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  • UICollectionView with one static cell and N dynamic ones from a fetchresultscontroller exception

    - by nflacco
    I'm trying to make a UITableView that shows a blog post and comments for that post. My setup is a tableview in storyboard with two dynamic prototype cells. The first cell is for the post and should never change. The second cell represents the 0 to N comments. My cellForRowAtIndexPath method shows the post cell properly, but fails to get the comment at the given index path (though if I comment out the fetch I get the appropriate number of comment cells with a green background that I set as a visual debug thing). let comment = fetchedResultController.objectAtIndexPath(indexPath) as Comment I get the following exception on this line: 2014-08-24 15:06:40.712 MessagePosting[21767:3266409] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSRangeException', reason: '*** -[__NSArrayM objectAtIndex:]: index 1 beyond bounds [0 .. 0]' *** First throw call stack: ( 0 CoreFoundation 0x0000000101aa43e5 __exceptionPreprocess + 165 1 libobjc.A.dylib 0x00000001037f9967 objc_exception_throw + 45 2 CoreFoundation 0x000000010198f4c3 -[__NSArrayM objectAtIndex:] + 227 3 CoreData 0x00000001016e4792 -[NSFetchedResultsController objectAtIndexPath:] + 162 Section and cell setup: override func tableView(tableView: UITableView!, numberOfRowsInSection section: Int) -> Int { // #warning Incomplete method implementation. // Return the number of rows in the section. switch section { case 0: return 1 default: if let realPost:Post = post { return fetchedResultController.sections[0].numberOfObjects } else { return 0 } } } override func tableView(tableView: UITableView!, cellForRowAtIndexPath indexPath: NSIndexPath!) -> UITableViewCell! { switch indexPath.section { case 0: let cell = tableView.dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier(postViewCellIdentifier, forIndexPath: indexPath) as UITableViewCell cell.backgroundColor = lightGrey if let realPost:Post = self.post { cell.textLabel.text = realPost.text } return cell default: let cell = tableView.dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier(commentCellIdentifier, forIndexPath: indexPath) as UITableViewCell cell.backgroundColor = UIColor.greenColor() let comment = fetchedResultController.objectAtIndexPath(indexPath) as Comment // <---------------------------- :( cell.textLabel.text = comment.text return cell } } FRC: func controllerDidChangeContent(controller: NSFetchedResultsController!) { tableView.reloadData() } func getFetchedResultController() -> NSFetchedResultsController { fetchedResultController = NSFetchedResultsController(fetchRequest: taskFetchRequest(), managedObjectContext: managedObjectContext, sectionNameKeyPath: nil, cacheName: nil) return fetchedResultController } func taskFetchRequest() -> NSFetchRequest { if let realPost:Post = self.post { let fetchRequest = NSFetchRequest(entityName: "Comment") let sortDescriptor = NSSortDescriptor(key: "date", ascending: false) fetchRequest.predicate = NSPredicate(format: "post = %@", realPost) fetchRequest.sortDescriptors = [sortDescriptor] return fetchRequest } else { return NSFetchRequest(entityName: "") } }

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  • Calling a SLSB with Seam security from a servlet

    - by wilth
    Hello, I have an existing application written in SEAM that uses SEAM Security (http://docs.jboss.org/seam/2.1.1.GA/reference/en-US/html/security.html). In a stateless EJB, I might find something like this: @In Identity identity; ... if(identity.hasRole("admin")) throw new AuthException(); As far as I understand, Seam injects the Identity object from the SessionContext of the servlet that invokes the EJB (this happens "behind the scenes", since Seam doesn't really use servlets) and removes it after the call. Is this correct? Is it now possible to access this EJB from another servlet (in this case, that servlet is the server side of a GWT application)? Do I have to "inject" the correct Identity instance? If I don't do anything, Seam injects an instance, but doesn't correctly correlate the sessions and instances of Identity (so the instances of Identity are shared between sessions and sometimes calls get new instances etc.). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

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  • How does this code break the Law of Demeter?

