Search Results

Search found 14799 results on 592 pages for 'instance eval'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 121/592 | < Previous Page | 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128  | Next Page >

  • Releasing Excel after using Interop

    - by figus
    Hi everyone I've read many post looking for my answer, but all are similar to this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1610743/reading-excel-files-in-vb-net-leaves-excel-process-hanging My problem is that I don't quit the app... The idea is this: If a User has Excel Open, if he has the file I'm interested in open... get that Excel instance and do whatever I want to do... But I don't to close his File after I'm done... I want him to keep working on it, the problem is that when he closes Excel... The process keeps running... and running... and running after the user closes Excel with the X button... this is how I try to do it This piece is used to know if he has Excel open, and in the For I check for the file name I'm interested in. Try oApp = GetObject(, "Excel.Application") libroAbierto = True For Each libro As Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Workbook In oApp.Workbooks If libro.Name = EquipoASeccionIdSeccion.Text & ".xlsm" Then Exit Try End If Next libroAbierto = False Catch ex As Exception oApp = New Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Application End Try here would be my code... if he hasn't Excel open, I create a new instance, open the file and everything else. My code ends with this: If Not libroAbierto Then libroSeccion.Close(SaveChanges:=True) oApp.Quit() Else oApp.UserControl = True libroSeccion.Save() End If System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.FinalReleaseComObject(libroOriginal) System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.FinalReleaseComObject(libroSeccion) System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.FinalReleaseComObject(origen) System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.FinalReleaseComObject(copiada) System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.FinalReleaseComObject(oApp) libroOriginal = Nothing libroSeccion = Nothing oApp = Nothing origen = Nothing copiada = Nothing nuevosGuardados = True So you can see that, if I opened the file, I call oApp.Quit() and everything else and the Excel Process ends after a few seconds (maybe 5 aprox.) BUT if I mean the user to keep the file open (not calling Quit()), Excel process keeps running after the user closes Excel with the X button. Is there any way to do what I try to do?? Control a open instance of excel and releasing everything so when the user closes it with the X button, the Excel Process dies normally??? Thanks!!!

    Read the article

  • Field Members vs Method Variables?

    - by Braveyard
    Recently I've been thinking about performance difference between class field members and method variables. What exactly I mean is in the example below : Lets say we have a DataContext object for Linq2SQL class DataLayer { ProductDataContext context = new ProductDataContext(); public IQueryable<Product> GetData() { return context.Where(t=>t.ProductId == 2); } } In the example above, context will be stored in heap and the GetData method variables will be removed from Stack after Method is executed. So lets examine the following example to make a distinction : class DataLayer { public IQueryable<Product> GetData() { ProductDataContext context = new ProductDataContext(); return context.Where(t=>t.ProductId == 2); } } (*1) So okay first thing we know is if we define ProductDataContext instance as a field, we can reach it everywhere in the class which means we don't have to create same object instance all the time. But lets say we are talking about Asp.NET and once the users press submit button the post data is sent to the server and the events are executed and the posted data stored in a database via the method above so it is probable that the same user can send different data after one another.If I know correctly after the page is executed, the finalizers come into play and clear things from memory (from heap) and that means we lose our instance variables from memory as well and after another post, DataContext should be created once again for the new page cycle. So it seems the only benefit of declaring it publicly to the whole class is the just number one text above. Or is there something other? Thanks in advance... (If I told something incorrect please fix me.. )

    Read the article

  • Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

    Read the article

  • Dynamic Method Creation

    - by TJMonk15
    So, I have been trying to research this all morning, and have had no luck. I am trying to find a way to dynamically create a method/delegate/lambda that returns a new instance of a certain class (not known until runtime) that inherits from a certain base class. I can guarantee the following about the unknown/dynamic class It will always inherit from one known Class (Row) It will have atleast 2 constructors (one accepting a long, and one accepting an IDataRecord) I plan on doign the following: Finding all classes that have a certain attribute on them Creating a delegate/method/lambda/whatever that creates a new instance of the class Storing the delegate/whatever along with some properties in a struct/class Insert the struct into a hashtable When needed, pull the info out of the hashtable and calling the delegate/whatever to get a new instance of the class and returning it/adding it to a list/etc. I need help only with #2 above!!! I have no idea where to start. I really just need some reference material to get me started, or some keywords to throw into google. This is for a compact/simple to use ORM for our office here. I understand the above is not simple, but once working, should make maintaining the code incredibly simple. Please let me know if you need any more info! And thanks in advance! :)

    Read the article

  • Why does this extension method throw a NullReferenceException in VB.NET?

