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  • get random password with puppet function

    - by ninja-2
    I have a function that allow me to generate random password. My function is working well without a puppetmaster. When i tried with a master an error appear when I called the function : Error 400 on SERVER: bad value for range Here is my function module Puppet::Parser::Functions newfunction(:get_random_password, :type => :rvalue, :doc => <<-EOS Returns a random password. EOS ) do |args| raise(Puppet::ParseError, "get_random_password(): Wrong number of arguments " + "given (#{args.size} for 1)") if args.size != 1 specials = ((33..33).to_a + (35..38).to_a + (40..47).to_a + (58..64).to_a + (91..93).to_a + (95..96).to_a + (123..125).to_a).pack('U*').chars.to_a numbers = (0..9).to_a alphal = ('a'..'z').to_a alphau = ('A'..'Z').to_a length = args[0] CHARS = (alphal + specials + numbers + alphau) pwd = CHARS.sort_by { rand }.join[0...length] return pwd end end The function is called in both case with $pwd = get_random_password(10). When I specified the length directly in the function to 10 for example. the password is well generated in master mode. Have you any idea why i can't specify the lentgth value ? Thanks for any help.

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  • Is it possible to get multiple forms to work with one ajax post function

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have a system where there is one form for each friend you have and I used to have an ajax post function for each form, but I want to save code and was wondering if it was possible to get multiple forms to work with just one post function. If anyone has any advice on how to achieve this I would appreciate it. For example <div id="message"> <form id='submit' class='message-form' method='POST' > <input type='hidden' id='to' value='friend1' maxlength='255' > Subject<br><input type='text' id='subject' maxlength='50'><br> Message<br><textarea id='message2' cols='50' rows='15'></textarea> <input type='submit' id='submitmessage' class='responsebutton' value='Send'> </form> </div> $(document).ready(function(){ $(".message-form").submit(function() { $("#submitmessage").attr({ disabled:true, value:\"Sending...\" }); var to = $('#to').attr('value'); var subject = $('#subject').attr('value'); var message = $('#message2').attr('value'); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "messageprocess.php", data: 'to='+ to + '&subject=' + subject + '&message=' + message, success: function(response) { if(response == "OK") { $('.message-form').html("<div id='message'></div>"); $('#message').html("<h2>Email has been sent!</h2>") .append("<p>Please wait...</p>") .hide() .fadeIn(1500, function() { $('#message').append(\"<img id='checkmark' src='images/check.png' />\"); });

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  • Need Explanation of couchdb reduce function

    - by Alan
    From http://wiki.apache.org/couchdb/Introduction_to_CouchDB_views The couchdb reduce function is defined as function (key, values, rereduce) { return sum(values); } key will be an array whose elements are arrays of the form [key,id] values will be an array of the values emitted for the respective elements in keys i.e. reduce([ [key1,id1], [key2,id2], [key3,id3] ], [value1,value2,value3], false) I am having trouble understanding when/why the array of keys would contain different key values. If the array of keys does contain different key values, how would I deal with it? As an example, assume that my database contains movements between accounts of the form. {"amount":100, "CreditAccount":"account_number", "DebitAccount":"account_number"} I want a view that gives the balance of an account. My map function does: emit( doc.CreditAccount, doc.amount ) emit( doc.DebitAccount, -doc.amount ) My reduce function does: return sum(values); I seem to get the expected results, however I can't reconcile this with the possibility that my reduce function gets different key values. Is my reduce function supposed to group key values first? What kind of result would I return in that case?

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  • boost::function & boost::lambda - call site invocation & accessing _1 and _2 as the type

    - by John Dibling
    Sorry for the confusing title. Let me explain via code: #include <string> #include <boost\function.hpp> #include <boost\lambda\lambda.hpp> #include <iostream> int main() { using namespace boost::lambda; boost::function<std::string(std::string, std::string)> f = _1.append(_2); std::string s = f("Hello", "There"); std::cout << s; return 0; } I'm trying to use function to create a function that uses the labda expressions to create a new return value, and invoke that function at the call site, s = f("Hello", "There"); When I compile this, I get: 1>------ Build started: Project: hacks, Configuration: Debug x64 ------ 1>Compiling... 1>main.cpp 1>.\main.cpp(11) : error C2039: 'append' : is not a member of 'boost::lambda::lambda_functor<T>' 1> with 1> [ 1> T=boost::lambda::placeholder<1> 1> ] Using MSVC 9. My fundamental understanding of function and lambdas may be lacking. The tutorials and docs did not help so far this morning. How do I do what I'm trying to do?

