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  • jquery live and callbacks via wcf services

    - by vondip
    Hi all, I am writing a web app with asp.net, c# and jquery. Most of the time I'm writing dynamic html to the browser and using different web services to get the content needed. My call to the service: function WriteProducts(currentIndex, selectedCategoryId, callback) { var d = new Date(); MyAppServices.GetProducts(selectedCategoryId, currentIndex, 8, d.getTime().toString(), callback, function func() { alert('failure'); }); } The request usually gets translated to this (using firebug I monitored it): http://localhost:8080/MyApp/MyAppServices.svc/GetProducts?categoryId=0&fromIndex=0&toIndex=8&randomNumber=%221271800014441%22 The problem starts when part of the html controls dynamically rendered need to respond to click events. This is when I start using jquery's live method: $('.filter').live('click', function(event) { WriteProducts(0, selectedCategoryId, PopulateDivs); }); Now from some reason, the request passed to the server becomes this: http://localhost:8080/MyApp/MyAppServices.svc/GetProducts?categoryId=**%2217%22**&fromIndex=0&toIndex=8&randomNumber=%221271799783355%22 where did these %22 come from? If I take them out, the request passes successfully. I have no idea who inserted these %22, but they are causing havoc here! Guys, do you perhaps have a clue?

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  • mysql row locking via php

    - by deezee
    I am helping a friend with a web based form that is for their business. I am trying to get it ready to handle multiple users. I have set it up so that just before the record is displayed for editing I am locking the record with the following code. $query = "START TRANSACTION;"; mysql_query($query); $query = "SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = \"$value\" FOR UPDATE;"; mysql_query($query); (okay that is greatly simplified but that is the essence of the mysql) It does not appear to be working. However, when I go directly to mysql from the command line, logging in with the same user and execute START TRANSACTION; SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = "40" FOR UPDATE; I can effectively block the web form from accessing record "40" and get the timeout warning. I have tried using BEGIN instead of START TRANSACTION. I have tried doing SET AUTOCOMMIT=0 first and starting the transaction after locking but I cannot seem to lock the row from the PHP code. Since I can lock the row from the command line I do not think there is a problem with how the database is set up. I am really hoping that there is some simple something that I have missed in my reading. FYI, I am developing on XAMPP version 1.7.3 which has Apache 2.2.14, MySQL 5.1.41 and PHP 5.3.1. Thanks in advance. This is my first time posting but I have gleaned alot of knowledge from this site in the past.

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  • problm with MANIFEST.MF in jar

    - by Atul
    hi I have created jar in the following folder: /usr/local/bin/niidle.jar. And my MANIFEST.MF file is as follows: Manifest-Version: 1.0 Main-Class: com.ensarm.niidle.web.scraper.NiidleScrapeManager Class-Path: hector-0.6.0-17.jar And I verified that,this 'hector-0.6.0-17.jar' file is also present in the folder: /Projects/EnwelibDatedOct13/Niidle/lib/hector-0.6.0-17.jar I don't want to give full class-path name in MANIFEST.MF file,because I have to run this jar on other's machine,so I gave only jar file name 'Class-Path=hector-0.6.0-17.jar' in MANIFEST.MF file. Inspite of mentioning the Class-Path in MANIFEST.MF file, when I run this using command: java -jar /usr/local/bin/niidle.jar arguments... It is showing error massage: --Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: me/prettyprint/hector/api/Serializer at com.ensarm.niidle.web.scraper.NiidleScrapeManager.main(NiidleScrapeManager.java:21) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: me.prettyprint.hector.api.Serializer at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:252) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:320) ... 1 more Please give me solution for this error message..

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  • Leveraging hobby experience to get a job

    - by Bernard
    Like many other's I began programming at an early age. I started when I was 11 and I learned C when I was 14 (now 26). While most of what I did were games just to entertain myself I did everything from low level 2D graphics, and binary I/O, to interfacing with free API's, custom file systems, audio, 3D animations, OpenGL, web sites, etc. I worked on a wide variety of things trying to make various games. Because of this experience I have tested out of every college level C/C++ programming course I have ever been offered. In the classes I took, my classmates would need a week to do what I finished in class with an hour or two of work. I now have my degree now and I have 2 years of experience working full time as a web developer however I would like to get back into C++ and hopefully do simulation programming. Unfortunately I have yet to do C++ as a job, I have only done it for testing out of classes and doing my senior project in college. So most of what I have in C++ is still hobby experience and I don't know how to best convey that so that I don't end up stuck doing something too low level for me. Right now I see a job offer that requires 2 years of C++ experience, but I have at least 9 (I didn't do C++ everyday for the last 14 years). How do I convey my experience? How much is it truly worth? and How do I get it's full value? The best thing that I can think of is a demo and a portfolio, however that only comes into play after an interview has been secured. I used a portfolio to land my current job. All answers and advice are appreciated.