    - by Dan
    From previous experience I had been under the impression that it's perfectly legal (though perhaps not advisable) to call extension methods on a null instance. So in C#, this code compiles and runs: // code in static class static bool IsNull(this object obj) { return obj == null; } // code elsewhere object x = null; bool exists = !x.IsNull(); However, I was just putting together a little suite of example code for the other members of my development team (we just upgraded to .NET 3.5 and I've been assigned the task of getting the team up to speed on some of the new features available to us), and I wrote what I thought was the VB.NET equivalent of the above code, only to discover that it actually throws a NullReferenceException. The code I wrote was this: ' code in module ' <Extension()> _ Function IsNull(ByVal obj As Object) As Boolean Return obj Is Nothing End Function ' code elsewhere ' Dim exampleObject As Object = Nothing Dim exists As Boolean = Not exampleObject.IsNull() The debugger stops right there, as if I'd called an instance method. Am I doing something wrong (e.g., is there some subtle difference in the way I defined the extension method between C# and VB.NET)? Is it actually not legal to call an extension method on a null instance in VB.NET, though it's legal in C#? (I would have thought this was a .NET thing as opposed to a language-specific thing, but perhaps I was wrong.) Can anybody explain this one to me?

    Read the article

  • what's the right way to bind sqldatasource to asp:label in asp.net 4.0?

    - by cskilbeck
    Is it possible using Eval? If so, can someone post a short fragment to illustrate? My SqlDataSource returns 1 record with 3 fields, I'd like to Format these into a string. eg: Record Field 'Name' = 'Jack' Field 'Amount' = 100 Field 'Date' = 12.02.2010 asp:Label text should end up being: Welcome Jack, last payment was 100 on 12.02.2010 if another control than asp:Label is appropriate, that would be good to know also.

    Read the article

  • Trouble implementing Singleton pattern in Tomcat web application due to Class Loader

    - by jwegan
    I'm trying to implement a Singleton in Tomcat 6.24 on Linux with x86_64 OpenJDK 1.6. My application is just a bunch of JSPs and some static content and the JSPs make calls to my Java code. Currently the web.xml just looks like this: <web-app xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-app_2_5.xsd" version="2.5"> <description> App Name </description> <display-name>App Name</display-name> <!-- The Usual Welcome File List --> <welcome-file-list> <welcome-file>pages/index.jsp</welcome-file> </welcome-file-list> </web-app> Before when I was trying to load my Singleton it was getting instantiated twice since the class was getting loaded by two different class loaders (I'm not sure why) and each loader would create an instance of the singleton which is not acceptable for my application. I finally figured out if I exported my code as a jar and put it in $CATALINA_HOME/lib then there was only one instance, but this is not an elegant solution. I've been googling for hours, but I haven't come up with anything yet. I'm wondering if there is some other solution. Currently I'm not precompling my JSPs, could this be part of the problem? Could I write a servlet to ensure the singleton is created? If so how do I do that?

    Read the article

  • Immutable classes in C++

    - by ereOn
    Hi, In one of my projects, I have some classes that represent entities that cannot change once created, aka. immutable classes. Example : A class RSAKey that represent a RSA key which only has const methods. There is no point changing the existing instance: if you need another one, you just create one. My objects sometimes are heavy and I enforced the use of smart pointers to avoid copy. So far, I have the following pattern for my classes: class RSAKey : public boost::noncopyable, public boost::enable_shared_from_this<RSAKey> { public: /** * \brief Some factory. * \param member A member value. * \return An instance. */ static boost::shared_ptr<const RSAKey> createFromMember(int member); /** * \brief Get a member. * \return The member. */ int getMember() const; private: /** * \brief Constructor. * \param member A member. */ RSAKey(int member); /** * \brief Member. */ const int m_member; }; So you can only get a pointer (well, a smart pointer) to a const RSAKey. To me, it makes sense, because having a non-const reference to the instance is useless (it only has const methods). Do you guys see any issue regarding this pattern ? Are immutable classes something common in C++ or did I just created a monster ? Thank you for your advices !

    Read the article

  • link button property to open in new tab?

    - by Surya sasidhar
    hi, in my application i have some link buttons there but when i right click on them i not(they are in disable mode) found property open in new tab or open in new window, what is that property can u help me. thank you <asp:LinkButton id="lbnkVidTtile1" runat="Server" CssClass="bodytext" Text='<%# Eval("newvideotitle") %>' ></LinkButton>

    Read the article

  • How to use keyword this in a mouse wrapper in right context in Javascript?