    - by Dave Jarvis
    The following code breaks the Law of Demeter: public class Student extends Person { private Grades grades; public Student() { } /** Must never return null; throw an appropriately named exception, instead. */ private synchronized Grades getGrades() throws GradesException { if( this.grades == null ) { this.grades = createGrades(); } return this.grades; } /** Create a new instance of grades for this student. */ protected Grades createGrades() throws GradesException { // Reads the grades from the database, if needed. // return new Grades(); } /** Answers if this student was graded by a teacher with the given name. */ public boolean isTeacher( int year, String name ) throws GradesException, TeacherException { // The method only knows about Teacher instances. // return getTeacher( year ).nameEquals( name ); } private Grades getGradesForYear( int year ) throws GradesException { // The method only knows about Grades instances. // return getGrades().getForYear( year ); } private Teacher getTeacher( int year ) throws GradesException, TeacherException { // This method knows about Grades and Teacher instances. A mistake? // return getGradesForYear( year ).getTeacher(); } } public class Teacher extends Person { public Teacher() { } /** * This method will take into consideration first name, * last name, middle initial, case sensitivity, and * eventually it could answer true to wild cards and * regular expressions. */ public boolean nameEquals( String name ) { return getName().equalsIgnoreCase( name ); } /** Never returns null. */ private synchronized String getName() { if( this.name == null ) { this.name == ""; } return this.name; } } Questions How is the LoD broken? Where is the code breaking the LoD? How should the code be written to uphold the LoD?

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  • How do I find out what process Id and thread id / name has a file open

    - by peter
    Hi All, I am using C# in an application and am having some problems with a file becoming locked. The piece of code does this, while (true) { Read a packet from a socket (with data in it to add to the file) Open a file Writes data to it Close a file } But in the process the file becomes locked. I don't really understand how, we are are definately catching and reporting exceptions so I don't see how the file doesn't get closed every time. My best guess is that something else is opening the file, but I want to prove it. Can someone please provide a piece of code to check whether the file is open and if so report what processid and threadid has the file open. For example if I had this code, StreamWriter streamWriter1 = new StreamWriter(@"c:\logs\test.txt"); streamWriter1.WriteLine("Test"); // code to check for locks?? StreamWriter streamWriter2 = new StreamWriter(@"c:\logs\test.txt"); streamWriter1.Close(); streamWriter2.Close(); That will throw an exception because the file is locked when we try and open it the second time. So where the comment is what could I put in there to report that the current app (process Id) and the current thread (thread Id) have the file locked? Thanks.

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  • Objecive C Error, Message sent to deallocated object

    - by Dave C
    Hello, I have several buttons on my app that are being created dynamically. They are all pointed at the button click event when pressed. When the button pressed method is called, the sender's tag(int value) is parsed into the controllers house ID. It works with one of the buttons... the first one created to be specific, but the others throw the following error: -[CFNumber intValue]: message sent to deallocated instance 0xc4bb0ff0 I am not releasing these buttons anywhere in my code... I haven't set them to auto release or anything like that... just wondering why they are doing this on the click. The button click event: - (IBAction) ButtonClick: (id) sender { HouseholdViewController *controller = [[HouseholdViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"HouseholdViewController" bundle:nil]; controller.delegate = self; controller.HouseID = [(NSInteger)[(UIButton *)sender tag] intValue]; //this line throws an error controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } Where I am creating the buttons: UIButton *button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; button.frame = CGRectMake(MyLongInScreenCoords, MyLatInScreenCoords, 50, 50); UIImage *buttonImageNormal = [UIImage imageNamed:@"blue_pin.png"]; UIImage *strechableButtonImageNormal = [buttonImageNormal stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:50 topCapHeight:50]; [button setBackgroundImage:strechableButtonImageNormal forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self.view addSubview:button]; button.tag = [NSNumber numberWithInt:[[words objectAtIndex: i] intValue]]; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][0] = button; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][1] = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(MyActualLat, MyActualLong)]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(ButtonClick:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; CurrentHouseCount++; Thank you for any assistance.

