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  • Complexity of subset product

    - by threenplusone
    I have a set of numbers produced using the following formula with integers 0 < x < a. f(x) = f(x-1)^2 % a For example starting at 2 with a = 649. {2, 4, 16, 256, 636, 169, 5, 25, 649, 576, 137, ...} I am after a subset of these numbers that when multiplied together equals 1 mod N. I believe this problem by itself to be NP-complete (based on similaries to Subset-Sum problem). However starting with any integer (x) gives the same solution pattern. Eg. a = 649 {2, 4, 16, 256, 636, 169, 5, 25, 649, 576, 137, ...} = 16 * 5 * 576 = 1 % 649 {3, 9, 81, 71, 498, 86, 257, 500, 135, 53, 213, ...} = 81 * 257 * 53 = 1 % 649 {4, 16, 256, 636, 169, 5, 25, 649, 576, 137, 597, ...} = 256 * 25 * 137 = 1 % 649 I am wondering if this additional fact makes this problem solvable faster? Or if anyone has run into this problem previously or has any advice?

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  • Separation of business logic

    - by bruno
    When I was optimizing my architecture of our applications in our website, I came to a problem that I don't know the best solution for. Now at the moment we have a small dll based on this structure: Database <-> DAL <-> BLL the Dal uses Business Objects to pass to the BLL that will pass it to the applications that uses this dll. Only the BLL is public so any application that includes this dll, can see the bll. In the beginning, this was a good solution for our company. But when we are adding more and more applications on that Dll, the bigger the Bll is getting. Now we dont want that some applications can see Bll-logic from other applications. Now I don't know what the best solution is for that. The first thing I thought was, move and separate the bll to other dll's which i can include in my application. But then must the Dal be public, so the other dll's can get the data... and that I seems like a good solution. My other solution, is just to separate the bll in different namespaces, and just include only the namespaces you need in the applications. But in this solution, you can get directly access to other bll's if you want. So I'm asking for your opinions.

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  • Multithreading for loop while maintaining order

    - by David
    I started messing around with multithreading for a CPU intensive batch process I'm running. Essentially I'm trying to condense multiple single page tiffs into single PDF documents. This works fine with a foreach loop or standard iteration but can be very slow for several 100 page documents. I tried the following based on a some examples I found to use multithreading and it has significant performance improvements however it obliterates the page order instead of 1,2,3,4 it will be 1,3,4,2,6,5 on what thread completes first. My question is how would I utilize this technique while maintaining the page order and if I can will it negate the performance benefit of the multithreading? Thank you in advance. PdfDocument doc = new PdfDocument(); string mail = textBox1.Text; string[] split = mail.Split(new string[] { Environment.NewLine }, StringSplitOptions.None); int counter = split.Count(); // Source must be array or IList. var source = Enumerable.Range(0, 100000).ToArray(); // Partition the entire source array. var rangePartitioner = Partitioner.Create(0, counter); double[] results = new double[counter]; // Loop over the partitions in parallel. Parallel.ForEach(rangePartitioner, (range, loopState) => { // Loop over each range element without a delegate invocation. for (int i = range.Item1; i < range.Item2; i++) { f_prime = split[i].Replace(" " , ""); PdfPage page = doc.AddPage(); XGraphics gfx = XGraphics.FromPdfPage(page); XImage image = XImage.FromFile(f_prime); double x = 0; gfx.DrawImage(image, x, 0); } });

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  • Spring Controller redirect to another page

    - by user1386375
    Hey I got the following problem. This is the content of the jspx file: function postSMTH() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: document.getElementById("urltxt").value, data: parameters, }); } <input type="hidden" value="${pageContext.request.contextPath}/foo/foo2/foodat" name="urltxt" id="urltxt"/> <div class="foodat"><a href="javascript:postSMTH();"><spring:message code="foo_foo2_foodat_text" text="FOODAT"/></a></div> So if I push the submit button, the postSMTH function is called and the ajax object is paste to the Controller which look like this: @Controller @RequestMapping(value="/foo") public class FooController { .............. @RequestMapping(value="/foo2", method=RequestMethod.POST) public String homePOST(HttpServletRequest request) { ........ } @RequestMapping(value="/foo2", method=RequestMethod.GET) public String homeGET(HttpServletRequest request) { ........ } @RequestMapping(value="/foo2/foodat", method=RequestMethod.POST) public String doTHAT(HttpServletRequest request) { // check authorization Map fooMap = request.getParameterMap(); // do something in the Database, depending on the paramMap return "redirect:/foo/foo1"; } } Everything is working fine regarding the Database, but the Problem is, that the redirect at the end DOESN'T work. It just stays at the page foo2. I'm new to Spring, maybe its a little mistake somewhere. I just cant make it out by myself. Would be nice if someone would have some hint. Thanks