    - by MartyIX
    Hi, I'm trying to write a simple wrapper for mouse behaviour. This is my current code: function MouseWrapper() { this.mouseDown = 0; this.OnMouseDownEvent = null; this.OnMouseUpEvent = null; document.body.onmousedown = this.OnMouseDown; document.body.onmouseup = this.OnMouseUp; } MouseWrapper.prototype.Subscribe = function (eventName, fn) { // Subscribe a function to the event if (eventName == 'MouseDown') { this.OnMouseDownEvent = fn; } else if (eventName == 'MouseUp') { this.OnMouseUpEvent = fn; } else { alert('Subscribe: Unknown event.'); } } MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseDown = function () { this.mouseDown = 1; // Fire event $.dump(this.OnMouseDownEvent); if (this.OnMouseDownEvent != null) { alert('test'); this.OnMouseDownEvent(); } } MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseUp = function () { this.mouseDown = 0; // Fire event if (this.OnMouseUpEvent != null) { this.OnMouseUpEvent(); } } From what I gathered it seems that in MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseUp and MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseDown the keyword "this" doesn't mean current instance of MouseWrapper but something else. And it makes sense that it doesn't point to my instance but how to solve the problem? I want to solve the problem properly I don't want to use something dirty. My thinking: * use a singleton pattern (mouse is only one after all) * pass somehow my instance to OnMouseDown/Up - how? Thank you for help!

    Read the article

  • CSS overflow detection in JavaScript

    - by ring0
    In order to display a line of text (like in a forum), and end that line with "..." if the text would overflow the line (not truncating using the CSS overflow property), there are a number of ways. I'm still seeking the best solution. For instance, Adding in CSS a "..." as a background-image is a possibility, but it would appear all the time, and this is not a good solution. Some sites just count the characters and if over - say - 100, truncates the string to keep only 100 (or 97) chars and add a "..." at the end. But fonts are usually not proportional, so the result is not pretty. For instance the space - in pixels - taken by "AAA" and "iii" is clearly different "AAA" and "iii" via a proportional font have the same width There is another idea to get the exact size in pixels of the string: create in Javascript a DIV insert the text in it (via innerHTML for instance) measure the width (via .offsetWidth) which is not implemented yet. However, I wonder if there could be any browser compatibility problem? Did any one tried this solution? Other recommendations would be welcome.

    Read the article

  • Should I use a regular server instead of AWS?

    - by Jon Ramvi
    Reading about and using the Amazon Web Services, I'm not really able to grasp how to use it correctly. Sorry about the long question: I have a EC2 instance which mostly does the work of a web server (apache for file sharing and Tomcat with Play Framework for the web app). As it's a web server, the instance is running 24/7. It just came to my attention that the data on the EC2 instance is non persistent. This means I lose my database and files if it's stopped. But I guess it also means my server settings and installed applications are lost as they are just files in the same way as the other data. This means that I will either have to rewrite the whole app to use amazon CloudDB or write some code which stores the db on S3 and make my own AMI with the correct applications installed and configured. Or can this be quick-fixed by using EBS somehow? My question is 1. is my understanding of aws is correct? and 2. is it's worth it? It could be a possibility to just set up a regular dedicated server where everything is persistent, as you would expect. Would love to have the scaleability of aws though..

    Read the article

  • Loop through Json object

    - by Tanmoy
    I have a JSON object like the following var p = { "p1": "value1", "p2": "value2", "p3": "value3" }; Now I want to loop through all p elements (p1,p2,p3...) and get their key and values. How can I do that? I can modify the Json object if necessary . My ultimate goal is to loop through some key value pairs. And if possible I want to avoid using eval.

    Read the article

  • How does one restrict xml with an XML Schema?

    - by John
    Hello, I want to restrict xml with a schema to a specific set. I read this tutorial http://www.w3schools.com/schema/schema_facets.asp This seems to be what I want. So, I'm using Qt to validate this xml <car>BMW</car> Here is the pertinent source code. QXmlSchema schema; schema.load( QUrl("file:///workspace/QtExamples/ValidateXSD/car.xsd") ); if ( schema.isValid() ) { QXmlSchemaValidator validator( schema ); if ( validator.validate( QUrl("file:///workspace/QtExamples/ValidateXSD/car.xml") ) ) { qDebug() << "instance is valid"; } else { qDebug() << "instance is invalid"; } } else { qDebug() << "schema is invalid"; } I expected the xml to match the schema definition. Unexpectedly, QxmlSchemaValidator complains. Error XSDError in file:///workspace/QtExamples/ValidateXSD/car.xml, at line 1, column 5: Content of element car does not match its type definition: String content is not listed in the enumeration facet.. instance is invalid I suspect this is a braino. How does one restrict xml with an XML Schema? Thanks for your time and consideration. Sincerely, -john Here is the xsd from the tutorial. <xs:element name="car"> <xs:simpleType> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:enumeration value="Audi"/> <xs:enumeration value="Golf"/> <xs:enumeration value="BMW"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> </xs:element>

    Read the article

  • Is this implementation truely tail-recursive?