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  • Question about the Cloneable interface and the exception that should be thrown

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, The Java documentation says: A class implements the Cloneable interface to indicate to the Object.clone() method that it is legal for that method to make a field-for-field copy of instances of that class. Invoking Object's clone method on an instance that does not implement the Cloneable interface results in the exception CloneNotSupportedException being thrown. By convention, classes that implement this interface should override Object.clone (which is protected) with a public method. See Object.clone() for details on overriding this method. Note that this interface does not contain the clone method. Therefore, it is not possible to clone an object merely by virtue of the fact that it implements this interface. Even if the clone method is invoked reflectively, there is no guarantee that it will succeed. And I have this UserProfile class: public class UserProfile implements Cloneable { private String name; private int ssn; private String address; public UserProfile(String name, int ssn, String address) { this.name = name; this.ssn = ssn; this.address = address; } public UserProfile(UserProfile user) { this.name = user.getName(); this.ssn = user.getSSN(); this.address = user.getAddress(); } // get methods here... @Override public UserProfile clone() { return new UserProfile(this); } } And for testing porpuses, I do this in main(): UserProfile up1 = new UserProfile("User", 123, "Street"); UserProfile up2 = up1.clone(); So far, no problems compiling/running. Now, per my understanding of the documentation, removing implements Cloneable from the UserProfile class should throw an exception in up1.clone() call, but it doesn't. I've read around here that the Cloneable interface is broken but I don't really know what that means. Am I missing something?

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  • Is this OleDbDataAdapter bug

    - by ????
    It doesn't look to me OleDbDataAdapter should throw an exception on trying to fill DataSet for a db table column of type decimal(28,3). The message is "The numerical value is too large to fit into a 96 bit decimal". Could you just check this, I have no significant experience with ADO.NET and OLE DB components? The VB.NET code we have in the application is this: Dim dbDataSet As New DataSet Dim dbDataAdapter As OleDbDataAdapter Dim dbCommand As OleDbCommand Dim conn As OleDbConnection Dim connectionString As String 'parts where connectionString is set conn = New OleDbConnection(connectionString) 'part where sqlQuery is set but it ends up being "SELECT Price As 'Price' From PricebookView" - Price is of type decimal(28,3) dbCommand = New OleDbCommand(sqlQuery, conn) dbCommand.CommandTimeout = cmdTimeout dbDataAdapter = New OleDbDataAdapter(dbCommand) dbDataAdapter.Fill(dbDataSet) The last line is where the exception is thrown and the top of the stack trace is: at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbBuffer.ReadNumeric(Int32 offset) at System.Data.OleDb.ColumnBinding.Value_NUMERIC() at System.Data.OleDb.ColumnBinding.Value() at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbDataReader.GetValues(Object[] values) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DataReaderContainer.CommonLanguageSubsetDataReader.GetValues(Object[] values) at System.Data.ProviderBase.SchemaMapping.LoadDataRow() at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.FillLoadDataRow(SchemaMapping mapping) at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.FillFromReader(DataSet dataset, DataTable datatable, String srcTable, DataReaderContainer dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, DataColumn parentChapterColumn, Object parentChapterValue) at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, String srcTable, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillInternal(DataSet dataset, DataTable[] datatables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet) ... I am not sure why does it try to set the value to Int32. Thank you for the time !

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  • ADO.NET zombie transaction bug? How to ensure that commands will not be executed on implicit transac

    - by TN
    e.g. When deadlock occurs, following SQL commands are successfully executed, even if they have assigned SQL transaction that is after rollback. It seems, it is caused by a new implicit transaction that is created on SQL Server. Someone could expect that ADO.NET would throw an exception that the commands are being executed on a zombie transaction. However, such exception is not thrown. (I think this is a bug in ASP.NET.) Moreover, because of zombie transaction the final Dispose() silently ignores the rollback. Any ideas, how can I ensure that nobody can execute commands on implicit transaction? Or, how to check that transaction is zombie? I found that Commit() and Rollback() check for zombie transaction, however I can call them for a test:) I also found that also reading IsolationLevel will do the check, but I am not sure whether simple calling transaction.IsolationLevel.ToString(); will not be removed by a future optimizer. Or do you know any other safe way invoke a getter (without using reflection or IL emitting)?

