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  • How to manipulate JavaScript

    - by bojanski
    Hello, I was wondering if there was any way to manipulate JavaScript execution on predetermined action on a certain website. Thus meaning if there will be an action on mouse hover, is there a way to bypass the Javascript execution? Thank you on your time, bojanski

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  • Form Search Onkeyup event

    - by Aryan
    I Have a Form In which the form should automatically search when i complete entering the 10th character in the text field but the below code is searching for each n every character i enter in the text field . . . I just want the result after completing the 10th character not for each n every character . . i have used onkeyup event and i set that value to 10 but still it is searching for each n every character... please do help me <body OnKeyPress="return disableKeyPress(event)"> <section id="content" class="container_12 clearfix" data-sort=true> <center><table class='dynamic styled with-prev-next' data-table-tools='{'display':true}' align=center> <script> function disableEnterKey(e) { var key; if(window.event) key = window.event.keyCode; //IE else key = e.which; //firefox return (key != 13); } function showUser(str) { if (str=="") { document.getElementById("txtHint").innerHTML=""; return; } if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { document.getElementById("txtHint").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; } } xmlhttp.open("GET","resdb.php?id="+str,true); xmlhttp.send(); } </script> <script type='text/javascript'> //<![CDATA[ $(window).load(function(){ $('#id').keyup(function(){ if(this.value.length ==10) }); });//]]> </script> <form id="form" method="post" name="form" > <tr><td><p align="center"><font size="3"><b>JNTUH - B.Tech IV Year II Semester (R07) Advance Supplementary Results - July 2012</b></font></p></td></tr> <td><p align="center"><b>Last Date for RC/RV : 8th August 2012</b></p></td> <tr><td><p align="center"></b> <input type="text" onkeyup="showUser(this.value)" onKeyPress="return disableEnterKey(event)" data-type="autocomplete" data-source="extras/autocomplete1.php" name="id" id="id" maxlength="10" placeholder=" Hall-Ticket Number">&emsp;</p></td></tr> </table> </center> </form> <center> <div id="txtHint"><b>Results will be displayed here</b></div> </center> </body>

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  • Disabled javascript for printing?

    - by Probocop
    This may seem a strange question, but is it possible to disable javascript for the printed version of a webpage? The reason being, it causes the printout's layout to all be on top of each other. But if I turn off javascript it works fine. Any ideas?

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  • How to delete a file with javascript?

    - by Tommy
    Did not have luck with these examples: Javascript File remove Javascript FSO DeleteFile Method Deleting a File There are no special permissions on the file. Is there a way to do this in JQuery? The requirement is - a certain file must be deleted from the web directory when another page is loaded. There is no security issue as this is on a closed network. Any help is appreciated. Thanks.

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  • How dangerous is e.preventDefault();, and can it be replaced by keydown/mousedown tracking?

    - by yc
    I'm working on a tracking script for a fairly sophisticated CRM for tracking form actions in Google Analytics. I'm trying to balance the desire to track form actions accurately with the need to never prevent a form from not working. Now, I know that doing something like this doesn't work. $('form').submit(function(){ _gaq.push('_trackEvent', 'Form', 'Submit', $(this).attr('action')) }); The DOM unloads before this has a chance to process. So, a lot of sample code recommends something like this: $('form').submit(function(e){ e.preventDefault(); var form = this; _gaq.push('_trackEvent', 'Form', 'Submit', $(this).attr('action')); //...do some other tracking stuff... setTimeout(function(){ form.submit(); }, 400); }); This is reliable in most cases, but it makes me nervous. What if something happens between e.preventDefault();and when I get around to triggering the DOM based submit? I've totally broken the form. I've been poking around some other analytics implementations, and I've noticed something like this: $('form').mousedown(function(){ _gaq.push('_trackEvent', 'Form', 'Submit', $(this).attr('action')); }); $('form').keydown(function(e){ if(e.which===13) //if the keydown is the enter key _gaq.push('_trackEvent', 'Form', 'Submit', $(this).attr('action')); }); Basically, instead of interrupting the form submit, preempting it by assuming that if someone is mousing down or keying down on Enter, than that form is submitted. Obviously, this will result in a certain amount of false positives, but it completely eliminates use of e.preventDefault();, which in my mind eliminates the risk that I might ever prevent a form from successfully submitting. So, my question: Is it possible to take the standard form tracking snippet and prevent it from ever fully preventing the form from submitting? Is the mousedown/keydown alternative viable? Are there any submission cases it may miss? Specifically, are there other ways to end up submitting besides the mouse and the keyboard enter? And will the browser always have time to process javascript before beginning to unload the page?

