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  • Ruby -- looking for some sort of "Regexp unescape" method

    - by RubyNoobie
    I have a bunch of strings that appear to have been double-escaped -- eg, I have "\\014\"\\000\"\\016smoothing\"\\011mean\"\\022color\"\\011zero@\\016" but I want "\014"\000"\016smoothing"\011mean"\022color"\011zero@\016" Is there a method I can use to unescape them? I imagine that I could make a regex to remove 1 backslash from every consecutive n backslashes, but I don't have a lot of regex experience and it seems there ought to be a "more elegant" way to do it. For example, when I puts MyString it displays the output I'd like, but I don't know how I might capture that into a variable. Thanks! Edited to add context: I have this class that is being used to marshal / restore some stuff, but when I restore some old strings it spits out a type error which I've determined is because they weren't -- for some inexplicable reason -- stored as base64. They instead appear to be 'double-escaped', when I need them to be 'single-escaped' to get restored. require 'base64' class MarshaledStuff < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :marshaled_obj def contents obj = self.marshaled_obj return Marshal.restore(Base64.decode64(obj)) end def contents=(newcontents) self.marshaled_obj = Base64.encode64(Marshal.dump(newcontents)) end end

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  • SS3: the method 'fortemplate' does not exist on 'ArrayList'

    - by Fraser
    In Silverstripe 3, I'm trying to run some custom SQL and return the result for handling in my template: function getListings(){ $sqlQuery = new SQLQuery(); $sqlQuery->setFrom('ListingCategory_Listings'); $sqlQuery->selectField('*'); $sqlQuery->addLeftJoin('Listing', '"ListingCategory_Listings"."ListingID" = "Listing"."ID"'); $sqlQuery->addLeftJoin('SiteTree_Live', '"Listing"."ID" = "SiteTree_Live"."ID"'); $sqlQuery->addLeftJoin('ListingCategory', '"ListingCategory_Listings"."ListingCategoryID" = "ListingCategory"."ID"'); $sqlQuery->addLeftJoin('File', '"ListingCategory"."IconID" = "File"."ID"'); $result = $sqlQuery->execute(); //return $result; //$dataObject = new DataList(); $dataObject = new ArrayList(); foreach($result as $row) { $dataObject->push(new ArrayData($row)); } return $dataObject; } However, this is giving me the error: Uncaught Exception: Object-__call(): the method 'fortemplate' does not exist on 'ArrayList' What am I doing wrong here and how can I get the result of this query into my template?

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  • Dataset bind to Gridview within WCF REST retrieval method and Linq to Sql

    - by user643794
    I used a WCF REST template to build a WCF service library to create PUT and GET calls. PUT method works fine sending my blob to a database. On the GET, I want to be able to access the web service directly and display the results from a stored procedure as a dataset and bind this to a gridview. The stored procedure is a simple select statement, returning three of the four columns from the table. I have the following: [WebGet(UriTemplate = "/?name={name}", ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Xml)] public List<Object> GetCollection(string name) { try { db.OpenDbConnection(); // Call to SQL stored procedure return db.GetCustFromName(name); } catch (Exception e) { Log.Error("Stored Proc execution failed. ", e); } finally { db.CloseDbConnection(); } return null; } I also added Linq to SQL class to include my database table and stored procedures access. I also created the Default.aspx file in addition to the other required files. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ServiceDataContext objectContext = new ServiceDataContext(); var source = objectContext.GetCustFromName("Tiger"); Menu1.DataSource = source; Menu1.DataBind(); } But this gives me The entity type '' does not belong to any registered model. Where should the data binding be done? What should be the return type for GetCollection()? I am stuck with this. Please provide help on how to do this.

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  • Choosing a method for a webservice

    - by Wrikken
    I'm asked to set up a new webservice which should be easily usable in whatever language (php, .NET, Java, etc.) possible. Of course rolling my own can be done, accepting different content-types (xml / x-www-form-urlencoded (normal post) / json / etc.), but an existing method or mechanism would of course be prefered, cutting down time spent on development for the consumers of the service. The webservice does accept modifications / sets (it is not only simply data retrieval), but those will most likely be quite a lot less then gets (we estimate about 2.5% sets, 97.5 gets). The term webservice here indicates the protocol should go over HTTP, not being able to implement it totally client sided (javascript in the end-users browser etc.), as it needs specific user authentication. Both gets and sets are pretty light on the parameter count (usually 1 to 4). Methods like REST (which I'd prefer for only gets), XML-RPC & SOAP (might be a bit overkill, but has the advantage of explicitly defined methods and returns) are the usual suspects. What in your opinion / experience is the most widely 'spoken' and most easily implementable protocol in different languages (seen from the consumers' viewpoint) which could fullfill this need?

