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  • Parsing back to 'messy' API strcuture

    - by Eric Fail
    I'm fetching data from an online database (REDcap) via API and the data gets delivered in as comma separated string like this, RAW.API <- structure("id,event_arm,name,dob,pushed_text,pushed_calc,complete\n\"01\",\"event_1_arm_1\",\"John\",\"1979-05-01\",\"\",\"\",2\n\"01\",\"event_2_arm_1\",\"John\",\"2012-09-02\",\"abc\",\"123\",1\n\"01\",\"event_3_arm_1\",\"John\",\"2012-09-10\",\"\",\"\",2\n\"02\",\"event_1_arm_1\",\"Mary\",\"1951-09-10\",\"def\",\"456\",2\n\"02\",\"event_2_arm_1\",\"Mary\",\"1978-09-12\",\"\",\"\",2\n", "`Content-Type`" = structure(c("text/html", "utf-8"), .Names = c("", "charset"))) I have this script that nicely parses it into a data frame, (df <- read.table(file = textConnection(RAW.API), header = TRUE, sep = ",", na.strings = "", stringsAsFactors = FALSE)) id event_arm name dob pushed_text pushed_calc complete 1 1 event_1_arm_1 John 1979-05-01 <NA> NA 2 2 1 event_2_arm_1 John 2012-09-02 abc 123 1 3 1 event_3_arm_1 John 2012-09-10 <NA> NA 2 4 2 event_1_arm_1 Mary 1951-09-10 def 456 2 5 2 event_2_arm_1 Mary 1978-09-12 <NA> NA 2 I then do some calculations and write them to pushed_text and pushed_calc whereafter I need to format the data back to the messy comma separated structure it came in. I imagine something like this, API.back <- `some magic command`(df, ...) identical(RAW.API, API.back) [1] TRUE Some command that can format my data from the data frame I made, df, back to the structure that the raw API-object came in, RAW.API. Any help would be very appreciated.

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  • Textarea Adding Space To Beginning of Text?

    - by Jascha
    I'm having a strange problem in that I have php inserting text into a <textarea> and the <textarea> is adding one white space to the top of my text. I created an example page to display the problem... here it the code behind the page. <textarea style="width:600px;height:100px;"><?php get_film_info('main description'); ?></textarea> <br> <textarea id="mainDescription style="width:600px;height:100px;">Text just typed in</textarea> <br> <?php get_film_info('main description'); ?> You can see that without the <textarea> tag, the text does not include the indent. My database also reflects no indent, as well as the php output outside of the <textarea>... Any clue what could be going on? the sample page -J

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  • Executing sequential stored procedures; works in query analyzer, doesn't in my .NET application

    - by evanmortland
    Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called MyOther DB with a stored procedure called 'CreatedAudit' as well. In other words in MyDB I have CreateAudit, which does the following EXEC dbo.MyOtherDB.CreateAudit. I call the MyDb CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") One line after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

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  • Is It Incorrect to Make Domain Objects Aware of The Data Access Layer?

    - by Noah Goodrich
    I am currently working on rewriting an application to use Data Mappers that completely abstract the database from the Domain layer. However, I am now wondering which is the better approach to handling relationships between Domain objects: Call the necessary find() method from the related data mapper directly within the domain object Write the relationship logic into the native data mapper (which is what the examples tend to do in PoEAA) and then call the native data mapper function within the domain object. Either it seems to me that in order to preserve the 'Fat Model, Skinny Controller' mantra, the domain objects have to be aware of the data mappers (whether it be their own or that they have access to the other mappers in the system). Additionally it seems that Option 2 unnecessarily complicates the data access layer as it creates table access logic across multiple data mappers instead of confining it to a single data mapper. So, is it incorrect to make the domain objects aware of the related data mappers and to call data mapper functions directly from the domain objects? Update: These are the only two solutions that I can envision to handle the issue of relations between domain objects. Any example showing a better method would be welcome.