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  • NSTimer as a timeout mechanism

    - by alexantd
    I'm pretty sure this is really simple, and I'm just missing something obvious. I have an app that needs to download data from a web service for display in a UITableView, and I want to display a UIAlertView if the operation takes more than X seconds to complete. So this is what I've got (simplified for brevity): MyViewController.h @interface MyViewController : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSTimer *timer; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSTimer *timer; MyViewController.m @implementation MyViewController @synthesize timer; - (void)viewDidLoad { timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:20 target:self selector:@selector(initializationTimedOut:) userInfo:nil repeats:NO]; [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime]; [timer invalidate]; } - (void)doSomethingThatTakesALongTime { sleep(30); // for testing only // web service calls etc. go here } - (void)initializationTimedOut:(NSTimer *)theTimer { // show the alert view } My problem is that I'm expecting the [self doSomethingThatTakesALongTime] call to block while the timer keeps counting, and I'm thinking that if it finishes before the timer is done counting down, it will return control of the thread to viewDidLoad where [timer invalidate] will proceed to cancel the timer. Obviously my understanding of how timers/threads work is flawed here because the way the code is written, the timer never goes off. However, if I remove the [timer invalidate], it does.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler goes not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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  • XMLHttpRequst return null on Chrome

    - by BoltBait
    I have the following code that works fine in IE: <HTML> <BODY> <script language="JavaScript"> text=""; req = new XMLHttpRequest(); if (req) { req.onreadystatechange = processStateChange; req.open("GET", "http://www.boltbait.com", true); req.send(); } function processStateChange() { // is the data ready for use? if (req.readyState == 4) { // process my data alert(req.status); alert(req.responseText); } } </script> </BODY> </HTML> In IE, the first alert returns 200, the second returns the web page. However, in Chrome the first alert returns 0 and the second returns the empty string. My intent is to grab a web page into a string for processing. If I'm not doing this right, how should I be doing this? Thanks.

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  • Can I dispose a DataTable and still use its data later?

    - by Eduardo León
    Noob ADO.NET question: Can I do the following? Retrieve a DataTable somehow. Dispose it. Still use its data. (But not send it back to the database, or request the database to update it.) I have the following function, which is indirectly called by every WebMethod in a Web Service of mine: public static DataTable GetDataTable(string cmdText, SqlParameter[] parameters) { // Read the connection string from the web.config file. Configuration configuration = WebConfigurationManager.OpenWebConfiguration("/WSProveedores"); ConnectionStringSettings connectionString = configuration.ConnectionStrings.ConnectionStrings["..."]; SqlConnection connection = null; SqlCommand command = null; SqlParameterCollection parameterCollection = null; SqlDataAdapter dataAdapter = null; DataTable dataTable = null; try { // Open a connection to the database. connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString.ConnectionString); connection.Open(); // Specify the stored procedure call and its parameters. command = new SqlCommand(cmdText, connection); command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; parameterCollection = command.Parameters; foreach (SqlParameter parameter in parameters) parameterCollection.Add(parameter); // Execute the stored procedure and retrieve the results in a table. dataAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(command); dataTable = new DataTable(); dataAdapter.Fill(dataTable); } finally { if (connection != null) { if (command != null) { if (dataAdapter != null) { // Here the DataTable gets disposed. if (dataTable != null) dataTable.Dispose(); dataAdapter.Dispose(); } parameterCollection.Clear(); command.Dispose(); } if (connection.State != ConnectionState.Closed) connection.Close(); connection.Dispose(); } } // However, I still return the DataTable // as if nothing had happened. return dataTable; }

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  • How to organize and manage multiple database credentials in application?