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  • MySQL pivot tables - covert rows to columns

    - by user2723490
    This is the structure of my table: Then I run a query SELECT `date`,`index_name`,`results` FROM `mst_ind` WHERE `index_name` IN ('MSCI EAFE Mid NR USD', 'Alerian MLP PR USD') AND `time_period`='M1' and get a table like How can I convert "index_name" rows to columns like: date | MSCI EAFE Mid NR USD | Alerian MLP PR USD etc In other words I need each column to represent an index and rows to represent date-result. I understand that MySQL doesn't have pivot table functions. What is the easiest way of doing this? I've tried this code, but it generates an error: SELECT `date`, MAX(IF(index_name = 'Alerian MLP PR USD' AND `time_period`='M1', results, NULL)) AS res1, MAX(IF(index_name = 'MSCI EAFE Mid NR USD' AND `time_period`='M1', results, NULL)) AS res2 FROM `mst_ind` GROUP BY `date I need to make the conversion on the query level - not PHP. Please suggest a nice and elegant solution. Thanks!

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  • Same function on multiple div classes doesn't work

    - by Sebass van Boxel
    I'm doing something terribly wrong and just can't find the solution for it. Situation: I've got a number of products with a number of quotes per product. Those quote automatically scroll in a div. If the scroll reaches the last quote is scroll back to the first one. What works: The function basically works when it's applied on 1 div, but when applied on multiple div it doesn't scroll back to the first one or keeps scrolling endlessly. This is the function i've written for this: function quoteSlide(divname){ $total = ($(divname+" > div").size()) $width = $total * 160; $(divname).css('width', ($width)); console.log ($totalleft *-1); if ($width - 160 > $totalleft *-1){ $currentleft = $(divname).css('left'); $step = -160; $totalleft = parseInt($currentleft)+$step; }else{ $totalleft = 0; } $(divname).animate(     { left: $totalleft }, // what we are animating     'slow', // how fast we are animating     'swing', // the type of easing     function() { // the callback }); } It's being executed by something like: quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); in combination with a setInterval so it keeps scrolling automatically. This is the jsFiddle where it goes wrong (So applied on more than 1 div) http://jsfiddle.net/FsrbZ/. This is the jsFiddle where everything goes okay. (applied on 1 div) When changing the following: quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_2'); setInterval(function() { quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_2'); }, 3400);? to quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); setInterval(function() { quoteSlide('#quotecontainer_1'); }, 3400);? it does work... but only on 1 quotecontainer.

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  • Uncaught TypeError: Property 'dist2' of object [object Object] is not a function

    - by Radu Vlad
    I have this functions that should return me the distance from point p to segment line v-w. The problem i have is after some time i receive the following error: Uncaught TypeError: Property 'dist2' of object [object Object] is not a function. I receive it in distToSegmentSquared directly,not even calling the function dist2().Is it any other dist2() anywhere in jquery?I found none... function sqr(x) { return x * x; } function dist2(v, w) { console.log(v); console.log(w); return sqr(v.x - w.x) + sqr(v.y - w.y); } function distToSegmentSquared(p, v, w) { var l2 = dist2(v, w); if (l2 == 0) return dist2(p, v); var t = ((p.x - v.x) * (w.x - v.x) + (p.y - v.y) * (w.y - v.y)) / l2; if (t < 0) return dist2(p, v); if (t > 1) return dist2(p, w); return dist2(p, {x: v.x + t * (w.x - v.x), y: v.y + t * (w.y - v.y)}); } function distToSegment(p, v, w) { return Math.sqrt(distToSegmentSquared(p, v, w)); } The values that are given in for that error are: p: Object x: 461 y: 333 v: Object x: 80 y: 120 w: Object x: 260 y: 120

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  • Home ADSL Modem Dropping Packets?