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  • Enumerating a string

    - by JamesB
    I have a status which is stored as a string of a set length, either in a file or a database. I'm looking to enumerate the possible status' I have the following type to define the possible status' Type TStatus = (fsNormal = Ord('N'),fsEditedOnScreen = Ord('O'), fsMissing = Ord('M'),fsEstimated = Ord('E'),fsSuspect = Ord('s'), fsSuspectFromOnScreen = Ord('o'),fsSuspectMissing = Ord('m'), fsSuspectEstimated = Ord('e')); Firstly is this really a good idea? or should I have a seperate const array storing the char conversions? That would mean more than one place to update. Now convert a string to a status array I have the following, but how can I check if a char is valid without looping through the enumeration? Function StrToStatus(Value : String):TStatusArray; var i: Integer; begin if Trim(Value) = '' then begin SetLength(Result,0); Exit; end; SetLength(Result,Length(Value)); for i := 1 to Length(Value) do begin Result[i] := TStatus(Value[i]); // I don't think this line is safe. end; end; AFAIK this should be fine for converting back again. Function StatusToStr(Value : TStatusArray):String; var i: Integer; begin for i := 0 to Length(Value) - 1 do Result := Result + Chr(Ord(Value[i])) end; I'm using Delphi 2007

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  • What is the best way to auto-generate INSERT statements for a SQL Server table?

    - by JosephStyons
    We are writing a new application, and while testing, we will need a bunch of dummy data. I've added that data by using MS Access to dump excel files into the relevant tables. Every so often, we want to "refresh" the relevant tables, which means dropping them all, re-creating them, and running a saved MS Access append query. The first part (dropping & re-creating) is an easy sql script, but the last part makes me cringe. I want a single setup script that has a bunch of INSERTs to regenerate the dummy data. I have the data in the tables now. What is the best way to automatically generate a big list of INSERT statements from that dataset? I'm thinking of something like in TOAD (for Oracle) where you can right-click on a grid and click Save As-Insert Statements, and it will just dump a big sql script wherever you want. The only way I can think of doing it is to save the table to an excel sheet and then write an excel formula to create an INSERT for every row, which is surely not the best way. I'm using the 2008 Management Studio to connect to a SQL Server 2005 database.

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  • Visual Studio 2008 project file does not load because of an unexpected encoding change.

    - by Xenan
    In our team we have a database project in visual Studio 2008 which is under source control by Team Foundation Server. Every two weeks or so, after one co-worker checks in, the project file won't load on the other developers machines. The error message is: The project file could not be loaded. Data at the root level is invalid. Line 1, position 1. When I look at the project file in Notepad++, the file looks like this: ??<NUL?NULxNULmNULlNUL NULvNULeNULrNULsNULiNULoNULnNUL ... and so on (you can see <?xml version in this) whereas an normal project file looks like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> ... So probably something is wrong with the encoding of the file. This is a problem for us because it turns out to be impossible to get the file encoding correct again. The 'solution' is to throw away the project file an get the last know working version from source control. According to the file, the encoding should be UTF-16. According to Notepad++, the corrupted file is actually UTF-8. My questions are: Why is Visual Studio messing up the encoding of the project file, apparently at random times and at random machines? What should we do to prevent this? When it has happened, is there a possibility to restore the current file in the correct encoding instead of pulling an older version from source control? As a last note: the problem is with one single project file, all other project files don't expose this problem.

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  • DB2 Child Table Not Working - Create Table

    - by gamerzfuse
    I have a bit of a task before me. (DB2 Database) I need to create a table that will be a child table (is that what it is called in SQL?) I need it so that it has a foreign key constraint with my other table, so when the parent table is modified (record deleted) the child table also loses that record. Once I have the table, I also need to populate it with the data from the other table (if there is an easy way to UPDATE this). If you could point me in the right direction, this would help alot, as I do not even know what syntax to look for. Thanks in advance The table I have in place: create table titleauthors ( au_id char(11), title_id char(6), au_ord integer, royaltyshare decimal(5,2)); The table I am creating: create table titles ( title_id char(6), title varchar(80), type varchar(12), pub_id char(4), price decimal(9,2), advance decimal(9,2), ytd_sales integer, contract integer, notes varchar(200), pubdate date); I need the title_id to be matched with the title_id from the parent table AND use the ON DELETE CASCADE syntax to delete when that table is deleted from. My Attempt: CREATE TABLE BookTitles ( title_id char(6) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT BookTitles_title_id_pk REFERENCES titleauthors(title_id) ON DELETE CASCADE, title varchar(80) NOT NULL, type varchar(12), pub_id char(4), price decimal(9,2), advance decimal(9,2), ytd_sales integer, contract integer, notes varchar(200), pubdate date) ; Thanks in advance!

