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  • Automatic Adjusting Range Table

    - by Bradford
    I have a table with a start date range, an end date range, and a few other additional columns. On input of a new record, I want to automatically adjust any overlapping date ranges (shrinking them to allow for the new input). I also want to ensure that no overlapping records can accidentally be inserted into this table. I'm using Oracle and Java for my application code. How should I enforce the prevention of overlapping date ranges and also allow for automatically adjusting overlapping ranges? Should I create an AFTER INSERT trigger, with a dbms_lock to serialize access, to prevent the overlapping data. Then in Java, apply the logic to auto adjust everything? Or should that part be in PL/SQL in stored procedure call? This is something that we need for a couple other tables so it'd be nice to abstract. If anyone has something like this already written, please share :) I did find this reference: http://asktom.oracle.com/pls/asktom/f?p=100:11:0::::P11_QUESTION_ID:474221407101 Here's an example of how each of the 4 overlapping cases should be handled for adjustment on insert: = Example 1 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (20, 50, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(20, 50, 'A') **(51, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 2 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (40, 80, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 39, 'Z') **(40, 80, 'A') **(81, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 3 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (50, 120, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 49, 'Z') **(50, 120, 'A') (200, 500, 'Y') = Example 4 = In DB (Start, End, Value): (0, 10, 'X') **(30, 100, 'Z') (200, 500, 'Y') Input (20, 120, 'A') Gives (0, 10, 'X') **(20, 120, 'A') (200, 500, 'Y') The algorithm is as follows: given range = g; input range = i; output range set = o if i.start <= g.start if i.end >= g.end o_1 = i else o_1 = i o_2 = (o.end + 1, g.end) else if i.end >= g.end o_1 = (g.start, i.start - 1) o_2 = i else o_1 = (g.start, i.start - 1) o_2 = i o_3 = (i.end + 1, i.end)

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  • CentOS - Convert Each WAV File to MP3/OGG

    - by Benny
    I am trying to build a script (I'm pretty new to linux scripting) and I can't seem to figure out why I'm not able to run this script. If I keep the header (#!/bin/sh) in, I get the following: -bash: /tmp/ConvertAndUpdate.sh: /bin/sh^M: bad interpreter: No such file or directory If I take it out, I get the following: 'tmp/ConvertAndUpdate.sh: line 2: syntax error near unexpected token `do 'tmp/ConvertAndUpdate.sh: line 2: `do Any ideas? Here is the full script: #!/bin/sh for file in *.wav; do mp3=$(basename .$file. .wav).mp3; #echo $mp3 nice lame -b 16 -m m -q 9 .resample 8 .$file. .$mp3.; touch .reference .$file. .$mp3.; chown apache.apache .$mp3.; chmod 600 .$mp3.; rm -f .$file.; mv .$file. /converted; sql="UPDATE recordings SET IsReady=1 WHERE Filename='${file%.*}'" echo $sql | mysql --user=me --password=pasword Recordings #echo $sql done

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  • iPhone SQLite Password Field Encryption

    - by Louis Russell
    Good Afternoon Guys and Girls, Hopefully this will be a quick and easy question. I am building an App that requires the user to input their login details for an online service that it links to. Multiple login details can be added and saved as the user may have several accounts that they would like to switch between. These details will be stored in an SQLite database and will contain their passwords. Now the questions are: 1: Should these passwords be encrypted in the database? My instinct would say yes but then I do not know how secure the device and system is and if this is necessary. 2: If they should be encrypted what should I use? I think encrypting the whole database file sounds a bit over-kill so should I just encrypt the password before saving it to the database? If this is case what could I use to achieve this? I have found reference to a "crypt(3)" but am having trouble finding much about it or how to implement it. I eagerly await your replies!