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  • Start javascript from asp.net page

    - by CruelIO
    Hi I have a usercontrol which includes some JavaScript, if I add the control to a standard web page I can start the JavaScript in the body tag, like this <body onLoad="Start()"> The problem is that I need to add the control to a webpage which is inside a masterpage, how do I then start the script when a page inside a masterpage doesn't have a body tag.

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  • howto create a new Date() in Javascript from a non-standard date format

    - by Michel
    hi, i have a date in this format : dd.mm.yyyy when i instantiate a javascript date with it, it gives me a NaN in c# i can specify a dateformat, to say: here you have my string, it's in this format, please make a Datetime of it. is this possible in javascript too, and if not, is there an easy way? i would prefer not to use a substring for day, substring for month etc. because my method must also be capable of german, italian, english etc dates.

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  • How can empty JavaScript function actually do something?

    - by OverTheRainbow
    Hello While trying to understand how a web server worked, I came accross this: //myfile.js function donothing(){}; //myfile.html javascript:donothing(open('http://www.acme.com/whatever.jpg','','left=100, right=0, top=100, scrollbars=no, status=no, titlebar=no, resizable=no, toolbar=no, menubar=no, width=255, height=255')) I'm no JavaScript expert, so I don't get how an empty function can be made to work. Does someone know? Thank you.

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  • Changing javascript confirm dialog box to bootstrap

    - by Scape Goat
    I already this something Here is the original code: <script type='text/javascript'> function delete_user( id ){ var answer = confirm('Are you sure?'); //if user clicked ok if ( answer ){ //redirect to url with action as delete and id to the record to be deleted window.location = 'delete.php?id=' + id; } } </script> How do I remove the old javascript confirm dialog box and replace it with bootstrap?

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  • Write a JavaScript that accepts a number from the user using the “prompt” function

    - by A sw A
    Write a JavaScript that accepts a number from the user using the “prompt” function. Then it draws a table in the HTML document that has the user specified number of rows and columns. In each table data, it displays the result of the math operation (row raised to the power of column). For example, if the user enters the number 3, the JavaScript should draw the following table: 1 1 1 2 4 8 3 9 27

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  • Scheduled task does not run on WIndows 2003 server on VMWare unattened, runs fine otherwise

    - by lnm
    Scheduled task does not run on Windows 2003 server on VMWare. The same setup runs fine on standalone server. Test below explains the problem. We really need to run a more complex bat file, but this shows the issue. I have a bat file that copies a file from server A to server B. I use full path name, no drive mapping. Runs fine on server B from command prompt. I created a task that runs this bat file under a domain id with password that is part of administrator group on both servers. Task runs fine from Scheduled task screen, and as a scheduled task as long as somebody is logged into the server. If nobody is logged in, the task does not run. There is no error message in Task Scheduler log, just an entry that the task started, bit no entry for finish or an error code. To add insult to injury, if the task copies a file in the opposite direction, from server B to server A, it runs fine as a scheduled unattended task. If I copy a file from server B to server B, the task also runs fine unattended, I recreated exactly the same setup on a standalone server. No issues at all. I checked obvious things like the task has "run only as logged in" unchecked, domain id has run as a batch job privilege and logon rights, Task Scheduler service runs as a local system, automatic start. Any suggestions?

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  • Referencing SQL Server 2008 R2 SMO from Visual Studio 2010

    - by user69508
    Hello. We read a number of things about referencing SQL Server SMO from Visual Studio but still don't have the definite answers we need. So, here it goes... A number of years ago we created a C# application using Visual Studio 2005 and SQL Server 2005. In that application, we added .NET references to a number of SQL Server SMO objects, and everything worked fine. Those references were: Microsoft.SqlServer.ConnectionInfo GAC 9.0.242.0 Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo GAC 9.0.242.0 Microsoft.SqlServer.SqlEnum GAC 9.0.242.0 We have now migrated to Visual Studio 2010 and SQL Server 2008 R2. However, when we try to reference those same SMO objects for SQL Server 2008 R2, they don't appear in the .NET references tab. We're wanting to reference the SQL Server 2008 R2 version of those same SMO assemblies for our upgraded C# application. On our development machines, we have SQL Server 2008 R2 Developer installed with all options, including the SDK such that the assemblies are found in C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft SQL Server\100\SDK\Assemblies. So, my first questions are: Are we supposed to do file references to the SMO assemblies instead of .NET references in Visual Studio 2010 w/ SQL Server 2008 R2? Or, is there some problem with our development machines such that the SMO assemblies are not appearing in the .NET references tab? Next, our production machines will have SQL Server 2008 R2 Workgroup installed with the client tools option selected, thus providing those same SMO assemblies in C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft SQL Server\100\SDK\Assemblies. So, the next questions are: When we release to production, are we supposed to redistribute the SMO assemblies with our application? Or, will our application work on the production servers without redistributing the SMO assemblies (since the client tools/SMO assemblies have been installed)? What else????? Thanks for the help!