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  • WPF and events from dynamically created controls

    - by OKB
    Hi, I need some help to implement a common behavior in some controls. In my WPF application, I have a main form that contains a panel and a button: Ok The button will run a Save method when clicked.The Save method reads some data from the form and saves the data to a database. The panel is populated with dynamically created controls (such as textbox, dropdownlists, etc). The main form instantiates a MainViewModel class. This MainViewModel class instantiates a class called UIFactory. So we have 3 levels here. In the UIFactory class the controls is being created. The Panel from the main form is sent as a parameter to a method in the MainModelView class called GenerateUI. This GenerateUI method in the MainViewModel class calls a GenerateControls method on the UIFactory class that takes the same panel as a parameter. The GenerateControls method in the UIFactory class then adds dynamically created controls on the panel. What I want to achieve is that whenever the user hits ENTER when he is typing in one of those dynamically created controls e.g a textbox, I want that behavior to be the same as clicking on the button in my main form. But how do I do that? I thought of implementing Routed events on my controls, but I can't figure out how to do it. Could you please advise me on how to achieve my goal? Best Regards, OKB

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  • Populate an SSRS Report parameter(hidden) by a sproc or user defined function

    - by Nauman
    My SSRS report fetches data from my DATAWAREHOUSE. The ASP.NET application I have is connected to an OLTP database. I invoke the SSRS Report from my ASP.NET application and provide a parameter as CustomerID(this is an application key in datawarehouse) to my report. Since my report is connected to my datawarehouse, I do not query my report databased on the OLTP's CustomerID. Instead I use my datawarehouse's surrogate key (CustomerDimKey). Now, in my report, I need to find the correct surrogate key for the CustomerID parameter, which I passed from my ASP.NET application! My report already has a parameter as @CustomerDimKey(this is used across all the report sprocs). We used it for testing, but now we'll hide this as we have integrated it with the ASP.NET application. I have already added a new parameter to the report as @CustomerID(this will have the OLTP's CustomerID), which will now get a value from ASP.NET. I need to know a way to re-use the @CustomerDimKey report parameter, which should now get value from a sql statement or a sproc once the report is requested. Based on the value contained by the @CustomerID parameter.

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  • Why does my Doctrine DBAL query return no results when quoted?

    - by braveterry
    I'm using the Doctrine DataBase Abstraction Layer (DBAL) to perform some queries. For some reason, when I quote a parameter before passing it to the query, I get back no rows. When I pass it unquoted, it works fine. Here's the relevant snippet of code I'm using: public function get($game) { load::helper('doctrinehelper'); $conn = doctrinehelper::getconnection(); $statement = $conn->prepare('SELECT games.id as id, games.name as name, games.link_url, games.link_text, services.name as service_name, image_url FROM games, services WHERE games.name = ? AND services.key = games.service_key'); $quotedGame = $conn->quote($game); load::helper('loghelper'); $logger = loghelper::getLogger(); $logger->debug("Quoted Game: $quotedGame"); $logger->debug("Unquoted Game: $game"); $statement->execute(array($quotedGame)); $resultsArray = $statement->fetchAll(); $logger->debug("Number of rows returned: " . count($resultsArray)); return $resultsArray; } Here's what the log shows: 01/01/11 17:00:13,269 [2112] DEBUG root - Quoted Game: 'Diablo II Lord of Destruction' 01/01/11 17:00:13,269 [2112] DEBUG root - Unquoted Game: Diablo II Lord of Destruction 01/01/11 17:00:13,270 [2112] DEBUG root - Number of rows returned: 0 If I change this line: $statement->execute(array($quotedGame)); to this: $statement->execute(array($game)); I get this in the log: 01/01/11 16:51:42,934 [2112] DEBUG root - Quoted Game: 'Diablo II Lord of Destruction' 01/01/11 16:51:42,935 [2112] DEBUG root - Unquoted Game: Diablo II Lord of Destruction 01/01/11 16:51:42,936 [2112] DEBUG root - Number of rows returned: 1 Have I fat-fingered something?