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  • The cost of passing by shared_ptr

    - by Artem
    I use std::tr1::shared_ptr extensively throughout my application. This includes passing objects in as function arguments. Consider the following: class Dataset {...} void f( shared_ptr< Dataset const > pds ) {...} void g( shared_ptr< Dataset const > pds ) {...} ... While passing a dataset object around via shared_ptr guarantees its existence inside f and g, the functions may be called millions of times, which causes a lot of shared_ptr objects being created and destroyed. Here's a snippet of the flat gprof profile from a recent run: Each sample counts as 0.01 seconds. % cumulative self self total time seconds seconds calls s/call s/call name 9.74 295.39 35.12 2451177304 0.00 0.00 std::tr1::__shared_count::__shared_count(std::tr1::__shared_count const&) 8.03 324.34 28.95 2451252116 0.00 0.00 std::tr1::__shared_count::~__shared_count() So, ~17% of the runtime was spent on reference counting with shared_ptr objects. Is this normal? A large portion of my application is single-threaded and I was thinking about re-writing some of the functions as void f( const Dataset& ds ) {...} and replacing the calls shared_ptr< Dataset > pds( new Dataset(...) ); f( pds ); with f( *pds ); in places where I know for sure the object will not get destroyed while the flow of the program is inside f(). But before I run off to change a bunch of function signatures / calls, I wanted to know what the typical performance hit of passing by shared_ptr was. Seems like shared_ptr should not be used for functions that get called very often. Any input would be appreciated. Thanks for reading. -Artem

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  • Silverlight HttpWebRequest.Create hangs inside async block

    - by jack2010
    I am trying to prototype a Rpc Call to a JBOSS webserver from Silverlight (4). I have written the code and it is working in a console application - so I know that Jboss is responding to the web request. Porting it to silverlight 4, is causing issues: let uri = new Uri(queryUrl) // this is the line that hangs let request : HttpWebRequest = downcast WebRequest.Create(uri) request.Method <- httpMethod; request.ContentType <- contentType It may be a sandbox issue, as my silverlight is being served off of my file system and the Uri is a reference to the localhost - though I am not even getting an exception. Thoughts? Thx UPDATE 1 I created a new project and ported my code over and now it is working; something must be unstable w/ regard to the F# Silverlight integration still. Still would appreciate thoughts on debugging the "hanging" web create in the old model... UPDATE 2 let uri = Uri("http://localhost./portal/main?isSecure=IbongAdarnaNiFranciscoBalagtas") // this WebRequest.Create works fine let req : HttpWebRequest = downcast WebRequest.Create(uri) let Login = async { let uri = new Uri("http://localhost/portal/main?isSecure=IbongAdarnaNiFranciscoBalagtas") // code hangs on this WebRequest.Create let request : HttpWebRequest = downcast WebRequest.Create(uri) return request } Login |> Async.RunSynchronously I must be missing something; the Async block works fine in the console app - is it not allowed in the Silverlight App?

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  • JSF Render response programmatically

    - by Shamik
    I have one parent page with a parentManagedBean (attached to Session Scope). On click of a button on this parent page, one popup comes which has a childManagedBean (attached to Request scope). Now ChildManagedBean holds a reference to parentManaged bean through JSF's managed property facility. On this popup window, user selects some option which populates a large value object. I use the managed property of childManagedBean to set the values from this large object to that of parentManagedBean. Problem is - The parent page shows a link, on click of which a popup comes, on selection of the popup, the popup disappears and set the values to the parentManaged bean. So far so good, but the newly set values need to appear on the parent page. This is where I am stuck. How to programmatically render the master page/render page when I am at the child managed bean? Is there a way I can get handle of the parent page and refresh it? Note: I'm using JSF 1.1 EDIT- After following the solution of "resubmit-ing the form" from javascript, I am seeing that the old form is getting resubmitting which overwrites all of my changed values.

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  • Doubts About Core Data NSManagedObject Deep Copy

    - by Jigzat
    Hello everyone, I have a situation where I must copy one NSManagedObject from the main context into an editing context. It sounds unnecessary to most people as I have seen in similar situations described in Stackoverflow but I looks like I need it. In my app there are many views in a tab bar and every view handles different information that is related to the other views. I think I need multiple MOCs since the user may jump from tab to tab and leave unsaved changes in some tab but maybe it saves data in some other tab/view so if that happens the changes in the rest of the views are saved without user consent and in the worst case scenario makes the app crash. For adding new information I got away by using an adding MOC and then merging changes in both MOCs but for editing is not that easy. I saw a similar situation here in Stackoverflow but the app crashes since my data model doesn't seem to use NSMutableSet for the relationships (I don't think I have a many-to-many relationship, just one-to-many) I think it can be modified so I can retrieve the relationships as if they were attributes for (NSString *attr in relationships) { [cloned setValue:[source valueForKey:attr] forKey:attr]; } but I don't know how to merge the changes of the cloned and original objects. I think I could just delete the object from the main context, then merge both contexts and save changes in the main context but I don't know if is the right way to do it. I'm also concerned about database integrity since I'm not sure that the inverse relationships will keep the same reference to the cloned object as if it were the original one. Can some one please enlighten me about this?