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  • Redirection Still not working (updated on earlier question)

    - by NoviceCoding
    So earlier I asked this question: JQuery Login Redirect. Code Included The php file is sending the following: $return['error'] = false; $return['msg'] = 'You have successfully logged in!!'; I've tried all the suggestions, quoting the error on php and ajax end, 2 equals instead of 3, I've also tried DNE true which should be the same as an else statement: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#submit').click(function() { $('#waiting').show(500); $('#empty').show(500); $('#reg').hide(0); $('#message').hide(0); $.ajax({ type : 'POST', url : 'logina.php', dataType : 'json', data: { type : $('#typeof').val(), login : $('#login').val(), pass : $('#pass').val(), }, success : function(data){ $('#waiting').hide(500); $('#empty').show(500); $('#message').removeClass().addClass((data.error === true) ? 'error' : 'success') .text(data.msg).show(500) if(data.error != true) window.location.replace("http://blahblah.com/usercp.php"); if (data.error === true) $('#reg').show(500); $('#empty').hide() }, error : function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { $('#waiting').hide(500); $('#message').removeClass().addClass('error') .text("There was an Error. Please try again.").show(500); $('#reg').show(500); $('#empty').hide(); Recaptcha.reload(); } }); return false; }); And it still wont work. Any ideas on how to make a redirection work if login is successful and error returns false? Also while I am asking, can I put a .delay(3000) 3s at the end of window.location.replace("http://blahblah.com/usercp.php")?

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  • IE8, XHTML, position: fixed; and z-index.

    - by Joel
    I have an XHTML 1.0 transitional Doctype. I have a <div> that is position: fixed; bottom: 0px; left: 0px; width: 100%; z-index: 200;. Inside that <div> I have two buttons which are position relative, aligned right, with a set z-index of 201; In Firefox the bar at the bottom and the two buttons are correctly located at the bottom. In IE8 however, the bar is visible and the z-index appears to be overlaying the other content, but the buttons are hidden behind the main div, despite being children and having their z-index set. I'm using the following meta tag; <meta http-equiv="X-UA-Compatible" content="IE=edge" /> to force the document into IE8 mode. If I emulate IE7 (put on compatability mode), the bar and buttons work just fine. I don't understand how IE7's rendering is better than IE8. I don't want to have to force compatability mode due to other things that IE7 cannot render and IE8 can. Is there another solution, or have I missed something? Thanks.

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  • javascript/html/php: Is it possible to insert a value into a form with Ajax?

    - by user1260310
    I have a form where users enter some text manually. Then I'd like to let the users choose a tag from a database through AJAX, not unlike how tag suggestions appear in the SO question form. While the div where the ajax call places the tag is inside the form, it does not seem to register and the tag is not picked up by the form. Am I missing something in my code, is this impossible or, if impossible there a better way to do this? Thanks for any suggestions. Here is code: html <form method="post" action="enterdata.php"> <input type="text" name="text">Enter text here. <div id="inserttags"></div><a href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="getTags()";>Get tags</a> <form type="button" name="submit" value="Enter Text and Tag"> </form> javascript getTags() { various Ajax goes here, then //following line inserts value into div of html document.getElementById("inserttags").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; // a bit more ajax, then following pulls tag from db xmlhttp.open("GET","findtags.php",true); xmlhttp.send(); } //end function php //gettags.php //first pull tag from db. Then: echo 'input type="text" name="tag" value= "html">Enter tag'; //above output gets inserted in div and is visible on page. Though the above output is visible on page, the form does not seem to pick it up when you click "Enter Text and Tag" to submit the form.