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  • Resetting a PChar variable

    - by scott-thornton
    Hi, I don't know much about delphi win 32 programming, but I hope someone can answer my question. I get duplicate l_sGetUniqueIdBuffer saved into the database which I want to avoid. The l_sGetUniqueIdBuffer is actually different ( the value of l_sAuthorisationContent is xml, and I can see a different value generated by the call to getUniqueId) between rows. This problem is intermittant ( duplicates are rare...) There is only milliseconds difference between the update date between the rows. Given: ( unnesseary code cut out) l_sGetUniqueIdBuffer: PChar; FOutputBufferSize : integer; FOutputBufferSize := 1024; while( not dmAccomClaim.ADOQuClaimIdentification.Eof ) do begin // Get a unique id for the request l_sGetUniqueIdBuffer := AllocMem (FOutputBufferSize); l_returnCode := getUniqueId (m_APISessionId^, l_sGetUniqueIdBuffer, FOutputBufferSize); dmAccomClaim.ADOQuAddContent.Active := False; dmAccomClaim.ADOQuAddContent.Parameters.ParamByName('pContent').Value := (WideString(l_sAuthorisationContent)); dmAccomClaim.ADOQuAddContent.Parameters.ParamByName('pClaimId').Value := dmAccomClaim.ADOQuClaimIdentification.FieldByName('SB_CLAIM_ID').AsString; dmAccomClaim.ADOQuAddContent.Parameters.ParamByName('pUniqueId').Value := string(l_sGetUniqueIdBuffer); dmAccomClaim.ADOQuAddContent.ExecSQL; FreeMem( l_sAuthorisationContent, l_iAuthoriseContentSize ); FreeMem( l_sGetUniqueIdBuffer, FOutputBufferSize ); end; I guess i need to know, is the value in l_sGetUniqueIdBuffer being reset for every row??

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  • iPhone Core Data problem

    - by Junior B.
    This is my first project with Core Data, I followed the Event tutorial provided by Apple that helped me to understand the basic of core data in iPhone. But now, working over my project, I've a problem adding data into my database. When i create an object and set the data, if I try to get it back, the system returns me a strange sequence of characters. This is what i see in log if I try to log it: 2010-05-11 00:16:43.523 FG[2665:207] Package: ‡}00å 2010-05-11 00:16:43.525 FG[2665:207] Package: ‡}00å 2010-05-11 00:16:43.526 FG[2665:207] Package: ‡}00å 2010-05-11 00:16:43.527 FG[2665:207] Package: ‡}00å 2010-05-11 00:16:43.527 FG[2665:207] Package: ‡}00å 2010-05-11 00:16:43.527 FG[2665:207] Items: 5 What kind of problem could be this? Edit: This is the part of the code that generate the error: package = (Package *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Package" inManagedObjectContext:moc]; theNodes = [doc nodesForXPath:@"//pack" error:&error]; for (CXMLElement *theElement in theNodes) { // Create a counter variable as type "int" int counter; // Loop through the children of the current node for(counter = 0; counter < [theElement childCount]; counter++) { if([[[theElement childAtIndex:counter] name] isEqualToString: @"id"]) [package setIdPackage:[[theElement childAtIndex:counter] stringValue]]; if([[[theElement childAtIndex:counter] name] isEqualToString: @"title"]) [package setPackageTitle:[[theElement childAtIndex:counter] stringValue]]; if([[[theElement childAtIndex:counter] name] isEqualToString: @"category"]) [package setCategory:[[theElement childAtIndex:counter] stringValue]]; if([[[theElement childAtIndex:counter] name] isEqualToString: @"lang"]) [package setLang:[[theElement childAtIndex:counter] stringValue]]; if([[[theElement childAtIndex:counter] name] isEqualToString: @"number"]) { NSNumberFormatter * f = [[NSNumberFormatter alloc] init]; [f setNumberStyle:NSNumberFormatterDecimalStyle]; NSNumber * myNumber = [f numberFromString:[[theElement childAtIndex:counter] stringValue]]; [f release]; [package setNumber:myNumber]; } } } NSLog([NSString stringWithFormat:@"=== %s ===\nID: %s\nCategory: %s\nLanguage: %s",[package packageTitle], [package idPackage] ,[package category],[package lang]]);

