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  • entity framework insert bug

    - by tmfkmoney
    I found a previous question which seemed related but there's no resolution and it's 5 months old so I've opened my own version. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1545583/entity-framework-inserting-new-entity-via-objectcontext-does-not-use-existing-e When I insert records into my database with the following it works fine for a while and then eventually it starts inserting null values in the referenced field. This typically happens after I do an update on my model from the database although not always after I do an update. I'm using a MySQL database for this. I have debugged the code and the values are being set properly before the save event. They're just not getting inserted properly. I can always fix this issue by re-creating the model without touching any of my code. I have to recreate the entire model, though. I can't just dump the relevant tables and re-add them. This makes me think it doesn't have anything to do with my code but something with the entity framework. Does anyone else have this problem and/or solved it? using (var db = new MyModel()) { var stocks = from record in query let ticker = record.Ticker select new { company = db.Companies.FirstOrDefault(c => c.ticker == ticker), price = Convert.ToDecimal(record.Price), date_stamp = Convert.ToDateTime(record.DateTime) }; foreach (var stock in stocks) { if (stock.company != null) { var price = new StockPrice { Company = stock.company, price = stock.price, date_stamp = stock.date_stamp }; db.AddToStockPrices(price); } } db.SaveChanges(); }

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  • How can I tell if a byte array has already been compressed?

    - by MikeG
    Hi, Can I rely on the first few bytes of data compressed using the System.IO.Compression.DeflateStream in .NET always being the same? These bytes seem to always be the 1st bytes: 237, 189, 7, 96, 28, 73, 150, 37, 38, 47 , ... I'm assuming this is some kind of header, I'd like to assume that this header is fixed and isn't going to change. Has anyone got any extra info about this? Background info (The reason I want to know this info is...) I have a load of data in a database table that could do with being made smaller. I've decided I'm going to start compressing the data and not going to bother compressing the existing data. When the data gets into my .NET code the data is a String. I'd like to be able to look at the 1st few bytes of the string and see if it has been compressed, if it has then I need to de-compress it. I was originally thinking I could convert the string to bytes and just try de-compressing the data. Then if an exception happens, I could just assume it wasn't compressed. But I think checking the header bytes would give me much better performance. Many thanks, Mike G

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  • Sorting XML file through multiple attributes

    - by jbugeja
    I want to sort a 'free-form' XML file through multiple attributes (first by T and then by L). The XML is a bit complex and it is structured as shown below: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <wb xmlns:cf="http://www.macromedia.com/2004/cfform" xmlns:a="urn:dummy"> <a:form name="chart"> <a:fieldset FIELD="a" FIELDNAME="FieldSet1"> <a:select1 FIELDNUMBER="01" L="1" T="2" /> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="02" INDEX="4" L="200" T="1" /> </a:fieldset> <a:fieldset FIELD="b" FIELDNAME="FieldSet1"> <a:select1 FIELDNUMBER="03" T="3" L="1" /> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="04" INDEX="7" T="4" L="200" /> <a:fieldset FIELD="c" FIELDNAME="FieldSet1"> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="05" T="10" INDEX="6" L="400" /> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="06" T="8" INDEX="8" L="200" /> </a:fieldset> </a:fieldset> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="08" INDEX="3" L="3" T="5" /> <a:input FIELDNUMBER="09" INDEX="2" L="2" T="4" /> </a:form> </wb> PS: The root element is wb and this is always followed by a:form The L and T are always found in elements that have a tag in the namespace a, the only exception being a:fieldset which does not have L and T a:fieldset could have multiple children of the namespace a including another a:fieldset We can also assume that L denotes Left and T denotes Top. So, the idea of this is that when I view the transformed XML I can immediately note which elements precede what. What's your take on this?