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  • Web.Routing for the site root or homepage

    - by Aquinas
    I am doing some work with Web.Routing, using it to have friendly urls and nice Rest like interfaces to a site that is essentially rendered by a single IHttpHandler. There are no webforms, the handler generates all the html/json and writes it as part of process request. This works well for things like /Sites/Accounting for example, but I can't get it to work for the site root, i.e. '/'. I have tried registering a route with an empty string, with 'default.aspx' (which is the empty aspx file I keep in my root folder to play nice with cassini and iis). I set RouteExistingFiles to false explicitly, but whatever I do when hitting the root url it still opens default.axpx, which has no code it inherits from, and contains a simple h1 tag to show that I've hit it. I don't want to change the default file to redirect to a desired route, I just want the equivalent of a 'default' route that is applied when no other routes are found, similar to MVC. For reference, the previous version of the site didn't use Web.Routing, but had a handler referenced in the web.config that was perfectly capable of intercepting requests for the root or default.aspx. Specs: ASP.NET 3.5sp1, C#, no webforms, MVC or openrasta. Plain old IHttpHandlers.

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  • Call long running operation in WSS feature OnActivated Event

    - by dirq
    More specifically - How do I reference SPContext in Web Service with [SoapDocumentMethod(OneWay=true)]? We are creating a feature that needs to run a job when a site is created. The job takes about 4 minutes to complete. So, we made a web service that we can call when the feature is activated. This works but we want it to run asynchronously now. We've found the SoapDocumentMethod's OneWay property and that would work awesomely but the SPContext is now NULL. We have our web services in the _vti_bin virtual directory so it's available in each Windows Sharepoint Services site. I was using the SPContext.Current.Web to get the site and perform the long running operation. I wanted to just fire and forget about it by returning a soap response right away and letting the process run. How can I get the current SPContext? I used to be able to do this in my web service: SPWeb mySite = SPContext.Current.Web; Can I get the same context when I have the [SoapDocumentMethod(OneWay=true)] attribute applied to my web service? Or must I recreate the SPWeb from the url? This is similar to this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/340192/webservice-oneway-and-new-spsitemyurl Update: I've tried these two ways but they didn't work: SPWeb targetSite = SPControl.GetContextWeb(this.Context); SPWeb targetSite2 = SPContext.GetContext(this.Context).Web;

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  • Why doesn't my cursor change to an Hourglass in my FindDialog in Delphi?

    - by lkessler
    I am simply opening my FindDialog with: FindDialog.Execute; In my FindDialog.OnFind event, I want to change the cursor to an hourglass for searches through large files, which may take a few seconds. So in the OnFind event I do this: Screen.Cursor := crHourglass; (code that searches for the text and displays it) ... Screen.Cursor := crDefault; What happens is while searching for the text, the cursor properly changes to the hourglass (or rotating circle in Vista) and then back to the pointer when the search is completed. However, this only happens on the main form. It does not happen on the FindDialog itself. The default cursor remains on the FindDialog during the search. While the search is happening if I move the cursor over the FindDialog it changes to the default, and if I move it off and over the main form it becomes the hourglass. This does not seem like what is supposed to happen. Am I doing something wrong or does something special need to be done to get the cursor to be the hourglass on all forms? For reference, I'm using Delphi 2009.