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  • Can't Install libcurl PHP on Ubuntu Linux

    - by FranticPedantic
    I am trying to use the new facebook api and it requires libcurl PHP. I used sudo apt-get install php5-curl sudo apachectl -k restart And it didn't work. I get the same error and the phpinfo() page says nothing about libcurl. The source of this problem is probably that I built some of the tools from source (apache2, php), but then I got bored so installed a lot of the extensions with the package manager. But I'm not exactly how to go about diagnosing the point of failure. The apt-get install for curl definitely worked, and can be found in /usr/lib/php5/20060613/curl.so I think a lot of my confusion stems from not knowing which files go where, and what purpose they have. Any help would be appreciated, and please tell me if I need to provide more information. edit: The specific error I get is: Exception: Facebook needs the CURL PHP extension. from line if (!function_exists('curl_init')) { throw new Exception('Facebook needs the CURL PHP extension.'); } Ubuntu: 9.10 PHP: 5.2.13 Loaded Configuration File: /etc/php5/apache2/php.ini

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  • Java process is not terminating after starting an external process

    - by tangens
    On Windows I've started a program "async.cmd" with a ProcessBuilder like this: ProcessBuilder processBuilder = new ProcessBuilder( "async.cmd" ); processBuilder.redirectErrorStream( true ); processBuilder.start(); Then I read the output of the process in a separate thread like this: byte[] buffer = new byte[ 8192 ]; while( !interrupted() ) { int available = m_inputStream.available(); if( available == 0 ) { Thread.sleep( 100 ); continue; } int len = Math.min( buffer.length, available ); len = m_inputStream.read( buffer, 0, len ); if( len == -1 ) { throw new CX_InternalError(); } String outString = new String( buffer, 0, len ); m_output.append( outString ); } Now it happened that the content of the file "async.cmd" was this: REM start a command window start cmd /k The process that started this extenal program terminated (process.waitFor() returned the exit value). Then I sent an readerThread.interrupt() to the reader thread and the thread terminated, too. But there was still a thread running that wasn't terminating. This thread kept my java application running even if it exited its main method. With the debugger (eclipse) I wasn't able to suspend this thread. After I quit the opened command window, my java program exited, too. Question How can I quit my java program while the command window stays open?

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  • Detecting a Dispose() from an exception inside using block

    - by Augusto Radtke
    I have the following code in my application: using (var database = new Database()) { var poll = // Some database query code. foreach (Question question in poll.Questions) { foreach (Answer answer in question.Answers) { database.Remove(answer); } // This is a sample line that simulate an error. throw new Exception("deu pau"); database.Remove(question); } database.Remove(poll); } This code triggers the Database class Dispose() method as usual, and this method automatically commits the transaction to the database, but this leaves my database in an inconsistent state as the answers are erased but the question and the poll are not. There is any way that I can detect in the Dispose() method that it being called because of an exception instead of regular end of the closing block, so I can automate the rollback? I don´t want to manually add a try ... catch block, my objective is to use the using block as a logical safe transaction manager, so it commits to the database if the execution was clean or rollbacks if any exception occured. Do you have some thoughts on that?

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  • How should I unit test a code-generator?

    - by jkp
    This is a difficult and open-ended question I know, but I thought I'd throw it to the floor and see if anyone had any interesting suggestions. I have developed a code-generator that takes our python interface to our C++ code (generated via SWIG) and generates code needed to expose this as WebServices. When I developed this code I did it using TDD, but I've found my tests to be brittle as hell. Because each test essentially wanted to verify that for a given bit of input code (which happens to be a C++ header) I'd get a given bit of outputted code I wrote a small engine that reads test definitions from XML input files and generates test cases from these expectations. The problem is I dread going in to modify the code at all. That and the fact that the unit tests themselves are a: complex, and b: brittle. So I'm trying to think of alternative approaches to this problem, and it strikes me I'm perhaps tackling it the wrong way. Maybe I need to focus more on the outcome, IE: does the code I generate actually run and do what I want it to, rather than, does the code look the way I want it to. Has anyone got any experiences of something similar to this they would care to share?