    - by Polaris878
    Okay, so I'm designing a stand-alone web service (using RestLET as my framework). My application is divided in to 3 layers: Data Layer (just above the database, provides APIs for connecting to/querying database, and a database object) Object layer (responsible for serialization from the data layer... provides objects which the client layer can use without worrying about database) Client layer (This layer is the RestLET web service... basically just creates objects from the object layer and fulfills webservice request) Now, for each object I create in the object layer, I want to use different credentials (so I can sandbox each object...). The object layer should not know the exact credentials (IE the login/pw/DB URL etc). What would be the best way to manage this? I'm thinking that I should have a super class Database object in my data layer... and each subclass will contain the required log-in information... this way my object layer can just go Database db = new SubDatabase(); and then continue using that database. On the client level, they would just be able to go ItemCollection items = new ItemCollection(); and have no idea/control over the database that gets connected. I'm asking this because I am trying to make my platform extensible, so that others can easily create services off of my platform. If anyone has any experience with these architectural problems or how to manage this sort of thing I'd appreciate any insight or advice... Feel free to ask questions if this is confusing. Thanks! My platform is Java, the REST framework I'm using is RestLET, my database is MySQL.

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  • SQL Server getdate() to a string like "2009-12-20"

    - by Adam Kane
    In Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and .NET 2.0, I want to convert the current date to a string of this format: "YYYY-MM-DD". For example, December 12th 2009 would become "2009-12-20". How do I do this in SQL. The context of this SQL statement in the table definiton. In other words, this is the default value. So when a new record is created the default value of the current date is stored as a string in the above format. I'm trying: SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD] But SQL server keeps converting that to: ('SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]') so the result is just: 'SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]' Here's a screen shot of what the Visual Studio server explorer, table, table definition, properties shows: These wrapper bits are being adding automatically and converting it all to literal string: (N' ') Here's the reason I'm trying to use something other than the basic DATETIME I was using previously: This is the error I get when hooking everything to an ASP.NET GridView and try to do an update via the grid view: Server Error in '/' Application. The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'.] Note: I've added a related question to try to get around the SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date' error so that I can use a DATETIME as recommended.

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  • Google Maps API v3 not working

    - by user1496322
    I've been banging my head on the wall after going through the documentation on this several times! I can't seem to get past the API error to get the map to appear on my site. I am getting the following error message from the web page where I want the map to be displayed: ~~~~~~~~~~~ Google has disabled use of the Maps API for this application. The provided key is not a valid Google API Key, or it is not authorized for the Google Maps Javascript API v3 on this site. If you are the owner of this application, you can learn about obtaining a valid key here: https://developers.google.com/maps/documentation/javascript/tutorial#Obtaining_Key ~~~~~~~~~~~ I have (several times now) gone into my account and 1) enabled the Maps v3 API service. 2) Generated a new API key. and 3) added my allowed referrers to the key. (both www.domain.com and domain.com URLs) I have the following added to the head of the web page: < script src="http://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false&key=MY_API_KEY_HERE" type="text/JavaScript" language="JavaScript" And... I have the following javascript function that executes when a link is clicked on the page: alert("viewMap()"); var map = new GMap3(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); var geocoder = new GClientGeocoder(); var address = "1600 Amphitheatre Parkway, Mountain View"; alert("Calling getLatLng ..."); geocoder.getLatLng(address, function(point) { var latitude = point.y; var longitude = point.x; // do something with the lat lng alert("Lat:"+latitude+" - Lng:"+longitude); }); The initial 'viewMap' alert is displayed and then is followed by the 'Google has disbled use...' error message. The error console is also showing 'GMap3 is not defined'. Can anyone please assist with showing me the errors of my ways?!?!? Thank you in advance for any help you can provide. -Dennis

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  • Is the REST support in Spring 3's MVC Framework production quality yet?

