method here which details the process using tags, but I've read that this method is deprecated in favor of metatables. What is the ideal way to accomplish this? Is it worth the hassle of learning how to pass class definitions around using libBind or some equivalent method, or is there a simple way I can just register each variable (once, at spawn time) with the global lua object? What's the "current" best way to do this, as of Lua 5.1.4?

    Read the article

  • Do database engines other than SQL Server behave this way?

    - by Yishai
    I have a stored procedure that goes something like this (pseudo code) storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin select * from SOME_VIEW order by somecolumn end else if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent end All ran well for a long time. Suddenly, the query started running forever if param4 was 'Y'. Changing the code to this: storedprocedure param1, param2, param3, param4 begin if (param4 = 'Y') begin set param2 = null set param3 = null end if (param1 is null) begin select * from SOME_VIEW where (param2 is null or param2 = SOME_VIEW.Somecolumn2) and (param3 is null or param3 = SOME_VIEW.SomeColumn3) order by somecolumn end else select somethingcompletelydifferent And it runs again within expected parameters (15 seconds or so for 40,000+ records). This is with SQL Server 2005. The gist of my question is this particular "feature" specific to SQL Server, or is this a common feature among RDBMS' in general that: Queries that ran fine for two years just stop working as the data grows. The "new" execution plan destroys the ability of the database server to execute the query even though a logically equivalent alternative runs just fine? This may seem like a rant against SQL Server, and I suppose to some degree it is, but I really do want to know if others experience this kind of reality with Oracle, DB2 or any other RDBMS. Although I have some experience with others, I have only seen this kind of volume and complexity on SQL Server, so I'm curious if others with large complex databases have similar experience in other products.

    Read the article

  • How Can I Find What's Causing My Transaction to Get Promoted?

    - by Damian Powell
    I have web site which serves web services (a mixture of .asmx and WCF) which is mostly using LINQ to SQL and System.Transactions. Occaisionally we see the transaction get promoted to a distributed transaction which causes problems because our web servers are isolated from our databases in such a way that it is not possible for us to use MSDTC. I have configured tracing for System.Transactions by adding the following to my web.config: <system.diagnostics> <sources> <source name="System.Transactions" switchValue="Information"> <listeners> <add name="tx" type="System.Diagnostics.XmlWriterTraceListener" initializeData="tx.log" /> </listeners> </source> </sources> </system.diagnostics> It's very interesting and shows me when the transaction is promoted, but I find that it doesn't really help be discover why. Is there an equivalent tracing mechanism for ADO.NET that will show me when connections are created, including the variables that affect pooling (user, cnn string, transaction scope)?

    Read the article

  • Is there a JavaScript event that fires when a tab index switch is triggered? (TABINDEX does not work for inputs in IFRAME)

    - by treeface
    My specific use case is that I have a WYSIWYG editor which is basically an editable iframe. To the user, however, it looks like a standard-issue textarea. My problem is that I have inputs that sit before and after this editor in the (perceived) tab index and I'd like the user to be able to press tab (or the equivalent on his platform of choice) to get to the WYSIWYG editor when he's in the previous element and shift-tab to get to it when he's in the latter element. I know this can be faked using the key events and checking whether or not the tab key was pressed, but I'm curious if there's a better way. UPDATE. treeface clarified the actual problem in the comments. PROBLEM: In normal case, you can use "TABINDEX" attribute of the <input> element to control that, when tabbing out of "Subject" input field (in an email form), the focus lands on "Body" input field in the e-mail. This is done simply by assigning correctly ordered values to "TABINDEX" attribute of both input fields. The problem is that TABINDEX attribute only orders elements within the same frame. So, if "Body" input field is actually in an internal IFRAME, you can't tab out of "Subject" in the parent frame straight into "Body" in the IFRAME using TABINDEX order.

    Read the article

  • What is the performance impact of CSS's universal selector?