    - by Cody
    I know this is supposed to be a "pro" forum, but I'm hoping someone can help since my ISP isn't doing much to try and fix things. My ISP has given me a DSL modem / Router combo - a ADB / Pirelli P.DG A2100N and I have a 4096 / 767 kbps connection. I use it purely as modem and router, and have the wireless AP feature turned off. I run it to a Ubiquiti Networks Toughswitch and use a Ubiquiti UAP as the wireless access point - although I've ran tests directly wired to the router with nothing else connected, and still see the same issues. I've been having issues where latency suddenly spikes from 8ms to google.com to 250+ if someone does anything on the internet. If I run a speedtest or something, I can see latencies above 3000ms. Regularly when downloading something, even if the speed is throttled to , it can get random drops to 0kbps every few seconds. Online gaming is impossible because I notice the sudden lag-outs in the connection, and video streams or VoIP drop out as well - it's not at all consistent. I managed to find the password to my modem and I don't think I see anything wrong with the settings - but I looked for the logs and found this: Jun 6 17:10:30 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:10:30 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:10:31 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:10:40 user warn kernel: __ratelimit: 63 callbacks suppressed Jun 6 17:10:40 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:10:40 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:10:40 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:10:40 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:10:40 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:10:40 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:11:22 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:11:23 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:11:24 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:11:24 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:11:24 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:11:24 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:11:24 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:11:25 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:11:25 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:11:25 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:11:29 user warn kernel: __ratelimit: 15 callbacks suppressed Jun 6 17:11:29 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:11:29 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:11:30 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:11:30 user warn kernel: nf_conntrack: table full, dropping packet. Jun 6 17:55:26 user warn kernel: bcmxtmcfg: OAM loopback response not received on VCC 1.1.3 Jun 6 17:55:27 user warn kernel: bcmxtmcfg: OAM loopback response not received on VCC 1.1.4 So, as I understand it, it appears the router is dropping packets? If that's the case, is there anything in the config that I can change? Or should I buy a new router, a new modem, or both?

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  • how to sum the amount of cells with the same number in a column - Microsoft Excel 2010

    - by jerlebrink
    My english isn't that good, I hope you understand what I wan't to accomplish I have a column (A) with different zip codes ( total of 3583 rows). I need a formula/function to go through each cell and the come up with sum of how many instances (column B) there are of the same zip code (column C).There are probably more than hundred different zip codes so I can't do it manually. Thanks in advance.

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  • ms excel find and replace @ symbol results in broken formula

    - by Loopo
    I'm trying to search and replace in excel, the column is formatted as 'Text'. Find: [@ replace with: @ Whenever this finds a match at the start of a cell i.e the cell contents start with [@ and tries to replace that with @ the result is an error 'This function is not valid' I guess that since the @ operator is for references, this is causing the cell to be interpreted differently (not as text anymore) How do I make this replacement work? Copy/paste into another program is not a good option because some of the cells contain line-breaks.

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  • Is there a way to sort digits within a cell?

    - by Iszi
    I'd like to know if there's an Excel Function, or a formula, that can be used to sort digits within a cell. For example, if the value of A1 is 6193254807 and B1 has our formula with parameters set to sort ascending then B1 should equal 0123456789 (leading zero included). Of course, if the parameters were set so that it would sort descending then B1 should equal 9876543210. Is there a way to do this, without wandering into VBScript, or macros, or something similarly exotic?

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  • excel 2007 enter new date

    - by Lalajee
    I’m try to create a excel template which will have three fields I like to update automatically when it’s open. Fields which this template will have Current Date: 02/07/2012 Sheet Number: 25 Between Date: 02/07/2012 to 02/08/2012 When I open this template after 03/08/2012 this sheet will have new data Current Date: 03/08/2012 Sheet Number: 26 Between Date: 03/08/2012 to 02/09/2012 For current date Private Sub Workbook_Open() ThisWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1").Range("A1").Value = Date End Sub Can this be done using excel function or do I need to use VB and also how do I update template automatically with new values to say next time use these dates.

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  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

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  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL (Question updated)

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

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  • Beginner problem with posting data table to JsonResult

    - by ognjenb
    With this script I get data from JsonResult (GetDevicesTable) and put them to table ( id="OrderDevices") <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#getDevices a").click(function() { var Id = $(this).attr("rel"); var rowToMove = $(this).closest("tr"); $.post("/ImportXML/GetDevicesTable", { Id: Id }, function(data) { if (data.success) { //remove row rowToMove.fadeOut(function() { $(this).remove() }); //add row to other table $("#OrderDevices").append("<tr><td>"+ data.DeviceId+ "</td><td>" + data.Id+ "</td><td>" + data.OrderId + "</td></tr>"); } else { alert(data.ErrorMsg); } }, "json"); }); }); <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <table id="OrderDevices" class="data-table"> <tr> <th> DeviceId </th> <th> Id </th> <th> OrderId </th> </tr> </table> <p> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </p> <% } %> When click on Submit I need something like this: $(document).ready(function() { $("#submit").click(function() { var Id = $(this).attr("rel"); var DeviceId = $(this).attr(???); var OrderId = $(this).attr(???); var rowToMove = $(this).closest("tr"); $.post("/ImportXML/DevicesActions", { Id: Id, DeviceId:DeviceId, OrderId:OrderId }, function(data) { }, "json"); }); }); I have problem with this script because do not know how post data to this JsonResult: public JsonResult DevicesActions(int Id,int DeviceId,int OrderId) { orderdevice ord = new orderdevice(); ord.Id = Id; ord.OrderId = DeviceId; ord.DeviceId = OrderId; DBEntities.AddToorderdevice(ord); DBEntities.SaveChanges(); }