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  • Nose2 multiprocess error on Windows7

    - by tt293
    I was looking into nose2 as a way to get around the restrictions of having both xunit output and multiprocessing in nose1.3. However, when always-on is set to False in the [multiprocess] section, I can only get a single process running, while when running with always-on set to True, I get the following error: ---------------------------------------------------------------------- Ran 0 tests in 0.043s OK Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\Scripts\nose2-script.py", line 8, in <module> load_entry_point('nose2==0.4.7', 'console_scripts', 'nose2')() File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\main.py", line 284, in discover return main(*args, **kwargs) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\main.py", line 98, in __init__ super(PluggableTestProgram, self).__init__(**kw) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\unittest2-0.5.1- py2.7.egg\unittest2\main.py", line 98, in __init__ self.runTests() File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\main.py", line 260, in runTests self.result = runner.run(self.test) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\runner.py", line 53, in run executor(test, result) File "C:\dev\testing\Tests\PythonTests\venv\lib\site-packages\nose2-0.4.7-py2. 7.egg\nose2\plugins\mp.py", line 60, in _runmp ready, _, _ = select.select(rdrs, [], [], self.testRunTimeout) select.error: (10038, 'An operation was attempted on something that is not a soc ket') This is running python 2.7.5 (32bit) on Windows 7 in a virtualenv with six-1.1.0, unittest2-0.5.1 and nose2-0.4.7 (I get the same behavior outside of the venv, so I don't think that is the issue here).

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  • Div at bottom of window and adaptable height div

    - by Rob
    Is there a way to get a div to always be at the bottom of the window, and another div to change its height to fill any space that it leaves, and that div will scroll if its content is too long. (I never want the window to scroll). This is best illustrated by a picture: The green div will always put itself at the bottom of the window, and the orange div will fill the gap. When the window is smaller, like in the right hand image, the orange div will be smaller and will scroll. The green div can be toggled. Sometimes the green div will have display: none, and then the orange div will stretch to the bottom. When the green div has display: block again, it will look like the picture again. It has to work in IE6. So far I can get the green div to go to the bottom by: position: absolute; bottom: 0; But I don't know how to get the orange div to do what I want.

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  • When is the reintegrate option really necessary?

    - by Tor Hovland
    If you always sync a feature branch before you merge it back, why do you really have to use the --reintegrate option? The Subversion book says: When merging your branch back to the trunk, however, the underlying mathematics is quite different. Your feature branch is now a mishmosh of both duplicated trunk changes and private branch changes, so there's no simple contiguous range of revisions to copy over. By specifying the --reintegrate option, you're asking Subversion to carefully replicate only those changes unique to your branch. (And in fact, it does this by comparing the latest trunk tree with the latest branch tree: the resulting difference is exactly your branch changes!) So the --reintegrate option only merges the changes that are unique to the feature branch. But if you always sync before merge (which is a recommended practice, in order to deal with any conflicts on the feature branch), then the only changes between the branches are the changes that are unique to the feature branch, right? And if Subversion tries to merge code that is already on the target branch, it will just do nothing, right? In this blog post, Mark Phippard writes: http://blogs.open.collab.net/svn/2008/07/subversion-merg.html If we include those synched revisions, then we merge back changes that already exist in trunk. This yields unnecessary and confusing conflicts. Can somebody give me an example of when dropping reintegrate gives me unnecessary conflicts?

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  • Surely a foolish error, but I can't see it

    - by dnagirl
    I have a form (greatly simplified): <form action='http://example.com/' method='post' name='event_form'> <input type='text' name='foo' value='3'/> <input type='submit' name='event_submit' value='Edit'/> </form> And I have a class "EventForm" to process the form. The main method, process() looks like this: public function process($submitname=false){ $success=false; if ($submitname && isset($_POST[$submitname])){ //PROBLEM: isset($_POST[$submitname] is always FALSE for some reason if($success=$this->ruler->validate()){//check that dependancies are honoured and data types are correct if($success=$this->map_fields()){//divide input data into Event, Schedule_Element and Temporal_Expression(s) $success=$this->eventholder->save(); } } } else {//get the record from the db based on event_id or schedule_element_id foreach($this->gets as $var){//list of acceptable $_GET keys if(isset($_GET[$var])){ if($success= $this->__set($var,$_GET[$var])) break; } } } $this->action=(empty($this->eventholder->event_id))? ADD : EDIT; return $success; } When the form is submitted, this happens: $form->process('event_submit'); For some reason though, isset($_POST['event_submit']) always evaluates to FALSE. Can anyone see why?