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  • JQuery to PHP function and back Ajaxed

    - by Xaris
    Hi all, i have a set of php function that i want to call on different events mostly onclick with jquery async (ajax). The first function is called on load $(document).ready(function() { $("#div2").hide('slow'); $("#div1").empty().html('<img src="ajax-loader.gif" />'); $.ajax( { type: "POST", url: "WebFunctions.php", data: {'func':'1'}, success: function(html) { $("#div1").show('slow').html(html) } }); The Data: {'func':'1'} -- is a switch statement on the php side switch($_POST['func']) { case '1': getParents(); break; case '2': getChilds(params); break; case '3': getChildObjects(params); break; default: } "This functions are calls to a soap server" <-- irrelevant. So when that function finishes i get an array which contains IDs and Names. I echo the names but i want the ID for reference so when i click on the echoed name i can call an other php function with parameter the ID of the name... How do i get rid of the switch statement?? How do i call properly php functions and pass params to it??? How can i save this IDs so when i click on an item with that id an other php function is called?? Plz feel free to ask any question, any answer is welcome :)

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  • Configuration Error , Finding assembly after I swapped referenced dll out. Visual Studio 2003

    - by TampaRich
    Here is the situation. I had a clean build of my asp.net web application working. I then went into the bin folder under the web app and replaced two referenced dll's with two older version of the same dll's. (Same name etc.) After testing I replaced those dll's back to the new ones and now my application keeps throwing the configuration error === Pre-bind state information === LOG: DisplayName = xxxxx.xxxx.Personalization (Partial) LOG: Appbase = file:///c:/inetpub/wwwroot/appname LOG: Initial PrivatePath = bin Calling assembly : (Unknown). LOG: Policy not being applied to reference at this time (private, custom, partial, or location-based assembly bind). I found this issue on the web and tried all the solutions to it but nothing worked. I then went into all my projects that it references under the solution and cleared out the bin/debug folder in each, I cleared out the obj folder under each and also deleted the temporary files associated with the application. I rebuilt it and it still will not work due to this error Not sure what is causing this or how to fix this issue. I have tried restarting IIS, stopping index services which was said to be a known issue. This is .net framework 1.1 app and visual studio 2003 Any suggestions would be great. Thanks.

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  • Solr return whether member is in multivalued field

    - by ??iu
    Is there any way to return in the fields list whether a value exists as one of the values of a multivalued field? E.g., if your schema is <schema> ... <field name="user_name" type="text" indexed="true" stored="true" required="true" /> <field name="follower" type="integer" indexed="true" stored="true" multiValued="true" /> ... </schema> A sample document might look like: <doc> <field name="user_name">tester blah</field> <field name="follower">1</field> <field name="follower">62</field> <field name="follower">63</field> <field name="follower">64</field> </doc> I would like to be able to query for, say, "tester" and follower:62 and have it match "tester blah" and have some indication of whether 62 is a follower or not in the results.

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  • Trying to move files with specific file names from root directory to a subfolder

    - by Justin Reagan
    Hi I'm still pretty new to powershell so I apologize if I ask something that extremely basic. I have a root directory on a tftp server that pulls down config files from routers and other equipment every night. The files are like this IPaddress_YYYYMMDD_TA5000. There is a limitation in the equipment where the files can't be set to move into the root directory on their own. What I want to do is make a powershell script that will only move the files with the TA5000 part in the filename to the sub directory and only keep the 5 most recent files. I looked but I couldn't seem to find what I would need to do to parse the file for that specific string. I already have the portion of the script to delete the files based on age that was simple. Any help on getting started would be appreciated. Edit: I forgot to post the code I was trying. Move-Item c:\tftptransferfiles c:\tftptransferfiles\sca | Where-Object {_.name -like "*TA5000*"} I keep getting a error saying that the item at C:\tftptransferfiles is in use.

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  • Why changing the images name on server results in calling the old ones?

