Search Results

Search found 65028 results on 2602 pages for 'two way object databindin'.

Page 127/2602 | < Previous Page | 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134  | Next Page >

• Two AJAX asynchronus GET call: Only one get the xml file

  - by Woho87

  Hi! I have two AJAX GET calls that are set to asynchcronus = true; I want to obtain two XML files on my server. The two AJAX calls and rendering are defined in function foo & koo. And are called simultaneously. function foo(){ var xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xmlhttp.readyState == 4 && xmlhttp.status == 200){ var xmlDoc = xmlhttp.responseXML; //Do something } } xmlhttp.open('get', 'url', true); xmlhttp.send(); } function koo(){ //Almost the same as function foo } foo(); koo(); I've noticed that inside the if statement in the first function call(foo), the code their will never compile. While in the second function call(koo). The code inside the if statement can be compiled. If I set both asynchronus to false, then there is no problem at all. If I remove the second function call(koo) from the code, than the code inside the if statement can be compiled. What can I do to have both asynchronus AJAX calls?

  Read the article

• Array to Array pushing in Zend Session object

  - by kate-koopy

  Hello! I have some example of pushing array to array in session object: class someClass extends someOtherOne { ...////// some other code here that starts session and creates namespace public function __add2Session($a,$b) { $namespc = $this -> __getnewNameSpace(); //returns a Zend Session Namesapce (object) if (!isset($namespc -> {$a})) { $namespc -> {$a} = array(); } array_push($namespc -> {$a}, $b); } } ...///////////// $item=array(1=>"one",2=>"two",3=>"three",4=>"four",5=>"five",6=>"six",7=>"seven"); $k = new someClass(); $cart = new Zend_Session_Namespace('Cart'); $k -> __add2Session("items",$item); The result is when I reload the page several times - the value of $cart -> items in the session gets overwritten and not populated. Can somebody explain why it occurs and how do I fix this? I want to have $cart -> items to be an "array in array" like: $cart -> items = array(array(1=>"one",2=>"two"), array(1=>"two",2=>"three"));

  Read the article

• Fast find object by string property

  - by Andrew Kalashnikov

  Hello, colleagues. I've got task to fast find object by its string property. Object: class DicDomain { public virtual string Id{ get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } For storing my object I use List[T] dictionary where T is DicDomain for now . I've got 5-10 such lists, which contain about 500-20000 at each one. Task is find objects by its Name. I use next code now: List<T> entities = dictionary.FindAll(s => s.Name.Equals(word, StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)); I've got some questions: Is my search speed optimal. I think now. Data structure. It List good for this task. What about hashtable,sorted... Method Find. May be i should use string intern?? I haven't much exp at these tasks. Can u give me good advice for increase perfomance. Thanks

  Read the article

• PHP Object Creation and Memory Usage

  - by JohnO

  A basic dummy class: class foo { var $bar = 0; function foo() {} function boo() {} } echo memory_get_usage(); echo "\n"; $foo = new foo(); echo memory_get_usage(); echo "\n"; unset($foo); echo memory_get_usage(); echo "\n"; $foo = null; echo memory_get_usage(); echo "\n"; Outputs: $ php test.php 353672 353792 353792 353792 Now, I know that PHP docs say that memory won't be freed until it is needed (hitting the ceiling). However, I wrote this up as a small test, because I've got a much longer task, using a much bigger object, with many instances of that object. And the memory just climbs, eventually running out and stopping execution. Even though these large objects do take up memory, since I destroy them after I'm done with each one (serially), it should not run out of memory (unless a single object exhausts the entire space for memory, which is not the case). Thoughts?