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  • Using the MVVM Light Toolkit to make Blendable applications

    - by Dave
    A while ago, I posted a question regarding switching between a Blend-authored GUI and a Visual Studio-authored one. I got it to work okay by adding my Blend project to my VS2008 project and then changing the Startup Application and recompiling. This would result in two applications that had completely different GUIs, yet used the exact same ViewModel and Model code. I was pretty happy with that. Now that I've learned about the Laurent Bugnion's MVVM Light Toolkit, I would really like to leverage his efforts to make this process of supporting multiple GUIs for the same backend code possible. The question is, does the toolkit facilate this, or am I stuck doing it my previous way? I've watched his video from MIX10 and have read some of the articles about it online. However, I've yet to see something that indicates that there is a clean way to allow a user to either dynamically switch GUIs on the fly by loading a different DLL. There are MVVM templates for VS2008 and Blend 3, but am I supposed to create both types of projects for my application and then reference specific files from my VS2008 solution? UPDATE I re-read some information on Laurent's site, and seemed to have forgotten that the whole point of the template was to allow the same solution to be opened in VS2008 and Blend. So anyhow, with this new perspective it looks like the templates are actually intended to use a single GUI, most likely designed entirely in Blend (with the convenience of debugging through VS2008), and then be able to use two different ViewModels -- one for design-time, and one for runtime. So it seems to me like the answer to my question is that I want to use a combination of my previous solution, along with the MVVM Light Toolkit. The former will allow me to make multiple, distinct GUIs around my core code, while the latter will make designing fancy GUIs in Blend easier with the usage of a design-time ViewModel. Can anyone comment on this?

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  • WCF Double Hop questions about Security and Binding.

    - by Ken Maglio
    Background information: .Net Website which calls a service (aka external service) facade on an app server in the DMZ. This external service then calls the internal service which is on our internal app server. From there that internal service calls a stored procedure (Linq to SQL Classes), and passes the serialized data back though to the external service, and from there back to the website. We've done this so any communication goes through an external layer (our external app server) and allows interoperability; we access our data just like our clients consuming our services. We've gotten to the point in our development where we have completed the system and it all works, the double hop acts as it should. However now we are working on securing the entire process. We are looking at using TransportWithMessageCredentials. We want to have WS2007HttpBinding for the external for interoperability, but then netTCPBinding for the bridge through the firewall for security and speed. Questions: If we choose WS2007HttpBinding as the external services binding, and netTCPBinding for the internal service is this possible? I know WS-* supports this as does netTCP, however do they play nice when passing credential information like user/pass? If we go to Kerberos, will this impact anything? We may want to do impersonation in the future. If you can when you answer post any reference links about why you're answering the way you are, that would be very helpful to us. Thanks!

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  • how to write this typical mysql query( ho to use subquery column into main query)

    - by I Like PHP
    I HAVE TWO TABLES shown below table_joining id join_id(PK) transfer_id(FK) unit_id transfer_date joining_date 1 j_1 t_1 u_1 2010-06-05 2010-03-05 2 j_2 t_2 u_3 2010-05-10 2010-03-10 3 j_3 t_3 u_6 2010-04-10 2010-01-01 4 j_5 NULL u_3 NULL 2010-06-05 5 j_6 NULL u_4 NULL 2010-05-05 table_transfer id transfer_id(PK) pastUnitId futureUnitId effective_transfer_date 1 t_1 u_3 u_1 2010-06-05 2 t_2 u_6 u_1 2010-05-10 3 t_3 u_5 u_3 2010-04-10 now i want to know total employee detalis( using join_id) which are currently working on unit u_3 . means i want only join_id j_1 (has transfered but effective_transfer_date is future date, right now in u_3) j_2 ( tansfered and right now in `u_3` bcoz effective_transfer_date has been passed) j_6 ( right now in `u_3` and never transfered) what i need to take care of below steps( as far as i know ) <1> first need to check from table_joining whether transfer_id is NULL or not <2> if transfer_id= is NULL then see unit_id=u_3 where joining_date <=CURDATE() ( means that person already joined u_3) <3> if transfer_id is NOT NULL then go to table_transfer using transfer_id (foreign key reference) <4> now see the effective_transfer_date regrading that transfer_id whether effective_transfer_date<=CURDATE() <5> if transfer date has been passed(means transfer has been done) then return futureUnitID otherwise return pastUnitID i used two separate query but don't know how to join those query?? for step <1 ans <2 SELECT unit_id FROM table_joining WHERE joining_date<=CURDATE() AND transfer_id IS NULL AND unit_id='u_3' for step<5 SELECT IF(effective_transfer_date <= CURDATE(),futureUnitId,pastUnitId) AS currentUnitID FROM table_transfer // here how do we select only those rows which have currentUnitID='u_3' ?? please guide me the process?? i m just confused with JOINS. i think using LEFT JOIN can return the data i need, but i m not getting how to implement ...please help me. Thanks for helping me alwayz