    - by moderns
    I am running a slideshow on Ubuntu 12.04.1 that loads the images (slide1.jpg, slide2.jpg, slide3.jpg.., slide5.jpg) using the Javascript and styles as below: document.getElementById('slide_area').className='slide'+step; .slide1{background-image: url(../upload/slide1.jpg)} .slide2{background-image: url(../upload/slide2.jpg)} .slide3{background-image: url(../upload/slide3.jpg)} .slide4{background-image: url(../upload/slide4.jpg)} .slide5{background-image: url(../upload/slide5.jpg)} When I change the images names (show1.jpg, show2.jpg, show3.jpg.., show5.jpg) and also change the style as below: .slide1{background-image: url(../upload/show1.jpg)} .slide2{background-image: url(../upload/show2.jpg)} .slide3{background-image: url(../upload/show3.jpg)} .slide4{background-image: url(../upload/show4.jpg)} .slide5{background-image: url(../upload/show5.jpg)} And open the network section on Chrome, I see the server is calling the new name and old name for images! I added the header in the index.php: header("Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, max-age=0"); header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past header("Cache-Control: post-check=0, pre-check=0", false); header("Pragma: no-cache"); Nothing worked out with me and the slideshow doesn't work properly when I change the name of images even when clearing the browser cache as I load images sequentially (one by one) depending on imageObject.complete property! But without changing the name everything is going perfect and the images are loaded smoothly! Thank you for your help!

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  • XSLT: change node inner text.

    - by nabo
    I need to transform the following xml doc: <a> <b/> <c/> myText </a> into this: <a> <b/> <c/> differentText </a> So, i wrote this XSLT document <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="1.0"> <xsl:output method="xml" version="1.0" omit-xml-declaration="no" /> <xsl:template match="/a/text()"> <a> <b/> <c/> differentText </a> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> This way, i get the following result: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <a> <b /><c /> differentText </a> <a> <b /><c /> differentText </a> <a> <b /><c /> differentText </a> The result appears repeated 3 times because 3 matches are being done.. Why? I could i fix it? Thanks

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  • Writing a program which uses voice recogniton... where should I start?

    - by Katsideswide
    Hello! I'm a design student currently dabbling with Arduino code (based on c/c++) and flash AS3. What I want to do is to be able to write a program with a voice control input. So, program prompts user to spell a word. The user spells out the word. The program recognizes if this is right, adds one to a score if it's correct, and corrects the user if it's wrong. So I'm seeing a big list of words, each with an audio file of the word being read out, with the voice recognition part checking to see if the reply matches the input. Ideally i'd like to be able to interface this with an Arduino microcontroller so that a physical output with a motor could be achieved in reaction also. Thing is i'm not sure if I can make this program in flash, in Processing (associated with arduino) or if I need another CS3 program-making-program. I guess I need to download a good voice recognizing program, but how can I interface this with anything else? Also, I'm on a mac. (not sure if this makes a difference) I apologize for my cluelessness, any hints would be great! -Susan

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  • Querying using table-valued parameter

    - by antmx
    I need help please with writing a sproc, it takes a table-valued parameter @Locations, whose Type is defined as follows: CREATE TYPE [dbo].[tvpLocation] AS TABLE( [CountryId] [int] NULL, [ResortName] [nvarchar](100) NULL, [Ordinal] [int] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Ordinal] ASC )WITH (IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF) ) @Locations will contain at least 1 row. Each row WILL have a non-null CountryId, and MAY have a non-null ResortName. Each row will have a unique Ordinal, the first being 0. The combinations of CountryId and ResortName in @Locations will be unique. The sproc needs to search against the following table structure. The image can be seen better by right-clicking it and View Image, or similar depending on your browser. Now this is where I'm stuck, the sproc should be able to find Tours where: The Tour's 1st TourHotel (Ordinal 0) has the same CountryId (and ResortName if specified) of the 1st row of @Locations (Ordinal 0). And also if @Locations has 1 row, the Tour must have additional TourHotels, ALL of which must be in the remaining CountryIds (and ResortNames if specified) of these remaining @Locations rows. Edit This is the code I finally used, based on Anthony Faull's suggestion. Thank you so much Anthony: select distinct T.Id from tblTour T join tblTourHotel TH on TH.TourId = T.Id join tblHotel H ON H.Id = TH.HotelId JOIN @Locations L ON ( ( L.Ordinal = 0 AND TH.Ordinal = 0 ) OR ( L.Ordinal > 0 AND TH.Ordinal > 0 ) ) AND L.CountryId = H.CountryId AND ( L.ResortName = H.ResortName OR L.ResortName IS NULL ) cross apply( select COUNT(TH2.Id) AS [Count] FROM tblTourHotel TH2 where TH2.TourId = TH.TourId ) TourHotelCount where TourHotelCount.[Count] = @LocationCount group by T.Id, T.TourRef, T.Description, T.DepartureDate, T.NumNights, T.DepartureAirportId, T.DestinationAirportId, T.AirlineId, T.FEPrice having COUNT(distinct TH.Id) = @LocationCount