  Read the article

• Combining two queries on same table

  - by user1830856

  I've looked through several previous questions but I am struggling to apply the solutions to my specific example. I am having trouble combining query 1 and query 2. My query originally returned (amongst other details) the values "SpentTotal" and "UnderSpent" for all members/users for the current month. My issue has been adding two additional columns to this original quert that will return JUST these two columns (Spent and Overspent) but for the previous months data Original Query #1: set @BPlanKey = '##CURRENTMONTH##' EXECUTE @RC = Minimum_UpdateForPeriod @BPlanKey SELECT cm.clubaccountnumber, bp.Description , msh.PeriodMinObligation, msh.SpentTotal, msh.UnderSpent, msh.OverSpent, msh.BilledDate, msh.PeriodStartDate, msh.PeriodEndDate, msh.OverSpent FROM MinimumSpendHistory msh INNER JOIN BillPlanMinimums bpm ON msh.BillingPeriodKey = @BPlanKey and bpm.BillPlanMinimumKey = msh.BillPlanMinimumKey INNER JOIN BillPlans bp ON bp.BillPlanKey = bpm.BillPlanKey INNER JOIN ClubMembers cm ON cm.parentmemberkey is null and cm.ClubMemberKey = msh.ClubMemberKey order by cm.clubaccountnumber asc, msh.BilledDate asc Query #2, query of all columns for PREVIOUS month, but I only need two (spent and over spent), added to the query from above, joined on the customer number: set @BPlanKeyLastMo = '##PREVMONTH##' EXECUTE @RCLastMo = Minimum_UpdateForPeriod @BPlanKeyLastMo SELECT cm.clubaccountnumber, bp.Description , msh.PeriodMinObligation, msh.SpentTotal, msh.UnderSpent, msh.OverSpent, msh.BilledDate, msh.PeriodStartDate, msh.PeriodEndDate, msh.OverSpent FROM MinimumSpendHistory msh INNER JOIN BillPlanMinimums bpm ON msh.BillingPeriodKey = @BPlanKeyLastMo and bpm.BillPlanMinimumKey = msh.BillPlanMinimumKey INNER JOIN BillPlans bp ON bp.BillPlanKey = bpm.BillPlanKey INNER JOIN ClubMembers cm ON cm.parentmemberkey is null and cm.ClubMemberKey = msh.ClubMemberKey order by cm.clubaccountnumber asc, msh.BilledDate asc Big thank you to any and all that are willing to lend their help and time. Cheers! AJ CREATE TABLE MinimumSpendHistory( [MinimumSpendHistoryKey] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [BillPlanMinimumKey] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [ClubMemberKey] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [BillingPeriodKey] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [PeriodStartDate] [datetime] NOT NULL, [PeriodEndDate] [datetime] NOT NULL, [PeriodMinObligation] [money] NOT NULL, [SpentTotal] [money] NOT NULL, [CurrentSpent] [money] NOT NULL, [OverSpent] [money] NULL, [UnderSpent] [money] NULL, [BilledAmount] [money] NOT NULL, [BilledDate] [datetime] NOT NULL, [PriorPeriodMinimum] [money] NULL, [IsCommitted] [bit] NOT NULL, [IsCalculated] [bit] NOT NULL, [BillPeriodMinimumKey] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [CarryForwardCounter] [smallint] NULL, [YTDSpent] [money] NOT NULL, [PeriodToAccumulateCounter] [int] NULL, [StartDate] [datetime] NOT NULL,

  Read the article

• "Invalid Object Format Name" in Crystal Reports

  - by cmays90

  When working with Crystal Report Field Objects and attempting to set "EnableSuppress" to False or alter the position or width of a field object is generating an "Invalid Object Format Name" error. The debugger shows all my code running without error until attempting to actually load the report. At that point, it will run the first couple without problem, then it fails when messing with a field object, and none of the rest will run. The code is shown below. Everything that generates an error is a FieldObject, but not all fieldObjects generate errors. In the code below, everything in Section2 is a TextObject and everything in Section3 is a FieldObject. If condition = True Then 'Lines marked as runs ok, only run when a line that generates an error is not present before it. Report.Section2.ReportObjects("Text7").Left = 7830 'Runs ok Report.Section3.ReportObjects("Field4").Left = 8085 'Runs ok Report.Section2.ReportObjects("Text13").ObjectFormat.EnableSuppress = False 'Runs ok Report.Section3.ReportObjects("Field28").ObjectFormat.EnableSuppress = False 'error Report.Section2.ReportObjects("Text9").Left = 10830 'Runs ok Report.Section3.ReportObjects("Field23").Left = 10830 'error Report.Section3.ReportObjects("Field23").Width = 615 'error Report.Section2.ReportObjects("Text10").Left = 11445 'Runs ok Report.Section3.ReportObjects("Field25").Left = 11445 'Runs ok End If