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  • Simple Select Statement on MySQL Database Hanging

    - by AlishahNovin
    I have a very simple sql select statement on a very large table, that is non-normalized. (Not my design at all, I'm just trying to optimize while simultaneously trying to convince the owners of a redesign) Basically, the statement is like this: SELECT FirstName, LastName, FullName, State FROM Activity Where (FirstName=@name OR LastName=@name OR FullName=@name) AND State=@state; Now, FirstName, LastName, FullName and State are all indexed as BTrees, but without prefix - the whole column is indexed. State column is a 2 letter state code. What I'm finding is this: When @name = 'John Smith', and @state = '%' the search is really fast and yields results immediately. When @name = 'John Smith', and @state = 'FL' the search takes 5 minutes (and usually this means the web service times out...) When I remove the FirstName and LastName comparisons, and only use the FullName and State, both cases above work very quickly. When I replace FirstName, LastName, FullName, and State searches, but use LIKE for each search, it works fast for @name='John Smith%' and @state='%', but slow for @name='John Smith%' and @state='FL' When I search against 'John Sm%' and @state='FL' the search finds results immediately When I search against 'John Smi%' and @state='FL' the search takes 5 minutes. Now, just to reiterate - the table is not normalized. The John Smith appears many many times, as do many other users, because there is no reference to some form of users/people table. I'm not sure how many times a single user may appear, but the table itself has 90 Million records. Again, not my design... What I'm wondering is - though there are many many problems with this design, what is causing this specific problem. My guess is that the index trees are just too large that it just takes a very long time traversing the them. (FirstName, LastName, FullName) Anyway, I appreciate anyone's help with this. Like I said, I'm working on convincing them of a redesign, but in the meantime, if I someone could help me figure out what the exact problem is, that'd be fantastic.

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  • Episerver Scheduled Job fails (scheduler service)

    - by Igor
    Our scheduled jobs started failing since yesterday with the following error message: CustomUpdate.Execute - System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Security.Roles.GetRolesForUser(String username) at EPiServer.Security.PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal(String username) The scheduled job uses anonymous execution and logs in programmatically using the following call: if (PrincipalInfo.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name == string.Empty) { PrincipalInfo.CurrentPrincipal = PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal(ApplicationSettings.ScheduledJobUsername); } I have put in some more logging around PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal call which is in Episerver.Security and noticed that PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal calls System.Web.Security.Roles.GetRolesForUser(username) and Roles.GetRolesForUser(username) returns an empty string array. There were no changes code wise or on the server (updates, etc). I checked that the user name used to run the task is in the database and has roles associated with it. I checked that applicationname is set up correctly and is associated with the user If i run the job manually using the same user it executes with no issues (i know there is a difference between running the job manually and using the scheduler) I also tried creating a new user, that didn’t work either. Has anyone come across the same or similar issue? Any thoughts how to resolve this issue?

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  • Finding source of over release

    - by Benedict Lowndes
    Hi, I'm consistently seeing the same message sent in as a crash report from users of an app. It's clear that an object is being over-released but I'm unable to replicate it and I'm looking for tips on tracing the source of it. The relevant section from the crash report shows this: Application Specific Information: objc_msgSend() selector name: release Thread 0 Crashed: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x90892edb objc_msgSend + 27 1 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95ec5a40 __CFBasicHashStandardCallback + 384 2 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95ec564e __CFBasicHashDrain + 478 3 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95ead6f1 _CFRelease + 353 4 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95eda0ed _CFAutoreleasePoolPop + 253 5 com.apple.Foundation 0x97ecedd6 NSPopAutoreleasePool + 76 6 com.apple.Foundation 0x97ececfe -[NSAutoreleasePool drain] + 130 7 com.apple.AppKit 0x9211255f -[NSApplication run] + 1013 8 com.apple.AppKit 0x9210a535 NSApplicationMain + 574 9 TheApp 0x000020a6 start + 54 I've used zombies and leaks, but haven't seen anything there. I've gone through the code and can't see it. What's the next step? Are there any hints I can discern from this information as to the source of it? Does the fact that this nearly exact same crash report is coming in repeatedly mean that it's the same object that's being over released, or because this is referring to the autorelease pool mean it could be any object? Does the reference to _CFRelease mean it's a Core Foundation object that's being over released?