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  • Check if date is allowed weekday in php?

    - by moogeek
    Hello! I'm stuck with a problem how to check if a specific date is within allowed weekdays array in php. For example, function dateIsAllowedWeekday($_date,$_allowed) { if ((isDate($_date)) && (($_allowed!="null") && ($_allowed!=null))){ $allowed_weekdays=json_decode($_allowed); $weekdays=array(); foreach($allowed_weekdays as $wd){ $weekday=date("l",date("w",strtotime($wd))); array_push($weekdays,$weekday); } if(in_array(date("l",strtotime($_date)),$weekdays)){return TRUE;} else {return FALSE;} } else {return FALSE;} } ///////////////////////////// $date="21.05.2010"; $wd="[0,1,2]"; if(dateIsAllowedWeekday($date,$wd)){echo "$date is within $wd weekday values!";} else{echo "$date isn't within $wd weekday values!"} I have input dates formatted as "d.m.Y" and an array returned from database with weekday numbers (formatted as 'Numeric representation of the day of the week') like [0,1,2] - (Sunday,Monday,Tuesday). The returned string from database can be "null", so i check it too. Them, the isDate function checks whether date is a date and it is ok. I want to check if my date, for example 21.05.2010 is an allowed weekday in this array. My function always returns TRUE and somehow weekday is always 'Thursday' and i don't know why... Is there any other ways to check this or what can be my error in the code above? thx

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  • Set a datetime for next or previous sunday at specific time

    - by Marc
    I have an app where there is always a current contest (defined by start_date and end_date datetime). I have the following code in the application_controller.rb as a before_filter. def load_contest @contest_last = Contest.last @contest_last.present? ? @contest_leftover = (@contest_last.end_date.utc - Time.now.utc).to_i : @contest_leftover = 0 if @contest_last.nil? Contest.create(:start_date => Time.now.utc, :end_date => Time.now.utc + 10.minutes) elsif @contest_leftover < 0 @winner = Organization.order('votes_count DESC').first @contest_last.update_attributes!(:organization_id => @winner.id, :winner_votes => @winner.votes_count) if @winner.present? Organization.update_all(:votes_count => 0) Contest.create(:start_date => @contest_last.end_date.utc, :end_date => Time.now.utc + 10.minutes) end end My questions: 1) I would like to change the :end_date to something that signifies next Sunday at a certain time (eg. next Sunday at 8pm). Similarly, I could then set the :start_date to to the previous Sunday at a certain time. I saw that there is a sunday() class (http://api.rubyonrails.org/classes/Time.html#method-i-sunday), but not sure how to specify a certain time on that day. 2) For this situation of always wanting the current contest, is there a better way of loading it in the app? Would caching it be better and then reloading if a new one is created? Not sure how this would be done, but seems to be more efficient. Thanks!

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  • Can we run two simultaneous non-nested loops in Perl?

    - by Mike
    Part of my code goes like this: while(1){ my $winmm = new Win32::MediaPlayer; $winmm->load('1.mp3'); $winmm->play; $winmm->volume(100); Do Some Stuff; last if some condition is met; } Problem is: I want the music to be always on when I'm in the Do Some Stuff stage in the while loop. But the length of the music is so short that it will come to a full stop before I go to the next stage, so I want the music to repeat itself, but the Win32::Mediaplayer module does not seem to have a repeat mode, so I'm thinking of doing an infinite loop for the music playing part. Like this: while(1){ my $winmm = new Win32::MediaPlayer; $winmm->load('1.mp3'); $winmm->play; $winmm->volume(100); } while(2){ Do some stuff; last if some condition is met } But based on my current Perl knowledge if I'm in the while(1) part, I can never go to the while(2) part. Even if it comes to a nested loop, I have to do something to break out of the inside loop before going to the other part of the outside loop. The answer to my question "Can we run two simultaneous non-nested loops in Perl?" may be a NO, but I assume there is some way of handling such situation. Correct me if I'm wrong. Thanks as always for any comments/suggestions :) UPDATE I really appreciate the help from everyone. Thanks :) So the answer to my question is a YES, not a NO. I'm happy that I've learned how to use fork() and threads to solve a real problem :)