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  • Date Filtered Collections without Functions

    - by madcapnmckay
    Hi, I have an entity similar to the below: public class Entity { public List<DateItem> PastDates { get; set; } public List<DateItem> FutureDates { get; set; } } public class DateItem { public DateTime Date { get; set; } /* * Other Properties * */ } Where PastDates and FutureDates are both mapped to the same type/table. I have been trying to find a way to have the Past and Future properties mapped automagically by Nhibernate. The closest I came was where clause on the mapping as follows HasMany(x => x.PastDates) .AsBag().Cascade .AllDeleteOrphan() .KeyColumnNames.Add("EventId").Where("Date < currentdate()") .Inverse(); Where currentdate is a UDF. I do not want to have these database specific functions if I can avoid it, mostly because i can't then test my DAL with SQLite as it doesn't support functions or stored procedures. At the moment I am building the past and future collections using Criteria and adding to my DTO manually. Anyone know how this could be achieved without using any UDFs? Many thanks,

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  • GET and XMLHttpRequest

    - by Neethusha
    i have an XMLHttpRequest.The request passes a parameter to my php server code in /var/www. But i cannot seem to be able to extract the parameter back at the server side. below i have pasted both the codes: javascript: function getUsers(u) { alert(u);//here u is 'http://start.ubuntu.com/9.10' xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); var url="http://localhost/servercode.php"+"?q="+u; xmlhttp.onreadystatechange= useHttpResponse; xmlhttp.open("GET",url,true); xmlhttp.send(null); } function useHttpResponse() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 ) { var response = eval('('+xmlhttp.responseText+')'); for(i=0;i<response.Users.length;i++) alert(response.Users[i].UserId); } } servercode.php: <?php $q=$_GET["q"]; //$q="http://start.ubuntu.com/9.10"; $con=mysql_connect("localhost","root","blaze"); if(!$con) {die('could not connect to database'.mysql.error()); } mysql_select_db("BLAZE",$con) or die("No such Db"); $result=mysql_query("SELECT * FROM USERURL WHERE URL='$q'"); if($result == null) echo 'nobody online'; else { header('Content-type: text/html'); echo "{\"Users\":["; while($row=mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '{"UserId":"'.$row[UsrID].'"},'; } echo "]}"; } mysql_close($con); ?> this is not giving the required result...although the commented statement , where the variable is assigned explicitly the value of the argument works...it alerts me the required output...but somehow the GET method's parameter is not reaching my php or thats how i think it is....pls help....

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  • How would I structure the loop to go through inputs?

    - by dmanexe
    I am attempting to make a loop that will go through an array structured like this: $input[n][checked] $input[n][input] The 2nd input acts as a price multiplier, but doesn't have to exist (field can be blank). I don't think a foreach loop is right because I don't think it handles the inputs from the form in the correct dimensional array order to keep the information together. I have inputs on a form that look like this: <input type="checkbox" name="measure[<?php echo $item->id; ?>][checked]" value="<?php echo $item->id; ?>"> <input class="item_mult" type="text" name="measure[<?php echo $item->id; ?>][input]" /> I am attempting to make the loop go through and act as a multiplier on the input relative to its sibling field. (i.e. input[1][input] would be an integer that I want to retrieve later, grouped with input[1][checked]) <? $field = $this->input->post('measure',true); $totals = array(); foreach($field as $value): if ($value['input'] == TRUE) { $query = $this->db->get_where('items', array('id' => $value['input']))->row(); $totals[] = $query->price; ?> <p><?=$query->name?> - <?=money_format('%(#10n', $query->price)?></p> <?php } else { } endforeach; ?> And finally, the last code to array_sum and print the grand total: <? $grand_total = array_sum($totals); ?> <p><?=money_format('%(#10n', $grand_total)?></p> Eventually, I will need to store these records in a database, so I am sending complete item IDs through, etc.