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  • Show/hide rows with jquery

    - by Mike
    Hi I am using some modified code from another post. Basically I want to switch between showing 10 rows of a table to showing all rows (50 for example). I have got it to show from 10 rows to all, however what I need to do now is code it so that if I click the div again it toggles or resets back to showing 10 rows. <script type="text/javascript"> var numShown = 10; // Initial rows shown & index var numRows = $('tbody').find('tr').length; var numLeft = numRows - numShown; $(document).ready(function(){ // Hide rows and add clickable div $('tbody') .find('tr:gt(' + (numShown - 1) + ')').hide().end() $('#table_wrapper').after('<div id="more">Show all offers <span>(' + numLeft + ' more)</span></div>'); $('#more').click(function(){ numShown = numShown + numRows; // 7 + 1 = 8 $('tbody').find('tr:lt('+numShown+')').show(); $("#more").html("Show top 10 offers"); }) }) </script>

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  • Issue with ko.observableArray

    - by user1574860
    I am using Knockout plugin. The following is my code. In this i am making getting the ceremony list from the server and then save that list in the array. But the problem is in IniitialCallForCeremonies(). The array is not initializing with the returned array from IniitialCallForCeremonies() function. function CeremonyViewModel() { var self = this; self.Ceremonies = ko.observableArray(InitialCallForCeremonies()); } $(document).ready(function () { ko.applyBindings(new CeremonyViewModel()); }); function InitialCallForCeremonies() { var request = $.ajax({ url: "address", type: "GET", async: false, dataType: "JSON" }).success(function (data) { var tempArray = new Array(); $.each(data, function (index, value) { tempArray.push(new Ceremony(value)); }); return tempArray; }); } function Ceremony(val) { this.Id = val.Id; this.Event = val.Event; this.Date = val.Date; this.Guest = val.Guest; }

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  • Creating a timesheet for work using PHP MySQL

    - by Justin
    I am trying to create a time-sheet for my work. I don't know if getting myself into a lot of work by doing this as I am quiet new to PHP and MYSQL but I do have a good understanding/knowledge of the two. I want the below fields in my database. Job weekPeriod ------A list of weeks Monday Sunday dateWorked ------List Of dates in the form coming from a database e.g. 1/1/2011 startTime ------List of times from 12:00am11:00pm 30 min intervals e.g. 11:30-12:30 endTime ------List of times from 12:00am11:00pm 30 min intervals e.g. 11:30-12:30 totalHours ------Automated amount ------Automated based on dayWorked comments ------Any messages here I want to be able to fill in some drop down boxes through a form that will then submit all information to my database. I want the script to know that if the date worked is on a Weekday Mon-Fri e.g. my rate of pay is 30.00ph On a sat it is 35.00ph and on a Sunday it is 40ph I then want to create a page where i select a particular week and see how many hours i worked and how much i earn and so on. Please let me know if there is such a program already established or if this is something that requires a bit of time and if I could do it being new to PHP and MYSQL

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  • Detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on Windows Phone 7

    - by David_001
    Simple question: How do I detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on windows mobile 7? Is there an event I can add a listener to? It takes up about half the screen and I want to scroll the view up when it gets displayed... EDIT: A comment below indicates more clearly what I'm trying to do: I have a textbox input, and as the user types into it an autocomplete dropdown appears below it (like google suggest). By default, the active control (the textbox) scrolls into view when focussed, and the onscreen keyboard is directly below it. The onscreen keyboard appears in front of my autocomplete dropdown - what I want to do is make the screen scroll a little further up, so there's some room for my dropdown to be shown. The windows phone UI design guidelines say: "When the keyboard is deployed, the application should scroll to ensure the active edit control and the caret are in view". This happens fine, it's just the non-active dropdown gets hidden behind the onscreen keyboard. The guidelines also say that an application can choose to show the onscreen keyboard, and can also choose to close it. At the moment i'm stuck, and I don't think (based on my research and the replies to this question) that it's possible to detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed. I'm moving my investigation to see if it's possible to determine the "visible area" of the page (width & height in pixels for example), and combine this with an onfocus for the textbox... not sure if this will prove fruitful though.