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  • Code Contracts: Do we have to specify Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in delegating me

    - by herzmeister der welten
    I'm intending to use the new .NET 4 Code Contracts feature for future development. This made me wonder if we have to specify equivalent Contract.Requires(...) statements redundantly in a chain of methods. I think a code example is worth a thousand words: public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon, int velocity) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // long code return false; } public bool CrushGodzilla(string weapon) { Contract.Requires(weapon != null); // specify contract requirement here // as well??? return this.CrushGodzilla(weapon, int.MaxValue); } For runtime checking it doesn't matter much, as we will eventually always hit the requirement check, and we will get an error if it fails. However, is it considered bad practice when we don't specify the contract requirement here in the second overload again? Also, there will be the feature of compile time checking, and possibly also design time checking of code contracts. It seems it's not yet available for C# in Visual Studio 2010, but I think there are some languages like Spec# that already do. These engines will probably give us hints when we write code to call such a method and our argument currently can or will be null. So I wonder if these engines will always analyze a call stack until they find a method with a contract that is currently not satisfied? Furthermore, here I learned about the difference between Contract.Requires(...) and Contract.Assume(...). I suppose that difference is also to consider in the context of this question then?

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  • In SQL Server what is most efficient way to compare records to other records for duplicates with in

    - by Glenn
    We have an SQL Server that gets daily imports of data files from clients. This data is interrelated and we are always scrubbing it and having to look for suspect duplicate records between these files. Finding and tagging suspect records can get pretty complicated. We use logic that requires some field values to be the same, allows some field values to differ, and allows a range to be specified for how different certain field values can be. The only way we've found to do it is by using a cursor based process, and it places a heavy burden on the database. So I wanted to ask if there's a more efficient way to do this. I've heard it said that there's almost always a more efficient way to replace cursors with clever JOINS. But I have to admit I'm having a lot of trouble with this one. For a concrete example suppose we have 1 table, an "orders" table, with the following 6 fields. order_id, customer_id product_id, quantity, sale_date, price We want to look through the records to find suspect duplicates on the following example criteria. These get increasingly harder. 1. Records that have the same product_id, sale_date, and quantity but different customer_id's should be marked as suspect duplicates for review. 2. Records that have the same customer_id, product_id, quantity and have sale_dates within five days of each other should be marked as suspect duplicates for review 3. Records that have the same customer_id, product_id, but different quantities within 20 units, and sales dates within five days of each other should be considered suspect. Is it possible to satisfy each one of these criteria with a single SQL Query that uses JOINS? Is this the most efficient way to do this?

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  • OpenMP: Get total number of running threads

    - by Konrad Rudolph
    I need to know the total number of threads that my application has spawned via OpenMP. Unfortunately, the omp_get_num_threads() function does not work here since it only yields the number of threads in the current team. However, my code runs recursively (divide and conquer, basically) and I want to spawn new threads as long as there are still idle processors, but no more. Is there a way to get around the limitations of omp_get_num_threads and get the total number of running threads? If more detail is required, consider the following pseudo-code that models my workflow quite closely: function divide_and_conquer(Job job, int total_num_threads): if job.is_leaf(): # Recurrence base case. job.process() return left, right = job.divide() current_num_threads = omp_get_num_threads() if current_num_threads < total_num_threads: # (1) #pragma omp parallel num_threads(2) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) #pragma omp section divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) else: divide_and_conquer(left, total_num_threads) divide_and_conquer(right, total_num_threads) job = merge(left, right) If I call this code with a total_num_threads value of 4, the conditional annotated with (1) will always evaluate to true (because each thread team will contain at most two threads) and thus the code will always spawn two new threads, no matter how many threads are already running at a higher level. I am searching for a platform-independent way of determining the total number of threads that are currently running in my application.