    - by CFP
    Hello everyone! I've come up with the following code to compute in a tail-recursive way the result of an expression such as 3 4 * 1 + cos 8 * (aka 8*cos(1+(3*4))) The code is in OCaml. I'm using a list refto emulate a stack. type token = Num of float | Fun of (float->float) | Op of (float->float->float);; let pop l = let top = (List.hd !l) in l := List.tl (!l); top;; let push x l = l := (x::!l);; let empty l = (l = []);; let pile = ref [];; let eval data = let stack = ref data in let rec _eval cont = match (pop stack) with | Num(n) -> cont n; | Fun(f) -> _eval (fun x -> cont (f x)); | Op(op) -> _eval (fun x -> cont (op x (_eval (fun y->y)))); in _eval (fun x->x) ;; eval [Fun(fun x -> x**2.); Op(fun x y -> x+.y); Num(1.); Num(3.)];; I've used continuations to ensure tail-recursion, but since my stack implements some sort of a tree, and therefore provides quite a bad interface to what should be handled as a disjoint union type, the call to my function to evaluate the left branch with an identity continuation somehow irks a little. Yet it's working perfectly, but I have the feeling than in calling the _eval (fun y->y) bit, there must be something wrong happening, since it doesn't seem that this call can replace the previous one in the stack structure... Am I misunderstanding something here? I mean, I understand that with only the first call to _eval there wouldn't be any problem optimizing the calls, but here it seems to me that evaluation the _eval (fun y->y) will require to be stacked up, and therefore will fill the stack, possibly leading to an overflow... Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to redirect registry access of a dll loaded by my program

    - by dummzeuch
    I have got a dll that I load in my program which reads and writes its settings to the registry (hkcu). My program changes these settings prior to loading the dll so it uses the settings my program wants it to use which works fine. Unfortunately I need to run several instances of my program with different settings for the dll. Now the approach I have used so far no longer works reliably because it is possible for one instance of the program to overwrite the settings that another instance just wrote before the dll has a chance to read them. I haven't got the source of the dll in question and I cannot ask the programmer who wrote it to change it. One idea I had, was to hook registry access functions and redirect them to a different branch of the registry which is specific to the instance of my program (e.g. use the process id as part of the path). I think this should work but maybe you have got a different / more elegant. In case it matters: I am using Delphi 2007 for my program, the dll is probably written in C or C++.

    Read the article

  • sql server mdf file database attachment

    - by jnsohnumr
    hello all i'm having a bear of a time getting visual studio 2010 (ultimate i think) to properly attach to my database. it was moved from original spot to #MYAPP#/#MYAPP#.Web/App_Data/#MDF_FILE#.mdf. I have three instances of sql server running on this machine. i have tried to replace the old mdf file with my new one and cannot get the connectionstring right for it. what i'm really wanting to do is to just open some DB instance, run a DB create script. Then I can have a DB that was generated via my edmx (generate database from model) in silverlight business application (c#) right now, when i go to server explorer in VS, choose add new connection, choose MS SQL Server Database FIle (SqlClient), choose my file location (app_data directory), use windows authentication, and hit the Test Connection button I get the following error: Unable to open the physical file "". Operating system error 5: "5(Access Denied.)". An attempt to attach to an auto-named database for file"" failed. A database with the same name exists, or specified file cannot be opened, or it is located on UNC share. The mdf file was created on the same machine by connecting to (local) on the sql server management studio, getting a new query, pasting in the SQL from the generated ddl file, adding a CREATE DATABASE [NcrCarDatabase]; GO before the pasted SQL, and executing the query. I then disconnected from the DB in management studio, closed management studio, navigated to the DATA directory for that instance, and copying the mdf and ldf files to my application's app_data folder. I am then trying to connect to the same file inside visual studio. I hope that gives more clarity to my problems :). Connection string is: Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=C:\SourceCode\NcrCarDatabase\NcrCarDatabase.Web\App_Data\NcrCarDatabase.mdf;Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=True