  Read the article

• calling a function from a set of overloads depending on the dynamic type of an object

  - by Jasper

  I feel like the answer to this question is really simple, but I really am having trouble finding it. So here goes: Suppose you have the following classes: class Base; class Child : public Base; class Displayer { public: Displayer(Base* element); Displayer(Child* element); } Additionally, I have a Base* object which might point to either an instance of the class Base or an instance of the class Child. Now I want to create a Displayer based on the element pointed to by object, however, I want to pick the right version of the constructor. As I currently have it, this would accomplish just that (I am being a bit fuzzy with my C++ here, but I think this the clearest way) object->createDisplayer(); virtual void Base::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } virtual void Child::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } This works, however, there is a problem with this: Base and Child are part of the application system, while Displayer is part of the GUI system. I want to build the GUI system independently of the Application system, so that it is easy to replace the GUI. This means that Base and Child should not know about Displayer. However, I do not know how I can achieve this without letting the Application classes know about the GUI. Am I missing something very obvious or am I trying something that is not possible?

  Read the article

• Passing C++ object to C++ code through Python?

  - by cornail

  Hi all, I have written some physics simulation code in C++ and parsing the input text files is a bottleneck of it. As one of the input parameters, the user has to specify a math function which will be evaluated many times at run-time. The C++ code has some pre-defined function classes for this (they are actually quite complex on the math side) and some limited parsing capability but I am not satisfied with this construction at all. What I need is that both the algorithm and the function evaluation remain speedy, so it is advantageous to keep them both as compiled code (and preferrably, the math functions as C++ function objects). However I thought of glueing the whole simulation together with Python: the user could specify the input parameters in a Python script, while also implementing storage, visualization of the results (matplotlib) and GUI, too, in Python. I know that most of the time, exposing C++ classes can be done, e.g. with SWIG but I still have a question concerning the parsing of the user defined math function in Python: Is it possible to somehow to construct a C++ function object in Python and pass it to the C++ algorithm? E.g. when I call f = WrappedCPPGaussianFunctionClass(sigma=0.5) WrappedCPPAlgorithm(f) in Python, it would return a pointer to a C++ object which would then be passed to a C++ routine requiring such a pointer, or something similar... (don't ask me about memory management in this case, though :S) The point is that no callback should be made to Python code in the algorithm. Later I would like to extend this example to also do some simple expression parsing on the Python side, such as sum or product of functions, and return some compound, parse-tree like C++ object but let's stay at the basics for now. Sorry for the long post and thx for the suggestions in advance.

  Read the article

• Segmentation fault on instationation of more than 1 object

  - by ECE

  I have a class called "Vertex.hpp" which is as follows: #include <iostream> #include "Edge.hpp" #include <vector> using namespace std; /** A class, instances of which are nodes in an HCTree. */ class Vertex { public: Vertex(char * str){ *name=*str; } vector<Vertex*> adjecency_list; vector<Edge*> edge_weights; char *name; }; #endif When I instantiate an object of type Vector as follows: Vertex *first_read; Vertex *second_read; in.getline(input,256); str=strtok(input," "); first_read->name=str; str=strtok(NULL, " "); second_read->name=str; A segmentation fault occurs when more than 1 object of type Vector is instantiated. Why would this occur if more than 1 object is instantiated, and how can i allow multiple objects to be instantiated?