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  • Callback function in jquery doesn't seem to work......

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I use the following jquery pagination plugin and i got the error a.parentNode is undefined when i executed it... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { getRecordspage(1, 5); $(".pager").pagination(17, { callback: pagechange, current_page: '0', items_per_page: '5', num_display_entries : '5', next_text: 'Next', prev_text: 'Prev', num_edge_entries: '1' }); }); function pagechange() { $("#ResultsDiv").empty(); $("#ResultsDiv").css('display', 'none'); getRecordspage($(this).text(), 5); } function getRecordspage(curPage, pagSize) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Default.aspx/GetRecords", data: "{'currentPage':" + curPage + ",'pagesize':" + pagSize + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(jsonObj) { var strarr = jsonObj.d.split('##'); var jsob = jQuery.parseJSON(strarr[0]); var divs = ''; $.each(jsob.Table, function(i, employee) { divs += '<div class="resultsdiv"><br /><span class="resultName">' + employee.Emp_Name + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:100px;">Category&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Desig_Name + '</span><br /><br /><span id="SalaryBasis" class="resultfields">Salary Basis&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.SalaryBasis + '</span><span class="resultfields" style="padding-left:25px;">Salary&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.FixedSalary + '</span><span style="font-size:110%;font-weight:bolder;padding-left:25px;">Address&nbsp;:</span>&nbsp;<span class="resultfieldvalues">' + employee.Address + '</span></div>'; }); $("#ResultsDiv").append(divs).show('slow'); $(".resultsdiv:even").addClass("resultseven"); $(".resultsdiv").hover(function() { $(this).addClass("resultshover"); }, function() { $(this).removeClass("resultshover"); }); } }); } </script> and in my page, <div id="ResultsDiv" style="display:none;"> </div> <div id="pager" class="pager"> </div> Any suggestion....

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  • Assign an existing click event function to another click event using jquery

    - by Peter Delahunty
    Ok so i have some html like this: <div id="navigation"> <ul> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li class="selected"> <a>tab name</a> <span class="tab-del-btn">X</span> </li> </ul> </div> I then have javascript that is excuted on the page that i do not control (this is in liferay portal). I want to then manipulate things afterwards with my own custom javascript. SO... For each of the span.delete-tab elements an on-click event function has been assign earlier. It is the same function call for each span. I want to take that function (any) and call it from the click event of the span.tab-del-btn ? This is what i tried to do: var navigation = jQuery('#navigation'); var navTabs = navigation.find('.delete-tab'); var existingDeleteFunction = null; navTabs.each(function (i){ var tab = jQuery(this); existingDeleteFunction = tab.click; }); var selectedTab = jQuery('#navigation li.selected'); var deleteBtn = selectedTab.find('.tab-del-btn'); deleteBtn.click(function(event){ existingDeleteFunction.call(this); }); It does not work though. existingDeleteFunction is not the original function it is some jquery default function. Any ideas?

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  • how do i know how many clients are calling my WCF service function