    - by Bungle
    I'm trying to find some simple client-side performance tweaks in a page that receives millions of monthly pageviews. One concern that I have is the use of the CSS universal selector (*). As an example, consider a very simple HTML document like the following: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> <title>Example</title> <style type="text/css"> * { margin: 0; padding: 0; } </head> <body> <h1>This is a heading</h1> <p>This is a paragraph of text.</p> </body> </html> The universal selector will apply the above declaration to the body, h1 and p elements, since those are the only ones in the document. In general, would I see better performance from a rule such as: body, h1, p { margin: 0; padding: 0; } Or would this have exactly the same net effect? Essentially, what I'm asking is if these rules are effectively equivalent in this case, or if the universal selector has to perform more unnecessary work that I may not be aware of. I realize that the performance impact in this example may be very small, but I'm hoping to learn something that may lead to more significant performance improvements in real-world situations. Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • Merge computed data from two tables back into one of them

    - by Tyler McHenry
    I have the following situation (as a reduced example). Two tables, Measures1 and Measures2, each of which store an ID, a Weight in grams, and optionally a Volume in fluid onces. (In reality, Measures1 has a good deal of other data that is irrelevant here) Contents of Measures1: +----+----------+--------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+--------+ | 1 | 100.0000 | NULL | | 2 | 200.0000 | NULL | | 3 | 150.0000 | NULL | | 4 | 325.0000 | NULL | +----+----------+--------+ Contents of Measures2: +----+----------+----------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+----------+ | 1 | 75.0000 | 10.0000 | | 2 | 400.0000 | 64.0000 | | 3 | 100.0000 | 22.0000 | | 4 | 500.0000 | 100.0000 | +----+----------+----------+ These tables describe equivalent weights and volumes of a substance. E.g. 10 fluid ounces of substance 1 weighs 75 grams. The IDs are related: ID 1 in Measures1 is the same substance as ID 1 in Measures2. What I want to do is fill in the NULL volumes in Measures1 using the information in Measures2, but keeping the weights from Measures1 (then, ultimately, I can drop the Measures2 table, as it will be redundant). For the sake of simplicity, assume that all volumes in Measures1 are NULL and all volumes in Measures2 are not. I can compute the volumes I want to fill in with the following query: SELECT Measures1.ID, Measures1.Weight, (Measures2.Volume * (Measures1.Weight / Measures2.Weight)) AS DesiredVolume FROM Measures1 JOIN Measures2 ON Measures1.ID = Measures2.ID; Producing: +----+----------+-----------------+ | ID | Weight | DesiredVolume | +----+----------+-----------------+ | 4 | 325.0000 | 65.000000000000 | | 3 | 150.0000 | 33.000000000000 | | 2 | 200.0000 | 32.000000000000 | | 1 | 100.0000 | 13.333333333333 | +----+----------+-----------------+ But I am at a loss for how to actually insert these computed values into the Measures1 table. Preferably, I would like to be able to do it with a single query, rather than writing a script or stored procedure that iterates through every ID in Measures1. But even then I am worried that this might not be possible because the MySQL documentation says that you can't use a table in an UPDATE query and a SELECT subquery at the same time, and I think any solution would need to do that. I know that one workaround might be to create a new table with the results of the above query (also selecting all of the other non-Volume fields in Measures1) and then drop both tables and replace Measures1 with the newly-created table, but I was wondering if there was any better way to do it that I am missing.

    Read the article

  • Programmatically configure MATLAB

    - by Richie Cotton
    Since MathWorks release a new version of MATLAB every six months, it's a bit of hassle having to set up the latest version each time. What I'd like is an automatic way of configuring MATLAB, to save wasting time on administrative hassle. The sorts of things I usually do when I get a new version are: Add commonly used directories to the path. Create some toolbar shortcuts. Change some GUI preferences. The first task is easy to accomplish programmatically with addpath and savepath. The next two are not so simple. Details of shortcuts are stored in the file 'shortcuts.xml' in the folder given by prefdir. My best idea so far is to use one of the XML toolboxes in the MATLAB Central File Exchange to read in this file, add some shortcut details and write them back to file. This seems like quite a lot of effort, and that usually means I've missed an existing utility function. Is there an easier way of (programmatically) adding shortcuts? Changing the GUI preferences seems even trickier. preferences just opens the GUI preference editor (equivalent to File - Preferences); setpref doesn't seems to cover GUI options. The GUI preferences are stored in matlab.prf (again in prefdir); this time in traditional name=value config style. I could try overwriting values in this directly, but it isn't always clear what each line does, or how much the names differ between releases, or how broken MATLAB will be if this file contains dodgy values. I realise that this is a long shot, but are the contents of matlab.prf documented anywhere? Or is there a better way of configuring the GUI? For extra credit, how do you set up your copy of MATLAB? Are there any other tweaks I've missed, that it is possible to alter via a script?