  Read the article

• C# WCF and Object Inheritence

  - by Michael Edwards

  I have the following setup of two classes: [SerializableAttribute] public class ParentData{ [DataMember] public string Title{get;set;} } [DataContract] public class ChildData : ParentData{ [DataMember] public string Abstract{get;set;} } These two classes are served through a WCF service. However I only want the service to expose the ChildData class to the end user but pull the marked up DataMember properties from the parent. E.g. The consuming client would have a stub class that looked like: public class ChildData{ public string Title{get;set;} public string Abstract{get;set;} } If I uses the parent and child classes as above the stub class only contains the Abstract property. I have looked at using the KnownType attribute on the ChildData class like so: [DataContract] [KnownType(typeOf(ParentData)] public class ChildData : ParentData{ [DataMember] public string Abstract{get;set;} } However this didn't work. I then applied the DataContract attribute to the ParentData class, however this then creates two stub classes in the client application which I don't want. Is there any way to tell the serializer that it should flatten the inheritance to that of the sub-class i.e. ChildData

  Read the article

• Objective C Naming Convention for an object that owns itself

  - by Ed Marty

  With the latest releases of XCode that contain static analyzers, some of my objects are throwing getting analyzer issues reported. Specifically, I have an object that owns itself and is responsible for releasing itself, but should also be returned to the caller and possibly retained there manually. If I have a method like + (Foo) newFoo the analyzer sees the word New and reports an issue in the caller saying that newFoo is expected to return an object with retain +1, and it isn't being released anywhere. If I name it + (Foo) getFoo the analyzer reports an issue in that method, saying there's a potential leak because it's not deallocated before returning. My class basically looks like this: + (Foo *) newFoo { Foo *myFoo = [[[Foo new] retain] autorelease]; [myFoo performSelectorInBackground:@selector(bar) withObject:nil]; return myFoo; } - (void) bar { //Do something that might take awhile [self release]; } The object owns itself and when its done, will release itself, but there's nowhere that it's being stored, so the static analyzer sees it as a leak somewhere. Is there some naming or coding convention to help?

  Read the article

• Filtering two arrays to avoid Inf/NaN values

  - by Gacek

  I have two arrays of doubles of the same size, containg X and Y values for some plots. I need to create some kind of protection against Inf/NaN values. I need to find all that pairs of values (X, Y) for which both, X and Y are not Inf nor NaN If I have one array, I can do it using lambdas: var filteredValues = someValues.Where(d=> !(double.IsNaN(d) || double.IsInfinity(d))).ToList(); Now, for two arrays I use following loop: List<double> filteredX=new List<double>(); List<double> filteredX=new List<double>(); for(int i=0;i<XValues.Count;i++) { if(!double.IsNan(XValues[i]) && !double.IsInfinity(XValues[i]) && !double.IsNan(YValues[i]) && !double.IsInfinity(YValues[i]) ) { filteredX.Add(XValues[i]); filteredY.Add(YValues[i]); } } Is there any way of filtering two arrays at the same time using LINQ/Lambdas, as it was done for single array?

  Read the article

• Assigning Object to View, big MySQL resultset.

  - by A Finn

  Hello (Sorry for my bad English) Is it bad practice to assign object to view and call its methods in there? I use smarty as my template engine. In my controller I could do like this 1# $this->view->assign("name", $this->model->getName); and in my view <p>{$name}</p> OR 2# $this->view->assign("Object", $this->model); and in my view <p>{$Report->getName()}</p> Well my biggest problem is that I have to handle a big amount of data coming out from the MySQL and I thought that if I would made a method that would print out the data while looping mysql_fetch_row. Well at least I know that using html-tags in the model is a bad thing to do. So I would assign the object to the view to get the result to the right position on the page.. Reading a mysql-result to an array first may cause memory problems am I right? So what is the solution doing things MVC style.. And yes Im using a framework of my own.