    Read the article

  • Using Kerberos authentication for SQL Server 2008

    - by vivek m
    I am trying to configure my SQL Server to use Kerberos authentication. My setup is like this - My setup is like this- I have 2 virtual PCs in a Windows XP Pro SP3 host. Both VPCs are Windows Server 2003 R2. One VPC acts as the DC, DNS Server, DHCP server, has Active Directory installed and the SQL Server default instance is also running on this VPC. The second VPC is the domain member and it acts as the SQL Server client machine. I configured the SPN on the SQL Server service account to get the Kerberos working. On the client VPC it seems like it is using Kerberos authentication (as desired)- C:\Documents and Settings\administrator.SHAREPOINTSVC>sqlcmd -S vm-winsrvr2003 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- KERBEROS (1 rows affected) 1> but on the server computer (where the SQL Server instance is actually running) it looks like it is still using NTLM authentication- . This is not a remote instance, the sql server is local to this machine. C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator>sqlcmd 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- NTLM (1 rows affected) 1> What can i do so that it uses Kerberos on the server computer as well ? (or is this something that I should not expect)

    Read the article

  • Android: Adding data to Intent fails to load Activity

    - by DroidIn.net
    I have a widget that supposed to call an Activity of the main app when the user clicks on widget body. My setup works for a single widget instance but for a second instance of the same widget the PendingIntent gets reused and as result the vital information that I'm sending as extra gets overwritten for the 1st instance. So I figured that I should pass widget ID as Intent data however as soon as I add Intent#setData I would see in the log that 2 separate Intents are appropriately fired but the Activity fails to pick it up so basically Activity will not come up and nothing happens (no error or warning ether) Here's how the activity is setup in the Manifest: <activity android:name=".SearchResultsView" android:label="@string/search_results" <intent-filter> <action android:name="bostone.android.search.RESULTS" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> </intent-filter> </activity> And here's code that is setup for handling the click Intent di = new Intent("bostone.android.search.RESULTS"); di.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); // if line below is commented out - the Activity will start di.setData(ContentUris.withAppendedId(Uri.EMPTY, widgetId)); di.putExtra("URL", url); views.setOnClickPendingIntent(R.id.widgetContent, PendingIntent.getActivity(this, 0, di, 0)); The main app and the widget are packaged as 2 separate APK each in its own package and Manifest

    Read the article

  • Interchange xsd and xsi in the output of XmlSerializer

    - by Sri Kumar
    XmlSerializer serializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(IxComment)); System.IO.StringWriter aStream = new System.IO.StringWriter(); serializer.Serialize(aStream,Comments); commentsString = aStream.ToString(); Here the commentsString has the the following element in it <IxComment xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> Is there any possibility to interchange the xsi and xsd attribute and get the element as shown below <IxComment xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" > Will this cause any other issue? EDIT: Why do i need to do this? We are migrating an existing application from 1.1 to 3.0 and in the code there is a if loop int iStartTagIndex = strXMLString.IndexOf("<IxComment xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\">"); that check for the index of the IxComment. Here the o/p of the serializer and the condition differ in the position of xsd and xsi. So i am trying to know whether we can instruct the serializer to provided the o/p as required. I have another question here as this was an existing application does the serializer O/P differs with versions?

    Read the article

  • Access Grails domain class from GroovyShell script

    - by Martin Dow
    I'm trying to use GroovyShell to evaluate some snippets of code from within a Grails application, but I don't seem to be able to access our Grails domain classes. For example when I try to evaluate something like this: Eval.me("my.package.MyDomainClass.get(1)") I see an error like this: groovy.lang.MissingPropertyException: No such property: my for class: Script1 Any thoughts on how I can get this to work? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to insert array into mysql using PDO and bindParam?

    - by moomoochoo
    I'm using the following code. The code works, but I want to change it so that it uses bindparam try { $dbh = new PDO("mysql:host=$hostname;dbname=$dbname", $username, $password); $stqid=array(); for ($i=0; $i<$array_count; $i++){ $stqid[$i][0]=$lastInsertValue; $stqid[$i][1]=$qid[$i][0]; $stqid[$i][2]=$qid[$i][1]; } $values = array(); foreach ($stqid as $rowValues) { foreach ($rowValues as $key => $rowValue) { $rowValues[$key] = $rowValues[$key]; } $values[] = "(" . implode(', ', $rowValues) . ")"; } $count = $dbh->exec("INSERT INTO qresults(instance, qid, result) VALUES ".implode (', ', $values)); $dbh = null; } catch(PDOException $e){ echo $e->getMessage(); } I replaced the following $count = $dbh->exec("INSERT INTO qresults(instance, qid, result) VALUES ".implode (', ', $values)); with $sql = "INSERT INTO qresults (instance, qid, result) VALUES (:an_array)"; $stmt = $dbh->prepare($sql); $stmt->bindParam(':an_array', implode(',', $values),PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); but the insert doesn't work anymore (I didn't get any error messages though). QUESTION: What am I doing wrong? How can I rewrite the code to use bindParam?

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128  | Next Page >