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  • RDP or SSH connection trough Windows 2008 server VPN hang after a while

    - by xt4fs
    I have been experiencing a very strange issue with our VPN setup on Windows Server 2008. That server is running as a Xen Virtual Machine. We use it for two purposes, permit our mobile workers to connect to another server hosted somewhere else that only allow that ip, and use it to RDP or ssh to many other virtual machine on the same server. The server has no performance issue and still a load of memory free. All other virtual machine has no problem whatsoever. Many of those virtual machine have public IP (web servers) and all their firewall are set to allow only ssh connection or RDP connection from their local interface. When I am connecting directly with either ssh or RDP to one of the other virtual machine everything run without any issues. However, when I am doing so through the VPN after some time the connection just hang, it usually continue after some time (5 or 10 minutes). It seems as more there is network usage more often it happen to a point where it is completely unusable. The worst thing I can do to hang it faster is to actually ping the vpn client IP from the local network, after some time the latency increase until it hang. This happen even if I do RDP to the local ip of the VPN server trough the VPN. The server report no problem and if I disconnect to the vpn and reconnect right away everything is alright. There is nothing wrong in the VPN server log. I have taught at the beginning that it could have been an issue with the Host server so I try to RDP,ssh directly to the guest and I have experience no issue while doing this, so it really seems to be a problem with the VPN server on Windows server 2008. Another very weird thing is it does not seems to be of any issue if you only do Internet (NAT) without trying to connect to any local ips.

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  • SQL Server becomes slow after restart

    - by Tobi DM
    I already posted this one on stackoverflow but someone gave me the hint to that I might have more luck on serverfault. We use SQL Server 2005 on an Windwos Server 2008. Ther Server has 48 GB RAM. SQL Server is configured to use 40 GB RAM. There is only one database hosted (About 70 GB). The only app beside SQL Server is our App-Server which connects the clients to the database. Now we encounter the following problem: After a restart of the server our the performance is great. The server grabs the 40 GB RAM wich it is allowed to and then runs fast as hell. But after about 4 weeks the system becomes slower and slower. The execution of statements (seen in the profiler) is raising slowly. But I cannot see that there is something going wrong on the server. CPU usage is at about 20% I/O also seems to be no Problem The process monitor does also not show that there are strange apps or something like that. Eventlog does also have no interessting messages No open transactions or blockings to see We do not use cursors in our app We tried already the following things without effect: Droped the cache by using the statements DBCC FreeProcCache DBCC FREESYSTEMCACHE('ALL') DBCC DropCleanbuffers Restarted the Appserver we are using. Restart the sql server service But nothing did help exept restarting the whole server. Any ideas?

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  • File sharing problem on Windows Server 2003 x64

    - by O. Askari
    Hi, We have a customer that hosts our .NET application server on Windows Server 2003 x64. The problem is, its file sharing gets totally disabled after about 10-30 minutes. The only way to re-enable it is to restart the server but the same thing happens again after each restart. This server contains SQL Server 2005 Enterprise, .NET Framework 3.5 and our .NET based application server. We haven't had such a problem with any other customer before so we asked them to prepare another server to deploy our application on it. We installed our application server on the new machine and let SQL Server remain on the old one. Unfortunately the same problem happened to the new machine too. Now the old machine works only as database server and the new one works as application server but both of them have the same file sharing problem. File sharing on both machines doesn't get disabled on the same time but it eventually happens to both of them. I wonder why is this happening and how to find the reason to this problem. Any suggestion or solution is much appreciated.

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  • "Error 53" with local LAN machines after VPN session on server

    - by tim11g
    I have a Windows 2000 server with a Windows 7 client that occasionally gets "error 53" when accessing the server by name (net view \\server). It still works by IP address (net view \\192.168.0.1). The server's primary IP address (as shown in "routing and remote access" as "Gigabit Ethernet" is 192.168.0.1. There is also a secondary IP address shown as "Internal" which is 192.168.0.50 The server also supports VPN. When a VPN user connects, it gets an address in the range of 192.168.0.51 to .59. Normally (when there is no error), when the local LAN client runs "ping server", it resolves to 192.168.0.1. When the Error 53 problem happens, "ping server" resolves to 192.168.0.50. This problem seems to be related to when a user connects or has recently connected to the server VPN. Is there some connection between the VPN services on the server and the DNS services on the server that could cause a local LAN client to become confused about which IP address to use for the server? Or is there a misconfiguration in the VPN or DNS?

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