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  • Calling DI Container directly in method code (MVC Actions)

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    I'm playing with DI (using Unity). I've learned how to do Constructor and Property injection. I have a static container exposed through a property in my Global.asax file (MvcApplication class). I have a need for a number of different objects in my Controller. It doesn't seem right to inject these throught the constructor, partly because of the high quantity of them, and partly because they are only needed in some Actions methods. The question is, is there anything wrong with just calling my container directly from within the Action methods? public ActionResult Foo() { IBar bar = (Bar)MvcApplication.Container.Resolve(IBar); // ... Bar uses a default constructor, I'm not actually doing any // injection here, I'm just telling my conatiner to give me Bar // when I ask for IBar so I can hide the existence of the concrete // Bar from my Controller. } This seems the simplest and most efficient way of doing things, but I've never seen an example used in this way. Is there anything wrong with this? Am I missing the concept in some way?

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  • Should I return an NSMutableString in a method that returns NSString

    - by Casey Marshall
    Ok, so I have a method that takes an NSString as input, does an operation on the contents of this string, and returns the processed string. So the declaration is: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str; The question: should I just return the NSMutableString instance that I used as my "work" buffer, or should I create a new NSString around the mutable one, and return that? So should I do this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return work; } Or this: - (NSString *) processString: (NSString *) str { NSMutableString *work = [NSMutableString stringWithString: str]; // process 'work' return [NSString stringWithString: work]; // or [work stringValue]? } The second one makes another copy of the string I'm returning, unless NSString does smart things like copy-on-modify. But the first one is returning something the caller could, in theory, go and modify later. I don't care if they do that, since the string is theirs. But are there valid reasons for preferring the latter form over the former? And, is either stringWithString or stringValue preferred over the other?

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  • ASP MVC Controller Method not always called from $.getJSON request

    - by johnvpetersen
    I have a controller method that returns a jSON object and in one calling situation, it works and in another calling situation, it does not work. When the URL in my browser is this: http://localhost:65247/Client -- it works. But, when my url looks like this: http://localhost:65247/Client/UserAdmin?id=6 -- it DOES NOT work In a nutshell, clients have users. From within the client, I wish to work on a specific user (this is the UserAdmin view). In this case, the client id is 6. From within the UserAdmin view that was launched with Id=6, I then wish to select a user from a dropdown. The idea was to use javascript and $.getJSON to fetch data for the specific user so as not to have to refresh the entire page. I use this approach in other parts of the app. The only difference I can see is with the URL in the browser. It would appear the presence of parameters via the '?' is futzing things up a bit. Any ideas?? Thanks in advance. John

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  • How to test method call order with Moq

    - by Finglas
    At the moment I have: [Test] public void DrawDrawsAllScreensInTheReverseOrderOfTheStack() { // Arrange. var screenMockOne = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screenMockTwo = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screens = new List<IScreen>(); screens.Add(screenMockOne.Object); screens.Add(screenMockTwo.Object); var stackOfScreensMock = new Mock<IScreenStack>(); stackOfScreensMock.Setup(s => s.ToArray()).Returns(screens.ToArray()); var screenManager = new ScreenManager(stackOfScreensMock.Object); // Act. screenManager.Draw(new Mock<GameTime>().Object); // Assert. screenMockOne.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock one"); screenMockTwo.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock two"); } But the order in which I draw my objects in the production code does not matter. I could do one first, or two it doesn't matter. However it should matter as the draw order is important. How do you (using Moq) ensure methods are called in a certain order? Edit I got rid of that test. The draw method has been removed from my unit tests. I'll just have to manually test it works. The reversing of the order though was taken into a seperate test class where it was tested so it's not all bad. Thanks for the link about the feature they are looking into. I sure hope it gets added soon, very handy.