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  • Best Practice - Removing item from generic collection in C#

    - by Matt Davis
    I'm using C# in Visual Studio 2008 with .NET 3.5. I have a generic dictionary that maps types of events to a generic list of subscribers. A subscriber can be subscribed to more than one event. private static Dictionary<EventType, List<ISubscriber>> _subscriptions; To remove a subscriber from the subscription list, I can use either of these two options. Option 1: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { if (_subscriptions[event].Contains(subscriber)) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } } Option 2: ISubscriber subscriber; // defined elsewhere foreach (EventType event in _subscriptions.Keys) { _subscriptions[event].Remove(subscriber); } I have two questions. First, notice that Option 1 checks for existence before removing the item, while Option 2 uses a brute force removal since Remove() does not throw an exception. Of these two, which is the preferred, "best-practice" way to do this? Second, is there another, "cleaner," more elegant way to do this, perhaps with a lambda expression or using a LINQ extension? I'm still getting acclimated to these two features. Thanks. EDIT Just to clarify, I realize that the choice between Options 1 and 2 is a choice of speed (Option 2) versus maintainability (Option 1). In this particular case, I'm not necessarily trying to optimize the code, although that is certainly a worthy consideration. What I'm trying to understand is if there is a generally well-established practice for doing this. If not, which option would you use in your own code?

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  • Essence of BiMap in Google collections

    - by littleEinstein
    I am still quite puzzled at the BiMap in Google collections/Guava. It was claimed that The two bimaps are backed by the same data; any changes to one will appear in the other. I browsed through the source code, and I found the use of delegate in ForwardingMap. But in any actually subclass of StandardBiMap, I do see the data are put into both the forward and reverse map. So what is the essence, and why it claims to have saved space by keeping only one copy of the data? Is it just the actual objects are one set, but two distinct sets of references to these objects are still needed, one set maintained in forward map, and the other in reverse map? private V putInBothMaps(K key, V value, boolean force) { boolean containedKey = containsKey(key); if (containedKey && Objects.equal(value, get(key))) { return value; } if (force) { inverse().remove(value); } else if (containsValue(value)) { throw new IllegalArgumentException( "value already present: " + value); } V oldValue = super.put(key, value); updateInverseMap(key, containedKey, oldValue, value); return oldValue; }

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  • C# Delegate under the hood question.

    - by Ted
    Hi Guys I was doing some digging around into delegate variance after reading the following tquestion in SO. "delegate-createdelegate-and-generics-error-binding-to-target-method" (sorry not allowed to post more than one hyperlink as a newbie here!) I found a very nice bit of code from Barry kelly at https://www.blogger.com/comment.g?blogID=8184237816669520763&postID=2109708553230166434 Here it is (in a sugared-up form :-) using System; namespace ConsoleApplication4 { internal class Base { } internal class Derived : Base { } internal delegate void baseClassDelegate(Base b); internal delegate void derivedClassDelegate(Derived d); internal class App { private static void Foo1(Base b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 1"); } private static void Foo2(Derived b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 2"); } private static T CastDelegate<T>(Delegate src) where T : class { return (T) (object) Delegate.CreateDelegate( typeof (T), src.Target, src.Method, true); // throw on fail } private static void Main() { baseClassDelegate a = Foo1; // works fine derivedClassDelegate b = Foo2; // works fine b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though b(new Derived()); b = CastDelegate<derivedClassDelegate>(a); // the hard way, avoids indirection b(new Derived()); } } } I understand all of it except this one (what looks very simple) line. b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though Can anyone tell me: how it is possible to call invoke without passing the param required by the static function. When is going on under the hood when you assign the return value from calling invoke What does Barry mean by extra indirection (in his comment)