  Read the article

• get_bookmarks() object doesn't return link_category

  - by ninja

  I'm trying to fetch all link-categories from the built in Wordpress linklist (or bookmarks if you will). To do this, I simply stored all links in a variable like this: <?php $lists = get_bookmarks(); foreach($lists as $list) { $cats[] = $list->link_category; } ?> To my surprise even var_dump'ing $cats gave me "String(0)", so I var_dump'ed out $lists instead, and it gave me this: array(8) { [0]=> object(stdClass)#5126 (13) { ["link_id"]=> string(1) "1" ["link_url"]=> string(27) "http://codex.wordpress.org/" ["link_name"]=> string(13) "Documentation" ["link_image"]=> string(0) "" ["link_target"]=> string(0) "" ["link_description"]=> string(0) "" ["link_visible"]=> string(1) "Y" ["link_owner"]=> string(1) "1" ["link_rating"]=> string(1) "0" ["link_updated"]=> string(19) "0000-00-00 00:00:00" ["link_rel"]=> string(0) "" ["link_notes"]=> string(0) "" ["link_rss"]=> string(0) "" } Now, codex.wordpress.org is a default link that comes with wordpress, it's in a category called "Linklist", and as you can see, the object contains everything about that link, EXCEPT the categoryname. According to the codex this object should contain a field named "link_category", so I'm getting confused here. Am I missing something? Is the function broke? Regards NINJA

  Read the article

• What does an object look like in memory?

  - by NeilMonday

  This is probably a really dumb question, but I will ask anyway. I am curious what an object looks like in memory. Obviously it would have to have all of its member data in it. I assume that functions for an object would not be duplicated in memory (or maybe I am wrong?). It would seem wasteful to have 999 objects in memory all with the same function defined over and over. If there is only 1 function in memory for all 999 objects, then how does each function know who's member data to modify (I specifically want to know at the low level). Is there an object pointer that gets sent to the function behind the scenes? Perhaps it is different for every compiler? Also, how does the static keyword affect this? With static member data, I would think that all 999 objects would use the exact same memory location for their static member data. Where does this get stored? Static functions I guess would also just be one place in memory, and would not have to interact with instantiated objects, which I think I understand.

  Read the article

• How to check if a child-object is populated

  - by TheQ

  How can i check if a child-object of a linq-object is populated or not? Example code below. My model have two methods, one joins data, and the other does not: public static Member GetMemberWithPhoto(Guid memberId) { using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { DataLoadOptions dataLoadOptions = new DataLoadOptions(); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Member>(x => x.UserPhoto); db.LoadOptions = dataLoadOptions; var query = from x in db.Members where x.MemberId == memberId select x; return query.FirstOrDefault(); } } public static Member GetMember(Guid memberId) { using (DataContext db = new DataContext()) { var query = from x in db.Members where x.MemberId == memberId select x; return query.FirstOrDefault(); } } Then my control have the following code: Member member1 = Member.GetMemberWithPhoto(memberId); Member member2 = Member.GetMember(memberId); Debug.WriteLine(member1.UserPhoto.ToString()); Debug.WriteLine(member2.UserPhoto.ToString()); The last line will generate a "Cannot access a disposed object" exception. I know that i can get rid of that exception just by not disposing the datacontext, but then the last line will generate a new query to the database, and i don't want that. What i would like is something like: Debug.WriteLine((member1.UserPhoto.IsPopulated()) ? member1.UserPhoto.ToString() : "none"); Debug.WriteLine((member2.UserPhoto.IsPopulated()) ? member2.UserPhoto.ToString() : "none"); Is it possible?

  Read the article

• accessing values in two dimensional arrays

  - by BrainLikeADullPencil

  In some code I'm trying to learn from, the Maze string below is turned into an array (code not shown for that) and saved in the instance variable @maze. The starting point of the Maze is represented by the letter 'A' in that Maze, which can be accessed at @maze[1][13]---row 1, column 13. However, the code I'm looking at uses @maze[1][13,1] to get the A, which you can see returns the same result in my console. If I do @maze[1][13,2], it returns the letter "A " with two blank spaces next to it, and so on. [13,3] returns "A " with three blank spaces. Does the 2 in [13,2] mean, "return two values starting at [1][13]? If so, why? Is this some feature of arrays or two dimensional arrays that I don't get? [20] pry(#<Maze>):1> @maze[1][13] => "A" [17] pry(#<Maze>):1> @maze[1][13,1] => "A" [18] pry(#<Maze>):1> @maze[1][13,2] => "A " [19] pry(#<Maze>):1> @maze[1][13,3] => "A " Maze String MAZE1 = %{##################################### # # # #A # # # # # # # # # ####### # ### # ####### # # # # # # # # # # # ##### # ################# # ####### # # # # # # # # # ##### ##### ### ### # ### # # # # # # # # # # # # B# # # # # # # # ##### ##### # # ### # # ####### # # # # # # # # # # # # # # ### ### # # # # ##### # # # ##### # # # # # # # # #####################################}