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  • ASP.net drop down dynamically styling and then remembering the styles on aborted submit

    - by peacedog
    So, I've got an ASP drop down list (this is .net 2.0). I'm binding it with data. Basically, when the page loads and it's not a post back we'll fetch record data, bind all the drop downs, and set them to their appropriate values (strictly speaking we: initialize page with basic set of data from DB, bind drop downs from DB, fetch actual record data from DB, set drown downs to appropriate settings at this time). What I want to do is selectively style the list options. So the database returns 3 items: ID, Text, and a flag indicating whether I the record is "active" (and I'll style appropriately). It's easy enough to do and I've done it. My problem is what happens when a form submission is halted. We have slightly extended the Page class and created an AddError() method, which will create a list of errors from failed business rule checks and then display them in a ValidationSummary. It works something like this, in the submit button's click event: CheckBizRules(); if(Page.IsValid) { SaveData(); } If any business rule check fails, the Page will not be valid. The problem is, when the page re-renders (viewsate is enabled, but no data is rebound) my beautiful conditional styling is now sadly gone, off to live in the land of the missing socks. I need to preserve it. I was hoping to avoid another DB call here (e.g. getting the list data back from the DB again if the page isn't valid, just for purposes of re-styling the list). But it's not the end of the world if that's my course of action. I was hoping someone might have an alternative suggestion. I couldn't think of how to phrase this question better, if anyone has any suggestions or needs clarification don't hesitate to get it, by force if need be. ;)

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  • Codeigniter common templates

    - by Darthg8r
    Let's say that I have a website that has 100 different pages. Each page uses a common header and footer. Inside the header is some dynamic content that comes from a database. I'd like to avoid having to have code in every single controller and action that passes this common code into the view. function index() { // It sucks to have to include this on every controller action. data['title'] = "This is the index page"; data['currentUserName'] = "John Smith"; $this->load->view("main_view", data); } function comments() { // It sucks to have to include this on every controller action. data['title'] = "Comment list"; data['currentUserName'] = "John Smith"; $this->load->view("comment_view", data); } I realize that I could refactor the code so that the common parts are in a single function and the function is called by the action. Doing so would reduce SOME of the pain, but it still doesn't feel right since I'd still have to make a call to that function every time. What's the correct way to handle this?

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  • jQuery inconsistent .remove by class on element with multiple classes

    - by pedalpete
    I've got a page where messages and associated elements (responses, forwards, etc) all share a class based on the database id of the parent. For example this is a message this is another message this is a comment this is another comment tim posted a new message sara forwarded a message to john at times I need to remove all elements with the same id, so I originally had jQuery('div#'+id).remove(); but that would sometimes not remove all the ids because ids are supposed to be unique. So I added the id as a class. now I use jQuery('div.'+id).remove(); but this seems to be about 80% effective, and sometimes the divs aren't being removed. I'm not sure if the issue is because the div has more than one class, but I need the classes because that is how I refer to the elements when somebody clicks. For instance, jQuery('div.message').click(function(){ get the id, send it to the server and get the message }); is there something wrong I'm doing here? or is there a better way to do this?