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  • .NET out of memory troubleshooting

    - by bushman
    After reading a few enlightening articles about memory in the .NET technology, Out of Memory does not refer to physical memory, 597499. I thought I understood why a C# app would throw an out of memory exception -- until I started experimenting with two servers-- both are having 2.5 gigs of ram, windows server 2003 and identical programs running. The only significant difference between the two being one has 7% hard drive storage left and the other more than 50%. The server with 7% storage space left is consistently throwing an out of memory while the other is performing consistently well. My app is a C# web application that process' hundreds of MBs of String object. Why would this difference happen seeing that the most likely reason for the out of memory issue is out of contiguous virtual address space -- What solutions do you guys propose -- and what do you say about the following 1. turn on the 3gb switch to increase the virtual address space -- 2. instead of using one giant string object, break it up into smaller pieces and collect it in a jagged array (here I have to find a way to return to the caller in some other way as right now, the return type is a string) thanks SO

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  • How do I disable the network connection from .Net without needing admin priveledges?

    - by Brad Mathews
    I may be SOL on this but I thought I would give throw it out for possible solutions. I am writing a computer access control service to help me control my kids' computer use. Plan on open sourcing it when I have it working. It is written in VB.Net and needs to work on XP through 7. I am running into all sorts of security and desktop access issues on Windows 7. The service needs to run as admin to execute the NetSh command to disable the network. But I cannot interact with the desktop from the service so I IPC to a UI to handle other stuff, but I still cannot detect from the service if the desktop is locked. Argghh! I could get it all working from a hidden windows form app if I could just lick the one piece that needs admin permissions: disabling the network. It does no good if a kid logs on and denies the popup asking if the program should run as administrator and he says no. Also windows 7 will not start a program set to run as admin using HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run Anyone know how to get this working? Or have an outside the box solution? Thanks! Brad

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  • Can ElementTree be told to preserve the order of attributes?

    - by dmckee
    I've written a fairly simple filter in python using ElementTree to munge the contexts of some xml files. And it works, more or less. But it reorders the attributes of various tags, and I'd like it to not do that. Does anyone know a switch I can throw to make it keep them in specified order? Context for this I'm working with and on a particle physics tool that has a complex, but oddly limited configuration system based on xml files. Among the many things setup that way are the paths to various static data files. These paths are hardcoded into the existing xml and there are no facilities for setting or varying them based on environment variables, and in our local installation they are necessarily in a different place. This isn't a disaster because the combined source- and build-control tool we're using allows us to shadow certain files with local copies. But even thought the data fields are static the xml isn't, so I've written a script for fixing the paths, but with the attribute rearrangement diffs between the local and master versions are harder to read than necessary. This is my first time taking ElementTree for a spin (and only my fifth or sixth python project) so maybe I'm just doing it wrong. Abstracted for simplicity the code looks like this: tree = elementtree.ElementTree.parse(inputfile) i = tree.getiterator() for e in i: e.text = filter(e.text) tree.write(outputfile) Reasonable or dumb? Related links: How can I get the order of an element attribute list using Python xml.sax? Preserve order of attributes when modifying with minidom

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  • Trying to 'Make' CUDA SDK, ld cannot find library, ldconfig says it can.

    - by Andrew Bolster
    I know there are many other questions similar to this one, but none of the solutions posited there are working for me Basically, making the SDK sample files, i get /usr/bin/ld: cannot find -lcuda which would be an easy enough 'find the library and throw it to ldconfig', except ldconfig already says it has it... $ sudo ldconfig -v | grep cuda /usr/local/cuda/lib64: libcudartemu.so.3 -> libcudartemu.so.3.0.14 libcudart.so.3 -> libcudart.so.3.0.14 /usr/local/cuda/lib: libcudartemu.so.3 -> libcudartemu.so.3.0.14 libcudart.so.3 -> libcudart.so.3.0.14 libcuda.so.1 -> libcuda.so.195.36.15 libcuda.so.1 -> libcuda.so.195.36.15 libicudata.so.42 -> libicudata.so.42.1 And I checked, there is a symlink libcuda.so -> libcuda.so.1 but I'm still confused as to why libcuda.so -> ... doesnt show up I must be missing something really obvious. Any ideas?