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  • how to access anti aliasing method of a font with CSS

    - by Daniel Ramirez-Escudero
    I've had this problem in a lot of different webs. You have a font which has different anti-aliasing options, the designer uses the same font with different anti-aliasing options on different parts of the text on the web. So there is a difference between some elements. In this case I have sharp, crisp, strong and smooth. I've used a font generator to get the code to access it via @font-face. Even so, I also have the original .otf if important to know. Is there a method to access this? I upload a picture of what I mean and my actual code: ![@font-face { font-family: 'light'; src: url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.eot'); src: url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.eot?#iefix') format('embedded-opentype'), url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.woff') format('woff'), url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.ttf') format('truetype'), url('../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light.svg#../_fnt/light/gothamrnd-light') format('svg'); font-weight: normal; font-style: normal; }]![enter image description here][1]

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  • How to Inject code in c# method calls from a separate app

    - by Fusspawn
    I was curious if anyone knew of a way of monitoring a .Net application's runtime info (what method is being called and such) and injecting extra code to be run on certain methods from a separate running process. say i have two applications: app1.exe that for simplicity's sake could be class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ Somefunc(); } } static void Somefunc() { Console.WriteLine("Hello World"); } } and I have a second application that I wish to be able to detect when Somefunc() from application 1 is running and inject its own code, class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ if(App1.SomeFuncIsCalled) InjectCode(); } } static void InjectCode() { App1.Console.WriteLine("Hello World Injected"); } } So The result would be Application one would show Hello World Hello World Injected I understand its not going to be this simple ( By a long shot ) but I have no idea if it's even possible and if it is where to even start. Any suggestions ? I've seen similar done in java, But never in c#. EDIT: To clarify, the usage of this would be to add a plugin system to a .Net based game that I do not have access to the source code of.

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  • Message driven bean not responding until client method is complete

    - by poijoi
    Hi, I have a MDB deployed on Jboss 4.2.2 and a client on the same server that produces messages and expects a reply from the MDB via a temporary queue created before the message is sent. When I run the client, I see that it creates the message, puts it in the queue and waits for the reply (no problem so far) ... but when I check in the logs I see that the timeout is reached and no response is received. When the timeout occurs and the client's method is complete the MDB starts processing the message that should have been processed the moment the client put it in the queue. As a consequence of this timing issue, when the MDB tries to reply to the temp queue, it fails since the client is already gone. If I run the same client from a remote server, I have no problem... The MDB picks up the message from the queue right away and the client receives its response right after the processing is complete. I'm using container managed transactions. I suspect it has something to do with that... I think the client's "send message/receive reply" might be all be considered a transaction before it commits to put the message in the queue... but I'm not sure if this is correct. If this is the case, why did I not see the same behavior from the remote client? is client managed transaction the default setting and that's what my remote server was using? Any idea how to fix this? Thanks in advance! PJ

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  • Chrome extension:Cannot call method 'getElementsByTagName' of null

    - by T_t
    Hi,i am beginner with chrome extension.There is simple problem. There is the code in my extension,but it do not work.I don't know how to figure it out. In my extension, i used a xml file to stroe some data.There is the code in my background.html,but it do not work,i don't know how to figure it out... <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> </head> <body> <script> function loadXmlFile(){ var xmlDom = null; var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); if( xmlhttp ){ xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function(){ if( xmlhttp.readyState == 4 ){ if( xmlhttp.status == 200 ){ xmlDom = xmlhttp.responseXML; } } } xmlhttp.open( "GET",chrome.extension.getURL("/xml/123.xml"),true); xmlhttp.send( null ); } return xmlDom; } var xmlDom = loadXmlFile(); var s = xmlDom.getElementsByTagName( "to" ); alert( s[0].nodeType ); </script> </body> </html> I used developer tools to debug,but it says " Cannot call method 'getElementsByTagName' of null"... who can help me?