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  • Lucene complex structure search

    - by archer
    Basically I do have pretty simple database that I'd like to index with Lucene. Domains are: // Person domain class Person { Set<Pair> keys; } // Pair domain class Pair { KeyItem keyItem; String value; } // KeyItem domain, name is unique field within the DB (!!) class KeyItem{ String name; } I've tens of millions of profiles and hundreds of millions of Pairs, however, since most of KeyItem's "name" fields duplicates, there are only few dozens KeyItem instances. Came up to that structure to save on KeyItem instances. Basically any Profile with any fields could be saved into that structure. Lets say we've profile with properties - name: Andrew Morton - eduction: University of New South Wales, - country: Australia, - occupation: Linux programmer. To store it, we'll have single Profile instance, 4 KeyItem instances: name, education,country and occupation, and 4 Pair instances with values: "Andrew Morton", "University of New South Wales", "Australia" and "Linux Programmer". All other profile will reference (all or some) same instances of KeyItem: name, education, country and occupation. My question is, how to index all of that so I can search for Profile for some particular values of KeyItem::name and Pair::value. Ideally I'd like that kind of query to work: name:Andrew* AND occupation:Linux* Should I create custom Indexer and Searcher? Or I could use standard ones and just map KeyItem and Pair as Lucene components somehow?

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  • .NET: How do I know if I have an unmanaged resource?

    - by Shiftbit
    I've read that unmanaged resource are considered file handles, streams, anything low level. Does MSDN or any other source explain how to recognize an unmanaged resource? I can't seem to find any examples on the net that show unmanaged code, all the examples just have comments that say unmanaged code here. Can someone perhaps provide a realworld example where I would handle an unmanaged resources in an IDispose interface? I provided the IDisposable interface for your convience. How do I identify an unmanaged resource? Thanks in advance! IDisposable Reference Public Class Sample : Implements IDisposable Private disposedValue As Boolean = False 'To detect redundant calls ' IDisposable Protected Overridable Sub Dispose(ByVal disposing As Boolean) If Not Me.disposedValue Then If disposing Then ' TODO: free other state (managed objects). End If ' TODO: free your own state (unmanaged objects). ' TODO: set large fields to null. End If Me.disposedValue = True End Sub ' This code added by Visual Basic to correctly implement the disposable pattern. Public Sub Dispose() Implements IDisposable.Dispose ' Do not change this code. Put cleanup code in Dispose(ByVal disposing As Boolean) above. Dispose(True) GC.SuppressFinalize(Me) End Sub End Class

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  • custom C++ boost::lambda expression help

    - by aaa
    hello. A little bit of background: I have some strange multiple nested loops which I converted to flat work queue (basically collapse single index loops to single multi-index loop). right now each loop is hand coded. I am trying to generalized approach to work with any bounds using lambda expressions: For example: // RANGE(i,I,N) is basically a macro to generate `int i = I; i < N; ++i ` // for (RANGE(lb, N)) { // for (RANGE(jb, N)) { // for (RANGE(kb, max(lb, jb), N)) { // for (RANGE(ib, jb, kb+1)) { // is equivalent to something like (overload , to produce range) flat<1, 3, 2, 4>((_2, _3+1), (max(_4,_3), N), N, N) the internals of flat are something like: template<size_t I1, size_t I2, ..., class L1_, class L2, ..._> boost::array<int,4> flat(L1_ L1, L2_ L2, ...){ //boost::array<int,4> current; class variable bool advance; L2_ l2 = L2.bind(current); // bind current value to lambda { L1_ l1 = L1.bind(current); //bind current value to innermost lambda l1.next(); advance = !(l1 < l1.upper()); // some internal logic if (advance) { l2.next(); current[0] = l1.lower(); } } //..., } my question is, can you give me some ideas how to write lambda (derived from boost) which can be bound to index array reference to return upper, lower bounds according to lambda expression? thank you much

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  • How to save a picture to a file?