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  • Strange behavior with ajax call complete in JavaScript modules

    - by user2598794
    I have 3 simple modules with JavaScript code and JQuery ajax call. First module lots.js: var Lots = (function ($) { var self = this; var processIsRunning; return { getLots: function (lotsUrl) { var items = []; self.processIsRunning = true; var request = $.ajax({ url: lotsUrl, type: 'POST', success: function (data) { //some code } }); $.when(request).done(function() { //some code self.processIsRunning = false; }); }, isComplete: function () { return !self.processIsRunning; } }; }(jQuery)); Module bids.js: var Bids = (function ($) { return { makeBids: function (bidUrl) { //some code } }; }(jQuery)); Module app.js which bundles all together: var App = (function () { var lots_url = null; var bid_url = null; var self = this; return { if (!self.lots_url) { self.lots_url = lotsUrl; } GetLots: function (lotsUrl) { Lots.getLots(self.lots_url); }, MakeBids: function makeBid(bidUrl) { //some code var isComp = Lots.isComplete(); while (!isComp) { isComp = Lots.isComplete(); } Bids.makeBids(self.bid_url); } }; }()); But in the 'while' loop I always get 'isComplete=false'. In debug I see that 'processIsRunning' in Lots module is always true. What's the problem?

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  • Why can't I extract a C++ type from a Python type using boost::python::extractor?

    - by Robin
    I've wrapped a C++ class using Py++ and everything is working great in Python. I can instantiate the c++ class, call methods, etc. I'm now trying to embed some Python into a C++ application. This is also working fine for the most-part. I can call functions on a Python module, get return values, etc. The python code I'm calling returns one of the classes that I wrapped: import _myextension as myext def run_script(arg): my_cpp_class = myext.MyClass() return my_cpp_class I'm calling this function from C++ like this: // ... excluding error checking, ref counting, etc. for brevity ... PyObject *pModule, *pFunc, *pArgs, *pReturnValue; Py_Initialize(); pModule = PyImport_Import(PyString_FromString("cpp_interface")); pFunc = PyObject_GetAttrString(pModule, "run_script"); pArgs = PyTuple_New(1); PyTuple_SetItem(pArgs, 0, PyString_FromString("an arg")); pReturnValue = PyObject_CallObject(pFunc, pArgs); bp::extract< MyClass& > extractor(pReturnValue); // PROBLEM IS HERE if (extractor.check()) { // This check is always false MyClass& cls = extractor(); } The problem is the extractor never actually extracts/converts the PyObject* to MyClass (i.e. extractor.check() is always false). According to the docs this is the correct way to extract a wrapped C++ class. I've tried returning basic data types (ints/floats/dicts) from the Python function and all of them are extracted properly. Is there something I'm missing? Is there another way to get the data and cast to MyClass?

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  • Use a jquery UI slider to control the resizing of a youtube video.

    - by HV
    Hi, I have a resizable div with the video width and height 100% of the div. I can resize it using the corners but I want to control this with a ui slider and maintain the "aspectRatio: 16/9" that .resizable() provides. This is what I have so far <script> $(function(){ var slide_int = null; function update_slider(){ var offset = $('.ui-slider-handle').offset(); var value = $('#slider-range-max').slider('option', 'value'); $('#Youtube').width(+value); } $('#slider-range-max').slider({ step: 5, min: 200, max: 950, start: function(event, ui){ $('#amount').empty(); slide_int = setInterval(update_slider, 5); }, slide: function(event, ui){ setTimeout(update_slider, 5); }, stop: function(event, ui){ clearInterval(slide_int); slide_int = null; } $('#Youtube') .resizable({aspectRatio: 16/9});}); The Slider <div id="slider-range-max"></div> Div <div id="Youtube"> <object width="100%" height="100%"> <param name="movie" value="http://www.youtube.com/v/JC7aWY5chyI&hl=en_US&fs=1&"> </param> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="true"> </param> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always"> </param> <embed src="http://www.youtube.com/v/JC7aWY5chyI&hl=en_US&fs=1&" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowscriptaccess="always" allowfullscreen="true" width="100%" height="100%"></embed> </object> </div> Thanks

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  • Should frontend and backend be handled by different controllers?