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  • Rails: using find method to access joined tables for polymorphic relationships

    - by DJTripleThreat
    Ok, I have a generic TimeSlot model that deals with a start_at and an end_at for time spans. A couple models derive from this but I'm referring to one in this question: AppointmentBlock which is a collection of Appointments. I want to validate an AppointmentBlock such that no other AppointmentBlocks have been scheduled for a particular Employee in the same time frame. Since AppointmentBlock has a polymorphic association with TimeSlot, you have to access the AppointmentBlock's start_at and end_at through the TimeSlot like so: appt_block.time_slot.start_at This means that I need to have some kind of join in my :conditions for my find() method call. Here is my code so far: #inside my appointment_block.rb model validate :employee_not_double_booked def employee_not_double_booked unless self.employee_id # this find's condition is incorrect because I need to join time_slots to get access # to start_at and end_at. How can I do this? blocks = AppointmentBlock.find(:first, :conditions => ['employee_id = ? and (start_at between ? and ? or end_at between ? and ?)', self.employee_id, self.time_slot.start_at, self.time_slot.end_at, self.time_slot.start_at, self.time_slot.end_at]) # pseudo code: # collect a list of appointment blocks that end after this # apointment block starts or start before this appointment # block ends that are also associated with this appointment # blocks assigned employee # if the count is great then 0 the employee has been double # booked. # if a block was found that means this employee is getting # double booked so raise an error errors.add "AppointmentBlock", "has already been scheduled during this time" if blocks end end Since AppointmentBlock doesn't have a start_at or an end_at how can I join with the time_slots table to get those conditions to work?

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  • Java method help

    - by dalton conley
    Ok, so I'm working on a project for a class I'm taking.. simple music library. Now I'm having some issues, the main issue is I'm getting "non-static method cannot be referenced from a static context" Here is a function I have public void addSong() { Scanner scan = new Scanner(System.in); Song temp = new Song(); int index = countFileLines(Main.databaseFile); index = index + 2; temp.index = index; System.out.print("Enter the artist name: "); temp.artist.append(scan.next()); } Now thats in a class file called LibraryFunctions. So I can access it with LibraryFunctions.addSong(); Now I'm trying to run this in my main java file and its giving me the error, I know why the error is happening, but what do I do about it? If I make addSong() a static function then it throws errors at me with the Song temp = new Song() being static. Kind of ironic. Much help is appreciated on this!

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  • Dealing with multiple generics in a method call

    - by thaBadDawg
    I've been dealing a lot lately with abstract classes that use generics. This is all good and fine because I get a lot of utility out of these classes but now it's making for some rather ugly code down the line. For example: abstract class ClassBase<T> { T Property { get; set; } } class MyClass : ClassBase<string> { OtherClass PropertyDetail { get; set; } } This implementation isn't all that crazy, except when I want to reference the abstract class from a helper class and then I have to make a list of generics just to make reference to the implemented class, like this below. class Helper { void HelpMe<C, T>(object Value) where C : ClassBase<T>, new() { DoWork(); } } This is just a tame example, because I have some method calls where the list of where clauses end up being 5 or 6 lines long to handle all of the generic data. What I'd really like to do is class Helper { void HelpMe<C>(object Value) where C : ClassBase, new() { DoWork(); } } but it obviously won't compile. I want to reference ClassBase without having to pass it a whole array of generic classes to get the function to work, but I don't want to reference the higher level classes because there are a dozen of those. Am I the victim of my own cleverness or is there an avenue that I haven't considered yet?

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  • How to set interface method between two viewController to pass paramter in Navigation Controller

    - by TechFusion
    Hello, I have created Window based application, root controller as Tab Bar controller. One Tab bar has Navigation controller. Navigation controller's ViewControlller implementation, I am pushing Viewcontroller. I am looking to pass parameter from Navigation Controller's View controller to pushed View Controller. I have tried to pass as per below method. //ViewController.h @interface ViewController:UIViewController{ NSString *String; } @property(copy, nonatomic)NSString *String; @end //ViewController.m #import "ViewController1.h" ViewController1 *level1view = [[ViewController alloc]init]; level1view.hideBottomBarWhenPushed = YES; level1view.theString = String; [self.navigationController pushViewController:level1view animated:YES]; [level1view release]; //ViewController1.h NSString *theString; @property(copy, nonatomic)NSString *theString; This is working fine. but I want to pass more than one parameter like Integer and UITextFiled Values so how to do that? Is there any Apple Doc that I can get idea about this? Thanks,

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  • .before method adds unexpected close tags

    - by timkl
    I have a table in my markup on which I want to add some divs before and efter like this: <div class="widebox"> <div class="widebox-header">Opret/rediger bruger</div> <div class="widebox-middle"> <table id="Table3"></table> </div> <div class="widebox-bottom"></div> </div> I'm trying to do this with jQuery, like this: $('#Table3').before('<div class="widebox"><div class="widebox-header">Opret/rediger bruger</div><div class="widebox-middle">'); $('#Table3').after('</div><div class="widebox-bottom"></div></div>'); However this is what renders out, the method seems to close my opening divs: <div class="widebox"> <div class="widebox-header">Opret/rediger bruger</div> <div class="widebox-middle"></div></div><!-- unexpected close divs --> <table id="Table3"></table> <div class="widebox-bottom"></div> Anyone know what could be causing this?