    - by Peter vdL
    I'm trying to use a standard Intent that will take a picture, then allow approval or retake. Then I want to save the picture into a file. Here's the Intent I am using: Intent intent = new Intent(android.provider.MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE ); startActivityForResult( intent, 22 ); The docs at http://developer.android.com/reference/android/provider/MediaStore.html#ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE say "The caller may pass an extra EXTRA_OUTPUT to control where this image will be written. If the EXTRA_OUTPUT is not present, then a small sized image is returned as a Bitmap object in the extra field. If the EXTRA_OUTPUT is present, then the full-sized image will be written to the Uri value of EXTRA_OUTPUT." I don't pass extra output, I hope to get a Bitmap object in the extra field of the Intent passed into onActivityResult() (for this request). So where/how do you extract it? Intent has a getExtras(), but that returns a Bundle, and Bundle wants a key string to give you something back. What do you invoke on the Intent to extract the bitmap?

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  • Merge replication server side foreign key violation from unpublished table

    - by Reiste
    We are using SQL Server 2005 Merge Replication with SQL CE 3.5 clients. We are using partitions with filtering for the separate subscriptions, and nHibernate for the ORM mapping. There is automatic ID range management from SQL Server for the subscriptions. We have a table, Item, and a table with a foreign key to Item - ItemHistory. Both of these are replicated down, filtered according to the subscription. Item has a column called UserId, and is filtered per subscription with this filter: WHERE UserId IN (SELECT... [complicated subselect]...) ItemHistory hangs off Item in the publication filter articles. On the server, we have a table ItemHistoryExport, which has a foreign key to ItemHistory. ItemHistoryExport is not published. Entries in the Item and ItemHistory tables are never deleted, on the server or the client. However, the "ownership" of items (and hence their ItemHistories) MAY change, which causes them to be moved from one client subscription/partition to another from time to time. When we sync, we occasionally get the following error: A row delete at '48269404 - 4108383dbb11' could not be propagated to 'MyServer\MyInstance.MyDatabase'. This failure can be caused by a constraint violation. The DELETE statement conflicted with the REFERENCE constraint "FK_ItemHistoryExport_ItemHistory". The conflict occurred in database "MyDatabase", table "dbo.ItemHistoryExport", column 'ItemHistoryId'. Can anyone help us understand why this happens? There shouldn't ever be a delete happening on the server side.

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  • Classic ASP to WCF using the Service Moniker

    - by Jab
    I am trying to consume a WCF logging service from classic ASP without deploy a Com wrapper. I found a method of doing so here. Here is the vb script, simplified. Dim addr addr = "service:mexAddress=""net.pipe://localhost/Services/Logging/LoggingManager/Mex""," _ & "address=""net.pipe://localhost/Services/Logging/LoggingManager/classic/""," _ & "contract=""ILoggingManagerClassic"", contractNamespace=""http://Services.Logging.Classic/""," _ & "binding=""NetNamedPipeBinding_ILoggingManagerClassic"", bindingNamespace=""http://Services.Logging.Classic/""" set objErrorLogger = GetObject(addr) Dim strError : strError = objErrorLogger.LogError("blahblah") This works on Server 2008, but fails with this error on Server 2003. Failed to do mex retrieval:Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: net.pipe://localhost/Services/Logging/LoggingManager/Mex.. Only when running through ASP does it fail, a sample VBS file on the same machine using the same code works fine. I think it may be permission related, but don't know where to begin. Anyone have any ideas? EDIT - let me clarify that the WCF host is a windows service running as NETWORK SERVICE. If this belongs on server fault, a moderator can move it. I have an account there as well.