    - by DR
    In my previous learning projects I always used a single controller, but now I wonder if that is good practice or even always possible. In all RESTful Rails tutorials the controllers have a show, an edit and an index view. If an authorized user is logged on, the edit view becomes available and the index view shows additional data manipulation controls, like a delete button or a link to the edit view. Now I have a Rails application which falls exactly into this pattern, but the index view is not reusable: The normal user sees a flashy index page with lots of pictures, complex layout, no Javascript requirement, ... The Admin user index has a completly different minimalistic design, jQuery table and lots of additional data, ... Now I'm not sure how to handle this case. I can think of the following: Single controller, single view: The view is split into two large blocks/partials using an if statement. Single controller, two views: index and index_admin. Two different controllers: BookController and BookAdminController None of these solutions seems perfect, but for now I'm inclined to use the 3rd option. What's the preferred way to do this?

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  • What is the purpose of the Html "no-js" class?

    - by Swader
    I notice that in a lot of template engines, in the HTML5 Boilerplate, in various frameworks and in plain php sites there is the no-js class added onto the html element. Why is this done? Is there some sort of default browser behavior that reacts to this class? Why include it always? Does that not render the class itself obsolete, if there is no no-"no-js" case and html can be addressed directly? Here is an example from the HTML5 Boilerplate index.html: <!--[if lt IE 7 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie6"> <![endif]--> <!--[if IE 7 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie7"> <![endif]--> <!--[if IE 8 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie8"> <![endif]--> <!--[if IE 9 ]> <html lang="en" class="no-js ie9"> <![endif]--> <!--[if (gt IE 9)|!(IE)]><!--> <html lang="en" class="no-js"> <!--<![endif]--> As you can see, the html element will always have this class. Can someone explain why this is done so often?

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  • c++ connect() keeps returning WSATIMEDOUT over internet but not localy

    - by KaiserJohaan
    Hello, For some reason, my chat application always gets WSATIMEDOUT when trying to connect to another person over the internet. int len_ip = GetWindowTextLength(GetDlgItem(hWnd,ID_EDIT_IP)); char ipBuffer[16]; SendMessage(GetDlgItem(hWnd,ID_EDIT_IP),WM_GETTEXT,16,(LPARAM)ipBuffer); long host_ip = inet_addr(ipBuffer); int initializeConnection(long host_ip, HWND hWnd) { // initialize winsock WSADATA wdata; int result = WSAStartup(MAKEWORD(2,2),&wdata); if (result != 0) { return 0; } // setup socket tcp_sock = socket(AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM,IPPROTO_TCP); if (tcp_sock == INVALID_SOCKET) { return 0; } // setup socket address SOCKADDR_IN tcp_sock_addr; tcp_sock_addr.sin_family = AF_INET; tcp_sock_addr.sin_port = SERVER_TCP_PORT; tcp_sock_addr.sin_addr.s_addr = host_ip; // connect to server if (connect(tcp_sock,(SOCKADDR*)&tcp_sock_addr,sizeof(tcp_sock_addr)) == SOCKET_ERROR) { return 0; } HRESULT hr = WSAGetLastError(); // set socket in asynchronous mode if (WSAAsyncSelect(tcp_sock,hWnd,SOCKET_TCP, FD_READ | FD_WRITE | FD_CONNECT | FD_CLOSE) == SOCKET_ERROR) { return 0; } return 1; } For some reason it works perfectly fine on local network between computers, but totally screws up over the internet. WSATIMEDOUT is always returned (not connection refused, so its not a port problem). It makes me believe something is wrong with the IP but why on earth can it work on local addresses (like 192.168.2.4) Any ideas? Cheers

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  • JPA - Real primary key generated ID for references