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  • Calling jQuery method from onClick attribute in HTML

    - by Russell
    I am relatively new to implementing JQuery throughout an entire system, and I am enjoying the opportunity. I have come across one issue I would love to find the correct resolve for. Here is a simple case example of what I want to do: I have a button on a page, and on the click event I want to call a jquery function I have defined. Here is the code I have used to define my method (Page.js): (function($) { $.fn.MessageBox = function(msg) { alert(msg); }; }); And here is my HTML page: <HTML> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="C:\Sandpit\jQueryTest\jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script language="javascript" src="Page.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="Title">Welcome!</div> <input type="button" value="ahaha" onclick="$().MessageBox('msg');" /> </body> </HTML> (The above code displays the button, but clicking does nothing.) I am aware I could add the click event in the document ready event, however it seems more maintainable to put events in the HTML element instead. However I have not found a way to do this. Is there a way to call a jquery function on a button element (or any input element)? Or is there a better way to do this? Thanks

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  • Post Method Not giving Alerts like planned?

    - by Charles
    <form action="" method="post"> <div align="center"><legend>Add a Code</legend> <label for="code"></label> <input type="text" name="code" id="code" maxlength="10" /> <input type='button' onclick= "isAlphanumeric(document.getElementById('code'),'Your Submission Contained Invalid Characters'); isBadPhrase(document.getElementById('code'), 'Please Enter A Correct Friend Code!');" value='Check Field' /> function isAlphanumeric(elem, helperMsg){ var alphaExp = /^[0-9a-zA-Z]+$/; if(elem.value.match(alphaExp)){ return true; }else{ alert(helperMsg); elem.focus(); return false; } } function isBadPhrase(elem,helperMsg){ var badPhrase=/EPW|ESW|\s/; if (elem.value.match(badPhrase)){ alert(helperMsg); elem.focus(); return false; }else{ return true; } } What is wrong here?

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  • Best method to select an object from another unknown jQuery object

    - by Yosi
    Lets say I have a jQuery object/collection stored in a variable named obj, which should contain a DOM element with an id named target. I don't know in advance if target will be a child in obj, i.e.: obj = $('<div id="parent"><div id="target"></div></div>'); or if obj equals target, i.e.: obj = $('<div id="target"></div>'); or if target is a top-level element inside obj, i.e.: obj = $('<div id="target"/><span id="other"/>'); I need a way to select target from obj, but I don't know in advance when to use .find and when to use .filter. What would be the fastest and/or most concise method of extracting target from obj? What I've come up with is: var $target = obj.find("#target").add(obj.filter("#target")); UPDATE I'm adding solutions to a JSPERF test page to see which one is the best. Currently my solution is still the fastest. Here is the link, please run the tests so that we'll have more data: http://jsperf.com/jquery-selecting-objects

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  • Long running method causing race condition

    - by keeleyt83
    Hi, I'm relatively new with hibernate so please be gentle. I'm having an issue with a long running method (~2 min long) and changing the value of a status field on an object stored in the DB. The pseudo-code below should help explain my issue. public foo(thing) { if (thing.getStatus() == "ready") { thing.setStatus("finished"); doSomethingAndTakeALongTime(); } else { // Thing already has a status of finished. Send the user back a message. } } The pseudo-code shouldn't take much explanation. I want doSomethingAndTakeALongTime() to run, but only if it has a status of "ready". My issue arises whenever it takes 2 minutes for doSomethingAndTakeALongTime() to finish and the change to thing's status field doesn't get persisted to the database until it leaves foo(). So another user can put in a request during those 2 minutes and the if statement will evaluate to true. I've already tried updating the field and flushing the session manually, but it didn't seem to work. I'm not sure what to do from here and would appreciate any help. PS: My hibernate session is managed by spring.