    Read the article

  • IE 7 activex object (or xmlhttprequest?) open method using POST takes 20-30 seconds to return

    - by Toddeman
    i have a problem that only shows itself in IE7. its a simple ajax call. i got my object (accounting for the browser) so in 7 i SHOULD have an ActiveXObject. when i call open with POST, it takes 20-30 seconds to return. i am using a TON of GET calls to populate information and all of these work (finally, after some bug fixing), but i am NOT a web developer so much like the other bugs i had to fix, i figured i was just missing another IE anomaly. this is not a consistent bug either, which makes it harder to find for me. most times the POST functions like it does in Firefox or Chrome, but maybe 1 out of 4 or 5 will take 20-30 seconds to return. it DOES return correctly when it returns, it just takes a long time. am i missing something simple? or is there a smarter way for me to find out exactly what is going on (like the equivalent of the firebug 'net' tab for windows?).

    Read the article

  • Help thinking "Pythony"

    - by Josh
    I'm brand new to Python and trying to learn it by replicating the following C++ function into python // determines which words in a vector consist of the same letters // outputs the words with the same letters on the same line void equivalentWords(vector <string> words, ofstream & outFile) { outFile << "Equivalent words\n"; // checkedWord is parallel to the words vector. It is // used to make sure each word is only displayed once. vector <bool> checkedWord (words.size(), false); for(int i = 0; i < words.size(); i++) { if (!checkedWord[i]){ outFile << " "; for(int j = i; j < words.size(); j++){ if(equivalentWords(words[i], words[j], outFile)) { outFile << words[j] << " "; checkedWord[j] = true; } } outFile << "\n"; } } } In my python code (below), rather than having a second vector, I have a list ("words") of lists of a string, a sorted list of the chars in the former string (because strings are immutable), and a bool (that tells if the word has been checked yet). However, I can't figure out how to change a value as you iterate through a list. for word, s_word, checked in words: if not checked: for word1, s_word1, checked1 in words: if s_word1 == s_word: checked1 = True # this doesn't work print word1, print "" Any help on doing this or thinking more "Pythony" is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Flex vs GWT again

    - by CK Lee
    Hi all, I am working on a customized web ontology editor (something like http://webprotege.stanford.edu/ which is built by GWT). My backend will be Java+Spring+Hibernate and domain models are in Java. My frontend will be something like WebProtege which requires extensive RPC call. It is quite clear that I should use GWT as I can refer to the open source code. However, due to company policy, I shall consider Flex as well. I understand Flex can remotely invoke Java backend methods via BlazeDS using AMF (Is there a Flex equivalent of GWT-RPC?). I have read discussion on GWT vs Flex vs ?. If I can make full decision sure I will go with GWT. GWT strengths like support right to left characters, support iPhone/iPad, smaller size, support JSON out of the box, support printing are not important considerations for my project. Besides GWT supports Java generic, enum; domain objects can be shared with both GWT client and server; coding are more seamlessly... anyone can suggest other strong reasons that I should only go with GWT? FYI, I have plenty of Java experience but both GWT and Flex are new to me. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • jQuery replacement for javascript confirm

    - by dcp
    Let's say I want to prompt the user before allowing them to save a record. So let's assume I have the following button defined in the markup: <asp:Button ID="btnSave" runat="server" OnClick="btnSave_Click"></asp:Button> To force a prompt with normal javascript, I could wire the OnClick event for my save button to be something like this (I could do this in Page_Load): btnSave.Attributes.Add("onclick", "return confirm('are you sure you want to save?');"); The confirm call will block until the user actually presses on of the Yes/No buttons, which is the behavior I want. For the jquery dialog that is the equivalent, I tried something like this (see below). But the problem is that unlike javascript confirm(), it's going to get all the way through this function (displayYesNoAlert) and then proceed into my btnSave_OnClick method on the C# side. I need a way to make it "block", until the user presses the Yes or No button, and then return true or false so the btnSave_OnClick will be called or not called depending on the user's answer. Currently, I just gave up and went with javascript's confirm, I just wondered if there was a way to do it. function displayYesNoAlert(msg, closeFunction) { dialogResult = false; // create the dialog if it hasn't been instantiated if (!$("#dialog-modal").dialog('isOpen') !== true) { // add a div to the DOM that will store our message $("<div id=\"dialog-modal\" style='text-align: left;' title='Alert!'>").appendTo("body"); $("#dialog-modal").html(msg).dialog({ resizable: true, modal: true, position: [300, 200], buttons: { 'Yes': function () { dialogResult = true; $(this).dialog("close"); }, 'No': function () { dialogResult = false; $(this).dialog("close"); } }, close: function () { if (closeFunction !== undefined) { closeFunction(); } } }); } $("#dialog-modal").html(msg).dialog('open'); }

    Read the article

  • How to change CSS color values in real-time off a javascript slider?