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  • Call dll - pcshll32.dll using delphi

    - by Davis
    Hi, I need to call hllapi function of pcshll32.dll using delphi. It's works with personal communications of ibm. How can i change the code bellow to delphi ? Thanks !!! The EHLLAPI entry point (hllapi) is always called with the following four parameters: EHLLAPI Function Number (input) Data Buffer (input/output) Buffer Length (input/output) Presentation Space Position (input); Return Code (output) The prototype for IBM Standard EHLLAPI is: [long hllapi (LPWORD, LPSTR, LPWORD, LPWORD); The prototype for IBM Enhanced EHLLAPI is: [long hllapi (LPINT, LPSTR, LPINT, LPINT); Each parameter is passed by reference not by value. Thus each parameter to the function call must be a pointer to the value, not the value itself. For example, the following is a correct example of calling the EHLLAPI Query Session Status function: #include "hapi_c.h" struct HLDQuerySessionStatus QueryData; int Func, Len, Rc; long Rc; memset(QueryData, 0, sizeof(QueryData)); // Init buffer QueryData.qsst_shortname = ©A©; // Session to query Func = HA_QUERY_SESSION_STATUS; // Function number Len = sizeof(QueryData); // Len of buffer Rc = 0; // Unused on input hllapi(&Func, (char *)&QueryData, &Len, &Rc); // Call EHLLAPI if (Rc != 0) { // Check return code // ...Error handling } All the parameters in the hllapi call are pointers and the return code of the EHLLAPI function is returned in the value of the 4th parameter, not as the value of the function.

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  • Per-pixel per-component alpha blending in Windows

    - by Crend King
    I have a 24-bit bitmaps with R, G, B color channels and a 24-bit bitmap with R, G, B alpha channels. I want to alpha blend the first bitmap to a HDC in GDI or RenderTarget in Direct2D with the alpha channels respectively. For example, suppose for one pixel, the bitmap color is (192, 192, 192), the HDC color is (0, 255, 255) and the alpha channels are (30, 40, 50). The final HDC color should be (22, 245, 242). I know I can BitBlt the HDC to a memory HDC first, do alpha blending by manually calculating the color of each pixel and finally BitBlt back. I just want to avoid the additional blitting and leave APIs do their job (faster since they are in kernel space). The first idea comes to my mind is to split the source bitmap into 3 red-only, green-only and blue-only 8-bit bitmaps, do normal alpha blending, then composite the 3 output bitmaps into the HDC. But I don't find a way to do the splitting and composition natively in Windows (would Direct2D layer help?). Also, the splitting and compositing may require many additional copying. The performance overhead would be too high. Or maybe do the alpha blending in 3 passes. Each pass apply the blending for one channel, while maintaining the other 2 unchanged. Thanks for any comment. EDIT: I found this question, and the answer should be good reference to this problem. However, besides AC_SRC_OVER, there is no other blending operation supported. Why don't Microsoft improve their API?

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  • PHP, jQuery and Ajax Object Orientation

    - by pastylegs
    I'm a fairly experienced programmer getting my head around PHP and Ajax for the first time, and I'm having a bit of trouble figuring out how to incorperate object oriented PHP into my ajax webapp. I have an admin page (admin.php) that will load and write information (info.xml) from an XML file depending on the users selection of a form on the admin page. I have decided to use an object (ContentManager.php) to manage the loading and writing of the XML file to disk, i.e : class ContentManager{ var $xml_attribute_1 ... function __construct(){ //load the xml file from disk and save its contents into variables $xml_attribute = simplexml_load_file(/path/to/xml) } function get_xml_contents(){ return xml_attribute; } function write_xml($contents_{ } function print_xml(){ } } I create the ContentManager object in admin.php like so <?php include '../includes/CompetitionManager.php'; $cm = new CompetitionManager() ?> <script> ...all my jquery </script> <html> ... all my form elements </html> So now I want to use AJAX to allow the user to retrieve information from the XML file via the ContentManger app using an interface (ajax_handler.php) like so <?php if(_POST[]=="get_a"){ }else if() } ... ?> I understand how this would work if I wasn't using objects, i.e. the hander php file would do a certain action depending on a variable in the .post request, but with my setup, I can't see how I can get a reference to the ContentManager object I have created in admin.php in the ajax_handler.php file? Maybe my understanding of php object scope is flawed. Anyway, if anyone can make sense of what I'm trying to do, I would appreciate some help!

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