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  • How to perform Linq select new with datetime in SQL 2008

    - by kd7iwp
    In our C# code I recently changed a line from inside a linq-to-sql select new query as follows: OrderDate = (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.Year.ToString() + "-" + p.OrderDate.Value.Month.ToString() + "-" + p.OrderDate.Value.Day.ToString() : "") To: OrderDate = (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : "") The change makes the line smaller and cleaner. It also works fine with our SQL 2008 database in our development environment. However, when the code deployed to our production environment which uses SQL 2005 I received an exception stating: Nullable Type must have a value. For further analysis I copied (p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : "") into a string (outside of a Linq statement) and had no problems at all, so it only causes an in issue inside my Linq. Is this problem just something to do with SQL 2005 using different date formats than from SQL 2008? Here's more of the Linq: dt = FilteredOrders.Where(x => x != null).Select(p => new { Order = p.OrderId, link = "/order/" + p.OrderId.ToString(), StudentId = (p.PersonId.HasValue ? p.PersonId.Value : 0), FirstName = p.IdentifierAccount.Person.FirstName, LastName = p.IdentifierAccount.Person.LastName, DeliverBy = p.DeliverBy, OrderDate = p.OrderDate.HasValue ? p.OrderDate.Value.Date.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd") : ""}).ToDataTable(); This is selecting from a List of Order objects. The FilteredOrders list is from another linq-to-sql query and I call .AsEnumerable on it before giving it to this particular select new query. Doing this in regular code works fine: if (o.OrderDate.HasValue) tempString += " " + o.OrderDate.Value.Date.ToString("yyyy-mm-dd");

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  • PHP: Aggregate Model Classes or Uber Model Classes?

    - by sunwukung
    In many of the discussions regarding the M in MVC, (sidestepping ORM controversies for a moment), I commonly see Model classes described as object representations of table data (be that an Active Record, Table Gateway, Row Gateway or Domain Model/Mapper). Martin Fowler warns against the development of an anemic domain model, i.e. a class that is nothing more than a wrapper for CRUD functionality. I've been working on an MVC application for a couple of months now. The DBAL in the application I'm working on started out simple (on account of my understanding - oh the benefits of hindsight), and is organised so that Controllers invoke Business Logic classes, that in turn access the database via DAO/Transaction Scripts pertinent to the task at hand. There are a few "Entity" classes that aggregate these DAO objects to provide a convenient CRUD wrapper, but also embody some of the "behaviour" of that Domain concept (for example, a user - since it's easy to isolate). Taking a look at some of the code, and thinking along refactoring some of the code into a Rich Domain Model, it occurred to me that were I to try and wrap the CRUD routines and behaviour of say, a Company into a single "Model" class, that would be a sizeable class. So, my question is this: do Models represent domain objects, business logic, service layers, all of the above combined? How do you go about defining the responsibilities for these components?

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  • Core data migration failing with "Can't find model for source store" but managedObjectModel for source is present

    - by Ira Cooke
    I have a cocoa application using core-data, which is now at the 4th version of its managed object model. My managed object model contains abstract entities but so far I have managed to get migration working by creating appropriate mapping models and creating my persistent store using addPersistentStoreWithType:configuration:options:error and with the NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption set to YES. NSDictionary *optionsDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES] forKey:NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption]; NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [applicationSupportFolder stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"MyApp.xml"]]; NSError *error=nil; [theCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSXMLStoreType configuration:nil URL:url options:optionsDictionary error:&error] This works fine when I migrate from model version 3 to 4, which is a migration that involves adding attributes to several entities. Now when I try to add a new model version (version 5), the call to addPersistentStoreWithType returns nil and the error remains empty. The migration from 4 to 5 involves adding a single attribute. I am struggling to debug the problem and have checked all the following; The source database is in fact at version 4 and the persistentStoreCoordinator's managed object model is at version 5. The 4-5 mapping model as well as managed object models for versions 4 and 5 are present in the resources folder of my built application. I've tried various model upgrade paths. Strangely I find that upgrading from an early version 3 - 5 works .. but upgrading from 4 - 5 fails. I've tried adding a custom entity migration policy for migration of the entity whose attributes are changing ... in this case I overrode the method beginEntityMapping:manager:error: . Interestingly this method does get called when migration works (ie when I migrate from 3 to 4, or from 3 to 5 ), but it does not get called in the case that fails ( 4 to 5 ). I'm pretty much at a loss as to where to proceed. Any ideas to help debug this problem would be much appreciated.

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  • How to design Models the correct way: Object-oriented or "Package"-oriented?