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  • PHP fails silently when php-code is within html tag

    - by Michal M
    PROBLEM UPDATED, READ BELOW For some reason my CI fails silently when loading view. Loading view is simply called from controller $this->load->view('templates/default.php'); Now. There are some functions in the loaded view that are not defined unless a proper helper is loaded as well. Normally, php would throw an error, but instead it fails silently here. I have no idea why. The template gets outputted till the line containing the undefined function. It took me long time to realise where my script is failing. Here's my setup: Windows 7 Ultimate Apache 2.2.15 PHP 5.3.2 with following error reporting settings: display_errors = On display_startup_errors = On error_reporting = E_ALL | E_STRICT CodeIgniter 1.7.2 Any ideas why would that be? UPDATE After further debugging, it turned out that PHP fails to report any errors when php code is inline with HTML and within the HTML tag. Now this is bizarre. This returns Fatal Error: <p><?php echo $bogus(); ?></p> This doesn't and fails silently: <p class="<?php echo $bogus(); ?>">paragraph</p> Why? :O UPDATE 2 Further investigation showed that if an error_log in PHP is specified, the errors are in fact reported in that file, but still not in the browser... Again, why? UPDATE 3 Actually my code should be slightly different. Checked another PHP installation on completely different machine and it confirmed the PHP bug. Reported here: http://bugs.php.net/bug.php?id=52040

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  • AJAX Partial Rendering issues for the default page in IIS 7 when using custom http module

    - by WiseGuyEh
    The problem When I try to make a AJAX partial update request (using the UpdatePanel control) from the default page of an IIS7 web site, it fails- instead of returning the html to be updated, it returns the entire page, which then causes the MS AJAX Javascript to throw a parsing shit-fit. The suspected cause I have narrowed the cause down to two issues- making an AJAX request to the default page when I have a certain custom http module registered. A partial rendering request to http://localhost will fail, but a partial rendering request to http://localhost/default.aspx will work fine. Also, If i remove the following line in my custom HttpModule: _application.PreRequestHandlerExecute += OnPreRequestHandlerExecute; The AJAX partial render will work correctly. Wierd huh? Another wierd thing... If I look at trace.axd, I can see that when a partial rendering request fails, two POST requests are logged for the one partial rendering request- one where the default.aspx page executes successfully (trace information such as page_load is logged) but no content is produced and a second that doesn't seem to actually execute (no trace information is logged) but produces content (HTTP_CONTENT_LENGTH is greater than 0). Please help! If anyone with a good knowledge of HTTP modules or the MS AJAX Http module could explain why this is occuring I would be very grateful. As it is, the obvious work arround is to just redirect to default.aspx if the request url is "/" but I would really like to understand why this is occurring.

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  • Passing Key-Value pair to a COM method in C#

    - by Sinnerman
    Hello, I have the following problem: I have a project in C# .Net where I use a third party COM component. So the problem is that the above component has a method, which takes a string and a number of key-value pairs as arguments. I already managed to call that method through JavaScript like that: var srcName srcName = top.cadView.addSource( 'Database', { driver : 'Oracle', host : '10.10.1.123', port : 1234, database : 'someSID', user : 'someuser', password : 'somepass' } ) if ( srcName != '' ) { ... } ... and it worked perfectly well. However I have no idea how to do the same using C#. I tried passing the pairs as Dictionary and Struct/Class but it throws me a "Specified cast is not valid." exception. I also tried using Hashtable like that: Hashtable args = new Hashtable(); args.Add("driver", "Oracle"); args.Add("host", "10.10.1.123"); args.Add("port", 1234); args.Add("database", "someSID"); args.Add("user", "someUser"); args.Add("password", "samePass"); String srcName = axCVCanvas.addSource("Database", args); and although it doesn't throw an exception it still won't do the job, writing me in a log file [ Error] [14:38:33.281] Cad::SourceDB::SourceDB(): missing parameter 'driver' Any help will be appreciated, thanks.