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  • Why NOT use POST method here?

    - by Camran
    I have a classifieds website. In the main page (index) I have several form fields which the user may or may not fill in, in order to specify a detailed search of classifieds. Ex: Category: Cars Price from: 3000 Price to: 10000 Color: Red Area: California The forms' action is set to a php page: <form action='query_sql.php' method='post'> In query_sql.php I fetch the variables like this: category=$_POST['category']; etc etc... Then query MySql: $query="SELECT........WHERE category='$category' etc etc.... $results = mysql_query($query); Then I simply display the results of the query to the user by creating a table which is filled in dynamically depending on the results set. However, according to an answer by Col. Shrapnel in my previous Q I shouldn't use POST here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3004754/how-to-hide-url-from-users-when-submitting-this-form The reason I use post is simply to hide the "one-page-word-document" long URL in the browsers adress bar. I am very confused, is it okay to use POST or not? It is working fine both when I use GET or POST now... And it is already on a production server... Btw, in the linked question, I wasn't referring to make URL invisible (or hide it) I just wanted it too look better (which I have accomplished with mod_rewrite). UPDATE: If I use GET, then how should I make the url better looking (beautiful)? Check this previous Q out: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3000524/how-to-make-this-very-long-url-appear-short

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  • Choosing design method for ladder-like word game.

    - by owca
    I'm trying to build a simple application, with the finished program looking like this : I will also have to implement two different GUI layouts for this. Now I'm trying to figure out the best method to perform this task. My professor told me to introduce Element class with 4 states : - empty - invisible (used in GridLayout) - first letter - other letter I've thought about following solutions (by List I mean any sort of Collection) : 1. Element is a single letter, and each line is Element[]. Game class will be array of arrays Element[]. I guess that's the dumbest way, and the validation might be troublesome. 2. Like previously but Line is a List of Element. Game is an array of Lines. 3. Like previously but Game is a List of Lines. Which one should I choose ? Or maybe do you have better ideas ? What collection would be best if to use one ?

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  • Flex: Method doesn't work when being called on parentDocument

    - by ChrisInCambo
    Hi, I wonder is anyone can look at this code and tell me why calling the removeSelectedChild works when called from the same document, but returns the following error when called from the child document/component. "ArgumentError: Error #2025: The supplied DisplayObject must be a child of the caller." <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" > <mx:Accordion id="myAccordion" width="100%" height="100%" selectedIndex="0"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function removeSelectedChild():void { myAccordion.removeChild(myAccordion.selectedChild); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:headerRenderer> <mx:Component> <mx:Button click="{ parentDocument.removeSelectedChild() }" /> </mx:Component> </mx:headerRenderer> <mx:HBox> <mx:Button click="{ removeSelectedChild() }" /> </mx:HBox> </mx:Accordion> </mx:Application> Clicking on the button in the child produces the expected result, whilst clicking on the header throws an error despite the fact they both call exactly the same method. Sorry that the example is a little contrived, this problem arose in a quite complicated view, which was using all kinds of custom components. This was the only way I could display it in a way that will be quick for you to compile and easy to focus on the real issue without background noise. I'm pulling my hair out on this one and would really appreciate it if anyone could help. Cheers, Chris

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  • release object of a return method object c

    - by Piero
    in run the app with the analyze build, and Xcode found me a lot of memory leak and there is one in particular that i don't know how solve here it is: - (UIView *) tableView:(UITableView *)tableView viewForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)section { UIImageView *sectionImage = [[UIImageView alloc] init]; if (section == 0)sectionImage.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@"myImage.png"]; return sectionImage; } so my question is, how i can release this sectionImage? if is the return of the method? EDIT: i have another question, analyze give me another memory leak, i have this: .h @property (nonatomic, retain) NSIndexPath *directCellPath; .m @synthesize directCellPath = _directCellPath; - (id)init{ if ((self = [super initWithNibName:@"MyViewController" bundle:nil])) { self.directCellPath = [[NSIndexPath alloc] init]; } return self; } then in the code i use it and finally in the dealloc i do this: - (void)dealloc { [_directCellPath release]; [super dealloc]; } and give me a memory leak on this line: self.directCellPath = [[NSIndexPath alloc] init]; why if i have deallocated it in the dealloc?

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