    - by ajsie
    I know that in OOP you want every object (from a class) to be a "thing", eg. user, validator etc. I know the basics about MVC, how they different parts interact with each other. However, i wonder if the models in MVC should be designed according to the traditional OOP design, that is to say, should every model be a database/table/row (solution 2)? Or is the intention more like to collect methods that are affecting the same table or a bunch of related tables (solution 1). example for an Address book module in CodeIgniter, where i want be able to "CRUD" a Contact and add/remove it to/from a CRUD-able Contact Group. Models solution 1: bunching all related methods together (not real object, rather a "package") class Contacts extends Model { function create_contact() {) function read_contact() {} function update_contact() {} function delete_contact() {} function add_contact_to_group() {} function delete_contact_from_group() {} function create_group() {} function read_group() {} function update_group() {} function delete_group() {} } Models solution 2: the OOP way (one class per file) class Contact extends Model { private $name = ''; private $id = ''; function create_contact() {) function read_contact() {} function update_contact() {} function delete_contact() {} } class ContactGroup extends Model { private $name = ''; private $id = ''; function add_contact_to_group() {} function delete_contact_from_group() {} function create_group() {} function read_group() {} function update_group() {} function delete_group() {} } i dont know how to think when i want to create the models. and the above examples are my real tasks for creating an Address book. Should i just bunch all functions together in one class. then the class contains different logic (contact and group), so it can not hold properties that are specific for either one of them. the solution 2 works according to the OOP. but i dont know why i should make such a dividing. what would the benefits be to have a Contact object for example. Its surely not a User object, so why should a Contact "live" with its own state (properties and methods). you experienced guys with OOP/MVC, please shed a light on how one should think here in this very concrete task.

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  • Help using RDA on a Desktop Applicaton?

    - by Joel
    I have a .NET 3.5 Compact Framework project that uses RDA for moving data between its mobile device's local SqlCe database and a remote MSSql-2008 server(it uses RDA Push and Pull). The server machine a virtual directory with sqlcesa35.dll (v3.5.5386.0) setup for RDA. We usually install these cabs on the mobile devices and the RDA process does not have any problems: sqlce.wce5.armv4i.cab sqlce.repl.wce5.armv4i.cab Now I am trying to run this application as a desktop application. RDA Pull (download) has been working well. But the RDA Push (upload) is giving me some problems. This is the exception that I get on the desktop application when I try to use RDA Push: System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeException The Client Agent and Server Agent component versions are incompatible. The compatible versions are: Client Agent versions 3.0 and 3.5 with Server Agent versions 3.5 and Client Agent version 3.5 with Server Agent version 3.5. Re-install the replication components with the matching versions for client and server agents. [ 35,30,Client Agent version = ,Server Agent version = ] I have tried copying the file C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server Compact Edition\v3.5\Desktop\SqlServerCe.dll (v3.5.5692.0) to bin\debug I have also tried copying another version of SqlServerCe.dll (v3.0.5206.0) to bin\debug. But this just gives me a slightly different exception: System.Data.SqlServerCe.SqlCeException [ 35,30 ] Is there a different setup or any different dlls that I need to use? Thanks, -Joel

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  • JQuery function not working as expected

    - by Mike
    I've written a little function to position a logo midway between the left hand side of the browser window and the (centered) navigation menu. The menu items are populated from a database, with the first item given the id item0. function positionLogo(){ var $menuleft=0; var $element=document.getElementById('item0'); if ($element.offsetParent) { do { $menuleft+=$element.offsetLeft; } while ($element=$element.offsetParent); } var $logoleft=($menuleft/2)-130; // As logo is 260px wide if ($logoleft<0) { $logoleft=0; } $('#logo').css('left',$logoleft); } $(document).ready(function(){ positionLogo(); }); $(window).resize(function(){ positionLogo(); }); This works fine when the window is resized, but when it first runs when the page is loaded, the position it sets is about 20px too far right (ie $logoleft is 20 more than it should be). As soon as the page is resized it jumps into the correct position. Haven't got it live anywhere at the moment but does anyone have any ideas? Thanks!

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