    - by bflora
    I'm making a page where the user gets a javascript slider that goes from 0 to 100 and can use it to set the opacity of a div on the page. I want the opacity of that div to change in real-time as they work the slider. I've not done this before. What's the best approach? There cursor in the slider displays the slider's current value as you move it. It seems to be that I just need to find a way to display that value in any arbitrary other place on the page so I can display it in the style settings for the div. The .js file that generates the slider has a line that (I think) is setting the current value in the cursor: $(this).children(".ui-slider-handle", context).html(parseInt(settings[index]['default'])); TO get this changing number to display somewhere else at the same time, do I just need to add a div somewhere and then add a line like this? $("#newDivId").children(".ui-slider-handle", context).html(parseInt(settings[index]['default'])); That seems like it would give me the number showing up in a div. How then would I get it into a form I could put into the style settings for a div? If this was a php variable, I would do something like this, style="opacity:<?php print $value ?>;" What would be the .js equivalent?

    Read the article

  • How to get a unique WindowRef in a dockable Qt application on Mac

    - by Robin
    How do I get a unique WindowRef from a Qt application that includes docked windows on the Mac? My code boils down to: int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { QApplication* qtApp = new QApplication(argc, argv); MyQMainWindow mainwin; mainwin.show(); } class MyQMainWindow : public QMainWindow { //... QDockWidget* mDock; MyQWidget* mDrawArea; QStackedWidget* mCentralStack; }; MyQMainWindow::MyQMainWindow() { mDock = new QDockWidget(tr("Docked Widget"), this); mDock->setMaximumWidth(180); //... addDockWidget(Qt::RightDockWidgetArea, mDock); mDrawArea = new MyQWidget(this); mCentralStack = new QStackedWidget(); mCentralStack->addWidget(mDrawArea); // Other widgets added to stack in production code. setCentralWidget(mCentralStack); //... } (Apologies if the above isn't syntactically correct, it's just easier to illustrate than to describe.) I added the following temporary code at the end of the above constructor: HIViewRef view1 = (HIViewRef) mDrawArea->winId(); HIViewRef view2 = (HIViewRef) mDock->winId(); WindowRef win1 = HIViewGetWindow(view1); WindowRef win2 = HIViewGetWindow(view2); My problem is that view1 and view2 are different, but win1 and win2 are the same! I tried the following equivalent on Windows: HWND win1 = (HWND)(mCentralDrawArea->winId()); HWND win2 = (HWND)(mDock1->winId()); This time win1 and win2 are different. I need the window handle to pass on to a 3rd party SDK so that it can draw into the central area only. BTW, I appreciate that the winId() method comes with lots of portability warnings, but a substantial refactor is out of the question for me. The same goes for using Carbon instead of Cocoa. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Run arbitrary subprocesses on Windows and still terminate cleanly?

    - by Weeble
    I have an application A that I would like to be able to invoke arbitrary other processes as specified by a user in a configuration file. Batch script B is one such process a user would like to be invoked by A. B sets up some environment variables, shows some messages and invokes a compiler C to do some work. Does Windows provide a standard way for arbitrary processes to be terminated cleanly? Suppose A is run in a console and receives a CTRL+C. Can it pass this on to B and C? Suppose A runs in a window and the user tries to close the window, can it cancel B and C? TerminateProcess is an option, but not a very good one. If A uses TerminateProcess on B, C keeps running. This could cause nasty problems if C is long-running, since we might start another instance of C to operate on the same files while the first instance of C is still secretly at work. In addition, TerminateProcess doesn't result in a clean exit. GenerateConsoleCtrlEvent sounds nice, and might work when everything's running in a console, but the documentation says that you can only send CTRL+C to your own console, and so wouldn't help if A were running in a window. Is there any equivalent to SIGINT on Windows? I would love to find an article like this one: http://www.cons.org/cracauer/sigint.html for Windows.