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  • Custom basic authentication fails in IIS7

    - by manu08
    I have an ASP.NET MVC application, with some RESTful services that I'm trying to secure using custom basic authentication (they are authenticated against my own database). I have implemented this by writing an HTTPModule. I have one method attached to the HttpApplication.AuthenticateRequest event, which calls this method in the case of authentication failure: private static void RejectWith401(HttpApplication app) { app.Response.StatusCode = 401; app.Response.StatusDescription = "Access Denied"; app.CompleteRequest(); } This method is attached to the HttpApplication.EndRequest event: public void OnEndRequest(object source, EventArgs eventArgs) { var app = (HttpApplication) source; if (app.Response.StatusCode == 401) { string val = String.Format("Basic Realm=\"{0}\"", "MyCustomBasicAuthentication"); app.Response.AppendHeader("WWW-Authenticate", val); } } This code adds the "WWW-Authenticate" header which tells the browser to throw up the login dialog. This works perfectly when I debug locally using Visual Studio's web server. But it fails when I run it in IIS7. For IIS7 I have the built-in authentication modules all turned off, except anonymous. It still returns an HTTP 401 response, but it appears to be removing the WWW-Authenticate header. Any ideas?

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  • Application error passthru when using apache mod_proxy

    - by user303442
    Heyas. I'm using mod_proxy with apache2 provide vhost ability to multiple servlet apps running on the local machine. It works fine, for the most part. Requests come into apache then are directed to the application bound on a port on localhost. The app receives the request and responds, which is delivered back to the client by apache. The problem I'm having is that the application delivers 500's on errors, and mod_proxy stomps on them. Often these errors are caused in a ajax request and the error is handled in client side javascript. For example, a call to a server side createObject(name) might throw a NameNotUniqueException , which is delivered back as a 500. The client javascript might then display an appropriate error message. When an error is thrown by the application (resulting in a 500 response to mod_proxy), then apache stomps the error message and returns 500 Internal Server Error Internal Server Error The server encountered an internal error or misconfiguration and was unable to complete your request. .. the stock apache server side error message. I want mod_proxy to pass the original 500 back through to the client. Is there a directive I've missed which prevents clobbering of the 500? TIA

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  • Is there a java library / package analogous to <stdio.h>?

    - by Roboprog
    I have been doing Java on and off for about 14 years, and almost nothing else the last 6 years or so. I really hate the java.io package -- its legion of subclasses and adapters. I do like exceptions, rather than having to always poll "errno" and the like, but I could surely live without declared exceptions. Is there anything that functions like the Unix/ANSI stdio.h routines in C? I know we will never be rid of java.io and its conventions until java itself is retired, as they have metastasized throughout the many frameworks that have accreted to java. That said, I would like something that works kind of like this (let's call it package javax.stdio): Have a main utility class, perhaps FileStar, that can read and write files (or pipes), either text or binary, either sequentially or random access, with constructors that mimic fopen() and popen(). This class should have a load of useful methods that do things like fread(), fwrite(), fgets(), fputs(), fseek(), and whatever else (fprintf()?). Methods that are incompatible with the open/construct mode simply throw up (just like some of the collections classes/methods do when restricted). Then, have a bunch of interfaces that suggest how you intend to use the stream once you have created it: Sequential, RandomAccess, ReadOnly, WriteOnly, Text, Binary, plus combinations of these that make sense. Perhaps even have methods to return the appropriate type-cast (interface), throwing up if you have asked for something incompatible. For extra flavor, skip the declared exceptions -- e.g. - javax.stdio.IOException extends RuntimeException. Is there an open source project like this floating around?

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