    - by Val
    I have ~10 classes, each of them, have composite key, consist of 2-4 values. 1 of the classes is a main one (let's call it "Center") and related to other as one-to-one or one-to-many. Thinking about correct way of describing this in JPA I think I need to describe all the primary keys using @Embedded / @PrimaryKey annotations. Question #1: My concern is - does it mean that on the database level I will have # of additional columns in each table referring to the "Center" equal to number of column in "Center" PK? If yes, is it possible to avoid it by using some artificial unique key for references? Could you please give an idea how real PK and the artificial one needs to be described in this case? Note: The reason why I would like to keep the real PK and not just use the unique id as PK is - my application have some data loading functionality from external data sources and sometimes they may return records which I already have in local database. If unique ID will be used as PK - for new records I won't be able to do data update, since the unique ID will not be available for just downloaded ones. At the same time it is normal case scenario for application and it just need to update of insert new records depends on if the real composite primary key matches. Question #2: All of the 10 classes have common field "date" which I described in an abstract class which each of them extends. The "date" itself is never a key, but it always a part of composite key for each class. Composite key is different for each class. To be able to use this field as a part of PK should I describe it in each class or is there any way to use it as is? I experimented with @Embedded and @PrimaryKey annotations and always got an error that eclipselink can't find field described in an abstract class. Thank you in advance! PS. I'm using latest version of eclipselink & H2 database.

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  • Use SQL to clone a tree structure represented in a database

    - by AmoebaMan17
    Given a table that represents a hierarchical tree structure and has three columns ID (Primary Key, not-autoincrementing) ParentGroupID SomeValue I know the lowest most node of that branch, and I want to copy that to a new branch with the same number of parents that also need to be cloned. I am trying to write a single SQL INSERT INTO statement that will make a copy of every row that is of the same main has is part one GroupID into a new GroupID. Example beginning table: ID | ParentGroupID | SomeValue ------------------------ 1 | -1 | a 2 | 1 | b 3 | 2 | c Goal after I run a simple INSERT INTO statement: ID | ParentGroupID | SomeValue ------------------------ 1 | -1 | a 2 | 1 | b 3 | 2 | c 4 | -1 | a-cloned 5 | 4 | b-cloned 6 | 5 | c-cloned Final tree structure +--a (1) | +--b (2) | +--c (3) | +--a-cloned (4) | +--b-cloned (5) | +--c-cloned (6) The IDs aren't always nicely spaced out as this demo data is showing, so I can't always assume that the Parent's ID is 1 less than the current ID for rows that have parents. Also, I am trying to do this in T-SQL (for Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and greater). This feels like a classic exercise that should have a pure-SQL answer, but I'm too used to programming that my mind doesn't think in relational SQL.

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  • Questions on Juval Lowy's IDesign C# Coding Standard

    - by Jan
    We are trying to use the IDesign C# Coding standard. Unfortunately, I found no comprehensive document to explain all the rules that it gives, and also his book does not always help. Here are the open questions that remain for me (from chapter 2, Coding Practices): No. 26: Avoid providing explicit values for enums unless they are integer powers of 2 No. 34: Always explicitly initialize an array of reference types using a for loop No. 50: Avoid events as interface members No. 52: Expose interfaces on class hierarchies No. 73: Do not define method-specific constraints in interfaces No. 74: Do not define constraints in delegates Here's what I think about those: I thought that providing explicit values would be especially useful when adding new enum members at a later point in time. If these members are added between other already existing members, I would provide explicit values to make sure the integer representation of existing members does not change. No idea why I would want to do this. I'd say this totally depends on the logic of my program. I see that there is alternative option of providing "Sink interfaces" (simply providing already all "OnXxxHappened" methods), but what is the reason to prefer one over the other? Unsure what he means here: Could this mean "When implementing an interface explicitly in a non-sealed class, consider providing the implementation in a protected virtual method that can be overridden"? (see Programming .NET Components 2nd Edition, end of chapter “Interfaces and Class Hierarchies”). I suppose this is about providing a "where" clause when using generics, but why is this bad on an interface? I suppose this is about providing a "where" clause when using generics, but why is this bad on a delegate?