    Read the article

  • Change Address/Port of WSDL EndPointAddress at runtime?

    - by Pretzel
    So I currently have 3 WSDLs added as Service References in my solution. They look like this in my app.config file (I removed the "bindings" field, because it's uninteresting): <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/query-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="QueryBinding" contract="QueryService.Query" name="QueryPort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/platetype-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PlateTypeBinding" contract="PlateTypeService.PlateType" name="PlateTypePort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/dataimport-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="DataImportBinding" contract="DataImportService.DataImport" name="DataImportPort" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> When I utilize a WSDL, it looks something like this: using (DataService.DataClient dClient = new DataService.DataClient()) { DataService.importTask impt = new DataService.importTask(); impt.String_1 = "someData"; DataService.importResponse imptr = dClient.importTask(impt); } In the "using" statement, when instantiating the DataClient object, I have 5 constructors available to me. In this scenario, I use the default constructor: new DataService.DataClient() which uses the built-in Endpoint Address string, which is fine and good. But I want the user of the application to have the option to change this value. 1) What's the best/easiest way of programatically obtaining this string? 2) Then, once I've allowed the user to edit and test the value, where should I store it? I'd prefer having it be stored in a place (like app.config or equivalent) so that there is no need for checking whether the value exists or not and whether I should be using an alternate constructor. (Looking to keep my code tight, ya know?) Any ideas? Suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Ajax: strange behaviour while checking a textfield

    - by ilnur777
    I have a registration form with checking the available name for username field through ajax. Inputing a username into username field and pushing the "Check!" button, the script sends value to php script. Then php script replaces the username field with the username field + style like this: <input type="text" name="login" value="'.$_GET["user"].'" style="width:205; height:22; border-width:1; border-color:red; border-style:solid; background-color:rgb(255,232,230);"> So when replacing the username field in the form with its equivalent from php script and then submitting a form, it is then get to script on the page that checks whether the username field is empty or not. And it returns an error that it is empty, though after checking through ajax the username field it has value. I don't understand why it gets to empty field checking script, having the same field name and having value?

    Read the article

  • How should I define a JavaScript 'namespace' to satisfy JSLint?

    - by Matthew Murdoch
    I want to be able to package my JavaScript code into a 'namespace' to prevent name clashes with other libraries. Since the declaration of a namespace should be a simple piece of code I don't want to depend on any external libraries to provide me with this functionality. I've found various pieces of advice on how to do this simply but none seem to be free of errors when run through JSLint (using 'The Good Parts' options). As an example, I tried this from Advanced JavaScript (section Namespaces without YUI): "use strict"; if (typeof(MyNamespace) === 'undefined') { MyNamespace = {}; } Running this through JSLint gives the following errors: Problem at line 2 character 12: 'MyNamespace' is not defined. Problem at line 3 character 5: 'MyNamespace' is not defined. Implied global: MyNamespace 2,3 The 'Implied global' error can be fixed by explicitly declaring MyNamespace... "use strict"; if (typeof(MyNamespace) === 'undefined') { var MyNamespace = {}; } ...and the other two errors can be fixed by declaring the variable outside the if block. "use strict"; var MyNamespace; if (typeof(MyNamespace) === 'undefined') { MyNamespace = {}; } So that works, but it seems to me that (since MyNamespace will always be undefined at the point it is checked?) it is equivalent to the much simpler: "use strict"; var MyNamespace = {}; JSLint is content with this but I'm concerned that I've simplified the code to such an extent that it will no longer function correctly as a namespace. Is this final formulation sensible?

    Read the article

  • Appengine JDO dataclasses to python model

    - by M.A. Cape
    Does anyone have tried to implement an app in GAE having both java and python? I have an existing app and my front end is in java. Now I want to use the existing datastore to be interfaced by python. My problem is i don't know how to define the relationships and model that would be equivalent to the one in java. I have tried the one-to-many relationship in python but when stored in the datastore, the fields are different than the one-to-many of java. My data classes are as follows. //one-to-many owned Parent Class public class Parent{ @PrimaryKey @Persistent private String unitID; //some other fields... @Persistent @Order(extensions = @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="list-ordering", value="dateCreated desc")) private List <Child> child; //methods & constructors were omitted } Child public class Child{ @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key uId; @Persistent private String name; /* etc... */ }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124  | Next Page >