  Read the article

• Two references to the same domain/entity model

  - by Sbossb

  Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

  Read the article

• Hibernate not loading associated object

  - by Noor

  Hi, i am trying to load a hibernate object ForumMessage but in it contain another object Users and the Users object is not being loaded. My ForumMessage Mapping File: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <!-- Generated Jan 4, 2011 10:10:29 AM by Hibernate Tools 3.4.0.Beta1 --> <hibernate-mapping> <class name="com.BiddingSystem.Models.ForumMessage" table="FORUMMESSAGE"> <id name="ForumMessageId" type="long"> <column name="FORUMMESSAGEID" /> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="ForumMessage" type="java.lang.String"> <column name="FORUMMESSAGE" /> </property> <many-to-one name="User" class="com.BiddingSystem.Models.Users" fetch="join"> <column name="UserId" /> </many-to-one> <property name="DatePosted" type="java.util.Date"> <column name="DATEPOSTED" /> </property> <many-to-one name="Topic" class="com.BiddingSystem.Models.ForumTopic" fetch="join"> <column name="TopicId" /> </many-to-one> </class> </hibernate-mapping> and I am using the follwing code: Session session = gileadHibernateUtil.getSessionFactory().openSession(); SQL="from ForumMessage"; System.out.println(SQL); Query query=session.createQuery(SQL); System.out.println(query.list().size()); return new LinkedList <ForumMessage>(query.list());

  Read the article

• Why is joining two vectors simply not working?

  - by Jim

  I have two vectors of MyObj structs. MyObj is defined as follows: struct MyObj { float x, y; unsigned int data[8]; unsigned int tmp[1]; MyObj(const MyObj &m) { x = m.x; y = m.y; tmp[0] = 0; for (int i = 0; i < 8; ++i) { data[i] = m.data[i]; } } }; I then have two vectors... vector<MyObj> v1; vector<MyObj> v2; // both get data eventually. v1.insert(v1.end(), v2.begin(), v2.end()); v2 has 3535004 elements in my experiment. v1 is similarly sized. I've also tried building a new vector and just using .push_back to build it from both vectors. Essentially, when I try to merge the two vectors I just get an error from visual studio saying "Debug error! R6010, abort() has been called". Very non-useful... So my question is: what could be causing this error, and how can I solve it? Thank you

  Read the article

• Java Hibernate session delete of object

  - by user2535201

  I'm really struggling with hibernate sessions, I never have the result I expect when making a query on a modified session object. I think all my problems are related. The last one is the following : final Session iSession = AbstractDAO.getSessionFactory().openSession(); try { iSession.beginTransaction(); MyObject iObject = DAOMyObject.getInstance().get(iSession,ObjectId); iObject.setQuantity(0); //previously the quantity was different from zero DAOMyObject.getInstance().update(iSession,iObject); DAOMyObject.getInstance().deleteObjectWithZeroQuantities(iSession); iSession.getTransaction().commit(); } catch (final Exception aException) { iSession.getTransaction().rollback(); logger.error(aException.getMessage(), aException); throw aException; } finally { iSession.close(); } What I'm not getting is why the object is not deleted, since I'm modified it in the session, the query making the delete should find it. I had the same problem with creating an object with an incremental id in a session, then creating another one in the same session before the commit, with a select max(id)+1. But the session gets me the same number of id every time.

  Read the article

• Combining two exe files

  - by Sophia

  Here's some background to my problem: I have a project in Visual C++ 2006 and a project in in Visual C++ 2010 Express. Both compiles to form an exe file each. I cannot convert my 2006 project to 2010 because I get a lot of "unable to load project" errors. I also cannot port my 2010 project code to 2006 (I always get errors no matter what I try, something to do with libraries). My final solution requires me to only have ONE executable. Is there anything I can do to achieve that? I've done some quick search on Google and found there to be exe joiners, but I've also heard that those things are often used to make malware. For reference, I am working with "dummy" clients, and therefore want to simplify things on their end as much as possible. Thus, having them executing one exe is better than having them execute two. Also, I do not wish for their antivirus to go haywire because I used some program to join two exe together. What do? Edit: The two project files do different things. For example, the project in VS2006 one sets up a server, and the project in VS2010 one grabs info on the user's OS. The code for the "server", I think, has a lot of dependencies and for some reason cannot convert to Visual c++ 2010. The code for "grabbing" requires some newer libraries and compiling options, and would not work if I port to 2006.