    - by ZhengZhiren
    i am writing a program to test WCF service performance in high concurrency circumstance. On client side, i start many threads to call a WCF service function which returns a long list of data object. On server side, in that function called by my client, i need to know the number of clients calling the function. For doing that, i set a counter variable. In the beginning of the function, i add the counter by 1, but how can i decrease it after the funtion has returned the result? int clientCount=0; public DataObject[] GetData() { Interlocked.Increment(ref clientCount); List<DataObject> result = MockDb.GetData(); return result.ToArray(); Interlocked.Decrement(ref clientCount); //can't run to here... } i have seen a way in c++. Create a new class named counter. In the constructor of the counter class, increase the variable. And decrease it in the destructor. In the function, make a counter object so that its constructor will be called. And after the function returns, its destructor will be called. Like this: class counter { public: counter(){++clientCount; /* not simply like this, need to be atomic*/} ~counter(){--clientCount; /* not simply like this, need to be atomic*/} }; ... myfunction() { counter c; //do something return something; } In c# i think i can do so with the following codes, but not for sure. public class Service1 : IService1 { static int clientCount = 0; private class ClientCounter : IDisposable { public ClientCounter() { Interlocked.Increment(ref clientCount); } public void Dispose() { Interlocked.Decrement(ref clientCount); } } public DataObject[] GetData() { using (ClientCounter counter = new ClientCounter()) { List<DataObject> result = MockDb.GetData(); return result.ToArray(); } } } i write a counter class implement the IDisposable interface. And put my function codes into a using block. But it seems that it doesn't work so good. No matter how many threads i start, the clientCount variable is up to 3. Any advise would be appreciated.

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  • jquery function call with parameters

    - by Kaushik Gopal
    Hi a newb question: I have a table with a bunch of buttons like so: <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(222445,704);" /> </td> </tr> <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td align="center" class="hr-table-bottom-blue-border" valign="middle"> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(237760,776);" /> </td> </tr> I have my jquery like so: <script type="text/javascript"> // JQUERY stuff $(document).ready(function(){ function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } }); This doesn't seem to work.I thought this means, the function is ready only after the dom is ready. After the dom is ready and i click the button, why is not recognizing the function declaration within the .ready() function? However if i use the function directly: <script type="text/javascript"> function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } This works. I want to get my fundamentals straight here... If i do the declaration without the .ready() , does that mean i'm using plain vanilla jscript? If i were to do this with the document.ready - the usual jquery declaration way, what would i have to change to make it work? I understand there are much better ways to do this like binding with buttons etc, but I want to know why this particular way doesn't seem to be working. Thanks. Cheers. K

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  • Mysql: Order Results by number of matching rows in Second Table.

    - by KyleT
    I'm not sure the best way to word this question so bear with me. Table A has following columns: id name description Table B has the following columns: id a_id(foreign key to Table A) ip_address date Basically Table B contains a row for each time a user views a row from Table A. My question is how do I sort Table A results, based on the number of matching rows in Table B. i.e SELECT * FROM TableA ORDER BY (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM TableB where TableB.a_id = TableA.id) Thank you!

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  • How to copy the memeory allocated in device function back to main memory

    - by xhe8
    I have a CUDA program containing a host function and a device function Execute(). In the host function, I allocate a global memory output which will then be passed to the device function and used to store the address of the global memory allocated within the device function. I want to access the in-kernel allocated memory in the host function. The following is the code: #include <stdio.h> typedef struct { int * p; int num; } Structure_A; \__global__ void Execute(Structure_A *output); int main(){ Structure_A *output; cudaMalloc((void***)&output,sizeof(Structure_A)*1); dim3 dimBlockExecute(1,1); dim3 dimGridExecute(1,1); Execute<<<dimGridExecute,dimBlockExecute>>>(output); Structure_A * output_cpu; int * p_cpu; cudaError_t err; output_cpu= (Structure_A*)malloc(1); err=cudaMemcpy(output_cpu,output,sizeof(Structure_A),cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost); if( err != cudaSuccess) { printf("CUDA error a: %s\n", cudaGetErrorString(err)); exit(-1); } p_cpu=(int *)malloc(1); err=cudaMemcpy(p_cpu,output_cpu[0].p,sizeof(int),cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost); if( err != cudaSuccess) { printf("CUDA error b: %s\n", cudaGetErrorString(err)); exit(-1); } printf("output=(%d,%d)\n",output_cpu[0].num,p_cpu[0]); return 0; } \__global__ void Execute(Structure_A *output){ int thid=threadIdx.x; output[thid].p= (int*)malloc(thid+1); output[thid].num=(thid+1); output[thid].p[0]=5; } I can compile the program. But when I run it, I got a error showing that there is a invalid argument in the following memory copy function. "err=cudaMemcpy(p_cpu,output_cpu[0].p,sizeof(int),cudaMemcpyDeviceToHost);" CUDA version is 4.2. CUDA card: Tesla C2075 OS: x86_64 GNU/Linux

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  • counting unique values based on multiple columns