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  • Dealloc'd Predicate crashing iPhone App!

    - by DVG
    To preface, this is a follow up to an inquiry made a few days ago: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2981803/iphone-app-crashes-when-merging-managed-object-contexts Short Version: EXC_BAD_ACCESS is crashing my app, and zombie-mode revealed the culprit to be my predicate embedded within the fetch request embedded in my Fetched Results Controller. How does an object within an object get released without an explicit command to do so? Long Version: Application Structure Platforms View Controller - Games View Controller (Predicated upon platform selection) - Add Game View Controller When a row gets clicked on the Platforms view, it sets an instance variable in Games View for that platform, then the Games Fetched Results Controller builds a fetch request in the normal way: - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController{ if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } //build the fetch request for Games NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Game" inManagedObjectContext:context]; [request setEntity:entity]; //predicate NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"platform == %@", selectedPlatform]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; //sort based on name NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"name" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; //fetch and build fetched results controller NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:context sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; [predicate release]; [request release]; [aFetchedResultsController release]; return fetchedResultsController; } At the end of this method, the fetchedResultsController's _fetch_request - _predicate member is set to an NSComparisonPredicate object. All is well in the world. By the time - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section gets called, the _predicate is now a Zombie, which will eventually crash the application when the table attempts to update itself. I'm more or less flummoxed. I'm not releasing the fetched results controller or any of it's parts, and the only part getting dealloc'd is the predicate. Any ideas?

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  • How to call a method after asynchronous task is complete

    - by doctordoder
    I have a class called WikiWebView which is a subclass of UIWebView which loads Wikipedia subjects and is designed to fetch all the links of the webpage, in order to create a sort of site map for the subject. My problem is that I can only create the links once the web page has loaded, but the loading isn't done right after [self loadRequest:requestObj] is called. - (void)loadSubject:(NSString *)subject { // load the actual webpage NSString *wiki = @"http://www.wikipedia.org/wiki/"; NSString *fullURL = [wiki stringByAppendingString:subject]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:fullURL]; NSURLRequest *requestObj = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [self loadRequest:requestObj]; // [self createLinks]; // need this to be called after the view has loaded } - (void)createLinks { NSString *javascript = @"var string = \"\";" "var arr = document.getElementsByClassName(\"mw-redirect\");" "for (var i = 0; i < arr.length; ++i)" "{" "var redirectLink = arr[i].href;" "string = string + redirectLink + \" \";" "}" "string;"; NSString *links = [self stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString:javascript]; self.links = [links componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; } I tried the normal delegation technique, which lead to this code being added: - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { self.delegate = self; // weird } return self; } #pragma mark - UIWebViewDelegate - (void)webViewDidStartLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { ++_numProcesses; } - (void)webView:(UIWebView *)webView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error { --_numProcesses; } - (void)webViewDidFinishLoad:(UIWebView *)webView { --_numProcesses; if (_numProcesses == 0) { [self createLinks]; } } However, the delegate methods are never called.. I've seen similar questions where the answers are to use blocks, but how would I do that in this case?

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  • disable .click function on an anchor in jquery

    - by user554014
    This is written in an external .js with jquery... I have two windows that slide in and out of view like: $(document).ready(function() { // hides gallery1 as soon as the DOM is ready $('#gallery1').hide(); // shows the menu on click $('#showgal1').click(function() { $('#gallery1').delay(490).show('slide', {direction:'left'}); $('#gallery2').hide('slide', {direction:'right'}); //need code to disable showgal1 and enable showgal2 }); $('#showgal2').click(function() { $('#gallery2').delay(490).show('slide', {direction:'right'}); $('#gallery1').hide('slide', {direction:'left'}); //need code to disable showgal2 and enable showgal1 }); }); 'gallery1' and 'gallery2' are DIV's with flash image galleries and 'showgal1' and 'showgal2' are id's of anchors... looks like <a href="#" id="showgal1">gallery 1</a> I cannot find a way to disable the .click function when one is clicked and re-enable the other... i want to disable 'showgal1' by default and when 'showgal2' event takes place it removes the attribute and makes 'showgal2' disabled until 'showgal1' is clicked... the .attr('disabled','disabled') hasn't worked yet...