  Read the article

• Javascript object properties access functions in parent constructor?

  - by Bob Spryn

  So I'm using this pretty standard jquery plugin pattern whereby you can grab an api after applying the jquery function to a specific instance. This API is essentially a javascript object with a bunch of methods and data. So I wanted to essentially create some private internal methods for the object only to manipulate data etc, which just doesn't need to be available as part of the API. So I tried this: // API returned with new $.TranslationUI(options, container) $.TranslationUI = function (options, container) { // private function? function monkey(){ console.log("blah blah blah"); } // extend the default settings with the options object passed this.settings = $.extend({},$.TranslationUI.defaultSettings,options); // set a reference for the container dom element this.container = container; // call the init function this.init(); }; The problem I'm running into is that init can't call that function "monkey". I'm not understanding the explanation behind why it can't. Is it because init is a prototype method?($.TranslationUI's prototype is extended with a bunch of methods including init elsewhere in the code) $.extend($.TranslationUI, { prototype: { init : function(){ // doesn't work monkey(); // editing flag this.editing = false; // init event delegates here for // languagepicker $(this.settings.languageSelector, this.container).bind("click", {self: this}, this.selectLanguage); } } }); Any explanations would be helpful. Would love other thoughts on creating private methods with this model too. These particular functions don't HAVE to be in prototype, and I don't NEED private methods protected from being used externally, but I want to know how should I have that requirement in the future.

  Read the article

• Java servlet's request parameter's name set to entire json object

  - by Geren White

  I'm sending a json object through ajax to a java servlet. The json object is key-value type with three keys that point to arrays and a key that points to a single string. I build it in javascript like this: var jsonObject = {"arrayOne": arrayOne, "arrayTwo": arrayTwo, "arrayThree": arrThree, "string": stringVar}; I then send it to a java servlet using ajax as follows: httpRequest.open('POST', url, true); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); var jsonString = jsonObject.toJSONString(); httpRequest.send(jsonString); This will send the string to my servlet, but It isn't showing as I expect it to. The whole json string gets set to the name of one of my request's parameters. So in my servlet if I do request.getParameterNames(); It will return an enumeration with one of the table entries' key's to be the entire object contents. I may be mistaken, but my thought was that it should set each key to a different parameter name. So I should have 4 parameters, arrayOne, arrayTwo, arrayThree, and string. Am I doing something wrong or is my thinking off here? Any help is appreciated. Thanks

  Read the article

• Automatically Persisting a Complex Java Object

  - by VeeArr

  For a project I am working on, I need to persist a number of POJOs to a database. The POJOs class definitions are sometimes highly nested, but they should flatten okay, as the nesting is tree-like and contains no cycles (and the base elements are eventually primitives/Strings). It is preferred that the solution used create one table per data type and that the tables will have one field per primitive member in the POJO. Subclassing and similar problems are not issues for this particular project. Does anybody know of any existing solutions that can: Automatically generate a CREATE TABLE definition from the class definition Automatically generate a query to persist an object to the database, given an instance of the object Automatically generate a query to retrieve an object from the database and return it as a POJO, given a key. Solutions that can do this with minimum modifications/annotions to the class files and minimum external configuration are preferred. Example: Java classes //Class to be persisted class TypeA { String guid; long timestamp; TypeB data1; TypeC data2; } class TypeB { int id; int someData; } class TypeC { int id; int otherData; } Could map to CREATE TABLE TypeA ( guid CHAR(255), timestamp BIGINT, data1_id INT, data1_someData INT, data2_id INt, data2_otherData INT ); Or something similar.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134  | Next Page >