    - by gooogalizer
    I am working in google spreadsheets and I am trying to do some counting that takes into consideration cell values across multiple cells in each row. Here's my table: |AUTHOR| |ARTICLE| |VERSION| |PRE-SELECTED| ANDREW GOLF STREAM 1 X ANDREW GOLF STREAM 2 X ANDREW HURRICANES 1 JOHN CAPE COD 1 X JOHN GOLF STREAM 1 (Google doc here) Each person can submit multiple articles as well as multiple versions of the same article. Sometimes different people submit different articles that happen to be identically named (Andrew and John both submitted different articles called "Golf Stream"). Multiple versions written by the same person do not count as unique, but articles with the same title written by different people do count as unique. So, I am looking to find a formula that Counts the number of unique articles that have been submitted [4] (without having to manually create extra columns for doing CONCATS, if possible) It would also be great to find formulas that: Count the number of unique articles that have been pre-selected (marked "X" in "PRE-SELECTED" column) [2] Count the number of unique articles that have only 1 version [4] Count the number of unique articles that have more than 1 of their versions pre-selected 1 Thank you so much! Nikita

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  • java UnitilsException: Executed scripts table "PUBLIC"."DBMAINTAIN_SCRIPTS" doesn't exist yet or is invalid [closed]

    - by Philippe
    I want use Unitils for testing my JAVA program, i have following error message "UnitilsException: Executed scripts table "PUBLIC"."DBMAINTAIN_SCRIPTS" doesn't exist yet or is invalid" My table is into an DDL file, and table is not created Could you says me if dataSetStructureGenerator.xsd.dirName=src/test/resources/dataset-schema properties is still active in unitils 3.3 ? My EMPLOYEE table is not created and DBMAINTAIN_SCRIPTS not created too Where is my mistake ? My DDL file SET REFERENTIAL_INTEGRITY FALSE; SET DATABASE COLLATION "French"; SET SCHEMA PUBLIC; CREATE TABLE DBMAINTAIN_SCRIPTS (FILE_NAME VARCHAR2(150), FILE_LAST_MODIFIED_AT INTEGER, CHECKSUM VARCHAR2(50), EXECUTED_AT VARCHAR2(20), SUCCEEDED INTEGER); CREATE TABLE EMPLOYEES(ID IDENTITY NOT NULL,NAME VARCHAR(20),TITLE VARCHAR(20),SALARY DOUBLE,NI INTEGER NOT NULL) My unitils properties file # comments documenting these unitils configuration properties removed for # brevity. look for commenting in unitils-default.properties in the root of the # unitils jar if needed. unitils.modules=database,dbunit,easymock,inject unitils.module.hibernate.enabled=false unitils.module.spring.enabled=false # these placeholders are set in avaje.properties #gere la configuration DBUNIT database.driverClassName=org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver database.url=jdbc:hsqldb:mem:unitils-example database.schemaNames=PUBLIC database.userName=SA database.password= database.dialect=hsqldb # unitils will construct the test database using the ddl file found in this # directory dbMaintainer.fileScriptSource.scripts.location=src/main/resources updateDataBaseSchema.enabled=true sequenceUpdater.sequencevalue.lowestacceptable=100 dataSetStructureGenerator.xsd.dirName=src/test/resources/dataset-schema #dbMaintainer.autoCreateExecutedScriptsTable property to true

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  • Power Pivot - Average time per item

    - by Username
    I'm trying to calculate on average, how long it takes to make each item. Here is the data table: Date Item Quantity Operator 01/01/2014 Item1 3 John 01/01/2014 Item2 5 John 02/01/2014 Item1 7 Bob 02/01/2014 Item2 4 John 03/01/2014 Item1 2 Bob 07/01/2014 Item2 3 John On 01/01/2014 John made 3 of Item 1 and 5 of Item 2. If we only had the first 2 rows we can guess that it takes 0.375 days to make Item 1 and 0.625 days to make Item 2. I want to be able to calculate this on average using all the data and taking in to account the operators obviously working on different items. Thank you

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  • SAN shows as unallocated in Windows Server

    - by Gareth Ferneyhough
    Hello. We have a SAN drive that shows as unallocated in Windows Server 2008. I believe it is a raid 10 with 4+ disks. The disks are in good health. I think a server that we rebuilt tried to connect to the drive and re-initialized them, or re-wrote the partition table. (excuse my poor terminology). We ran TestDisk on the drive and it shows no partitions, so now we are doing a quick search (which is not so quick). Can anyone else suggest anything? Thanks, Gareth

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