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  • Recursive code Sorting in VB

    - by Peter
    Ages old question: You have 2 hypothetical eggs, and a 100 story building to drop them from. The goal is to have the least number of guaranteed drops that will ensure you can find what floor the eggs break from the fall. You can only break 2 eggs. Using a 14 drop minimum method, I need help writing code that will allow me to calculate the following: Start with first drop attempt on 14th floor. If egg breaks then drop floors 1-13 to find the floor that causes break. ElseIf egg does not break then move up 13 floors to floor number 27 and drop again. If egg breaks then drop floors 15-26 starting on 15 working up to find the floor egg breaks on. ElseIf egg does not break then move up 12 floors to floor number 39 and drop again. etc. etc. The way this increases is as follows 14+13+12+11+10+9+8+7+6+5+4+3+2+1 So always adding to the previous value, by one less. I have never written a sorting algorithm before, and was curious how I might go about setting this up in a much more efficient way than a mile long of if then statements. My original idea was to store values for the floors in an array, and pull from that, using the index to move up or down and subtract or add to the variables. The most elegant solution would be a recursive function that handled this for any selected floor, 1-100, and ran the math, with an output that shows how many drops were needed in order to find that floor. Maximum is always 14, but some can be done in less.

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  • UpdatePanel reloads the whole page

    - by Emil D
    Hi.I'm building an asp.net cutom control inside which I have two dropdownlists: companyIdSelection and productFamilySelection.I populate the companyIdSelection at Page_Load and in order to populate the productFamilySelection depending on the selected item in companyIdSelection.I'm using UpdatePanels to achieve this, but for some reason every time I update companyIdSelection Page_Load is being called ( which as far as I know should happen only when the entire page is reloaded ), the list is being reloaded again and the item the user selected is lost( the selected item is always the top one ).Here's the code <asp:UpdatePanel ID="updateFamilies" runat="server" UpdateMode="Always"> <ContentTemplate> Company ID:<br> <br></br> <asp:DropDownList ID="companyIdSelection" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" OnSelectedIndexChanged="companyIdSelection_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> <br></br> Product Family: <br></br> <asp:DropDownList ID="productFamilySelection" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" onselectedindexchanged="productFamilySelection_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> <br> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.companyIdSelection.DataSource = companyIds(); //companyIds returns the object containing the initial data items this.companyIdSelection.DataBind(); } protected void companyIdSelection_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Page_Load is called again for some reason before this method is called, so it // resets the companyIdSelection EngDbService s = new EngDbService(); productFamilySelection.DataSource = s.getProductFamilies(companyIdSelection.Text); productFamilySelection.DataBind(); } Also, I tried setting the UpdateMode of the UpdatePanel to "Conditional" and adding an asyncpostback trigger but the result was the same. What am I doing wrong? PS: I fixed the updating problem, by using Page.IsPostBack in the Page_Load method, but I would still want to avoid a full postback if possible

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  • Is it possible to spoof or reuse VIEWSTATE or detect if it is protected from modification?

    - by Peter Jaric
    Question ASP and ASP.NET web applications use a value called VIEWSTATE in forms. From what I understand, this is used to persist some kind of state on the client between requests to the web server. I have never worked with ASP or ASP.NET and need some help with two questions (and some sub-questions): 1) Is it possible to programmatically spoof/construct a VIEWSTATE for a form? Clarification: can a program look at a form and from that construct the contents of the base64-encoded VIEWSTATE value? 1 a) Or can it always just be left out? 1 b) Can an old VIEWSTATE for a particular form be reused in a later invocation of the same form, or would it just be luck if that worked? 2) I gather from http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms972976.aspx#viewstate_topic12 that it is possible to turn on security so that the VIEWSTATE becomes secure from spoofing. Is it possible for a program to detect that a VIEWSTATE is safeguarded in such a way? 2 a) Is there a one-to-one mapping between the occurrence of EVENTVALIDATION values and secure VIEWSTATEs? Regarding 1) and 2), if yes, can I have a hint about how I would do that? For 2) I am thinking I could base64-decode the value and search for a string that always is found in unencrypted VIEWSTATEs. "First:"? Something else? Background I have made a small tool for detecting and exploiting so called CSRF vulnerabilities. I use it to quickly make proof of concepts of such vulnerabilities that I send to the affected site owners. Quite often I encounter these forms with a VIEWSTATE, and these I don't know if they are secure or not. Edit 1: Clarified question 1 somewhat. Edit 2: Added text in italics.

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