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  • Prevent empty form input array from being posted?

    - by user355295
    Sorry if this has been answered somewhere; I'm not quite sure how to phrase the problem to even look for help. Anyway, I have a form with three text input boxes, where the user will input three song titles. I have simple PHP set up to treat those input boxes as an array (because I may want, say, 100 song titles in the future) and write the song titles to another document. <form method="post"> <input type="text" name="songs[]" value="" /> <input type="text" name="songs[]" value="" /> <input type="text" name="songs[]" value="" /> <button type="submit" name="submit" value="submit">Submit</button> </form> <?php if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { $open = fopen("test.html", "w"); if(empty($_POST['songs'])) { } else { $songs = $_POST['songs']; foreach($songs as $song) { fwrite($open, $song."<br />"); }; }; }; ?> This correctly writes the song titles to an external file. However, even when the input boxes are empty, the external file will still be written to (just with the <br />'s). I'd assumed that the if statement would ensure nothing would happen if the boxes were blank, but that's obviously not the case. I guess the array's not really empty like I thought it was, but I'm not really sure what implications that comes with. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? (And again, I am clueless when it comes to PHP, so forgive me if this has been answered a million times before, if I described it horribly, etc.)

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  • PHP Sort Array By SubArray Value

    - by Sjwdavies
    I've got the following structue of array: Array ( [0] => Array ( [configuration_id] => 10 [id] => 1 [optionNumber] => 3 [optionActive] => 1 [lastUpdated] => 2010-03-17 15:44:12 ) [1] => Array ( [configuration_id] => 9 [id] => 1 [optionNumber] => 2 [optionActive] => 1 [lastUpdated] => 2010-03-17 15:44:12 ) [2] => Array ( [configuration_id] => 8 [id] => 1 [optionNumber] => 1 [optionActive] => 1 [lastUpdated] => 2010-03-17 15:44:12 ) ) What's the best way for order the array, in an incremental way based on the optionNumber? So the results look like: Array ( [0] => Array ( [configuration_id] => 8 [id] => 1 [optionNumber] => 1 [optionActive] => 1 [lastUpdated] => 2010-03-17 15:44:12 ) [1] => Array ( [configuration_id] => 9 [id] => 1 [optionNumber] => 2 [optionActive] => 1 [lastUpdated] => 2010-03-17 15:44:12 ) [2] => Array ( [configuration_id] => 10 [id] => 1 [optionNumber] => 3 [optionActive] => 1 [lastUpdated] => 2010-03-17 15:44:12 ) )

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  • c++ simple conditional logging

    - by Sunny
    Disclaimer: I'm not a c++ developer, I can only do basic things. (I understand pointers, just my knowledge is so rusty, I haven't touch c/c++ for about 20 years :) ) The setup: I have an Outlook addin, written in C#/.Net 1.1. It uses a c++ shim to load. Usually, this works pretty well, and I use in my c# code nlog for logging purposes. But sometimes, the addin fails to load, i.t. it does not hit the managed code at all for me to be able to investigate the problem from the log files. So, I need to hook some basic logging into the c++ shim - just writing in a file. I need to make it as simple as possible for our users to enable. Actually I would prefer not to ship it by default. I was thinking about something, which will check if a specific dll is present (the logging dll), and if so, to use it. Otherwise, it will just not log anything. That way, when I have a user with such a problems, I can send him only the logging dll, the user will save it in the runtime directory, and I'll have the file. I guess this have to be done with some form a factory solution, which returns either a dummy logger, or if the dll is found, a real one. Another option would be to make some simple logger, and rebuild the shim with or w/o using it, based on directives. This is not the desirable approach, because the shim needs to be signed, and I have to instruct the user to make a backup copy of the "real" one, then restore when done, etc., instead of just saving and deleting a dll. I'd appreciate any good suggestion how to approach it, together with links or sample code how to go after this. Cheers

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