    - by glenjohnson
    Hi all, Since Spring 3 was released in December last year, I have been trying out the new REST features in the MVC framework for a small commercial project involving implementing a few RESTful Web Services which consume XML and return XML views using JiBX. I plan to use either Hibernate or JDBC Templates for the data persistence. As a Spring 2.0 developer, I have found Spring 3's (and 2.5's) new annotations way of doing things quite a paradigm shift and have personally found some of the new MVC annotation features difficult to get up to speed with for non-trivial applications - as such, I am often having to dig for information in forums and blogs that is not apparent from going through the reference guide or from the various Spring 3 REST examples on the web. For deadline-driven production quality and mission critical applications implementing a RESTful architecture, should I be holding off from Spring 3 and rather be using mature JSR 311 (JAX-RS) compliant frameworks like RESTlet or Jersey for the REST layer of my code (together with Spring 2 / 2.5 to tie things together)? I had no problems using RESTlet 1.x in a previous project and it was quite easy to get up to speed with (no magic tricks behind the scenes), but when starting my current project it initially looked like the new REST stuff in Spring 3's MVC Framework would make life easier. Do any of you out there have any advice to give on this? Does anyone know of any commercial / production-quality projects using, or having successfully delivered with, the new REST stuff in Spring 3's MVC Framework. Many thanks Glen

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  • how to rotate around each record in linq and show that in view

    - by Sadegh
    Hi, I have four tables in my database and i want to join that's and return record's and show that into searchController! My query is this: public IQueryable PerformSearch(string query) { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(query)) { var results = from tbl1 in context.Table1 join tbl2 in context.Table2 on tbl1.Id equals tbl2.Id join tbl3 in context.Table3 on tbl2.Id equals tbl3.Id join tbl4 in context.Table4 on tbl3.Id equals tbl4.Id where tbl1.col2.Contains(query) orderby tbl1.Count descending select new { col1 = tbl1.Col1, col1 = tbl1.Col1, col1 = tbl1.Col1, . . . }; return results.AsQueryable(); } else return null; } And this method called in SearchController as below: public class SearchController : System.Web.Mvc.Controller { public System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Search(System.String query) { var search = new Search(); ViewData["result"] = search.PerformSearch(query); return View("Search"); } } I don't know how i can rotate around each record (plus vs intellisense feature) returned by PeformSeach method and show that in view! Also is this a good way? thanks in advance

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  • Active Directory Membership Provider - how to expand on this?

    - by Jaxidian
    I'm working on getting an MVC app up and running via AD Membership Provider and I'm having some issues figuring this out. I have a base configuration setup and working when I login as [email protected] + password. <connectionStrings> <add name="MyConnString" connectionString="LDAP://domaincontroller/OU=Product Users,DC=my,DC=domain,DC=com" /> </connectionStrings> <membership defaultProvider="MyProvider"> <providers> <clear /> <add name="MyProvider" connectionStringName="MyConnString" connectionUsername="my.domain.com\service_account" connectionPassword="biguglypassword" type="System.Web.Security.ActiveDirectoryMembershipProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" /> </providers> </membership> However, I'd LIKE to do some other things and I'm not sure how to go about them. Login without typing the domain (i.e. the "@my.domain.com"). I realize that this could only work if I limit myself to just one domain - that's fine. Organize users in up to N different OUs within a single OU. As you can tell from my current connection string, I'm authenticating users in my Product Users OU. I would LIKE to create OUs for various companies within this OU and put the users into those OUs. How can I authenticate across all of these different OUs? I'm trying to figure out how the Active Directory Membership Provider ties in with the Profile and Role providers. Are there AD versions of those too or am I stuck with SQL, home-grown, or finding something somebody else has coded up? Many thanks!!

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  • Paragraph with normal opacity within greyed-out div

    - by dmr
    I am greying out a web page when a user doesn't have permission to access it. In order to do that, I am placing a div with background-color white and a lowered opacity on top of the web page. I want to write some words in that div with the words having a normal opacity. As of now, the greyed out background is showing correctly. However, I can't seem to get the words to be a regular opacity. The derived styles on Firebug show the opacity on the words as normal, but it clearly isn't. What am I doing wrong? The HTML: <div class="noPermission"> <p>I'm sorry. You do not have permission to access this page.</p> </div> The CSS: div.noPermission { background-color: white; filter:alpha(opacity=50); /* IE */ opacity: 0.5; /* Safari, Opera */ -moz-opacity:0.50; /* FireFox */ z-index: 20; height: 100%; width: 100%; background-repeat:no-repeat; background-position:center; position:absolute; top: 0px; left: 0px; } div.noPermission p{ color: black; margin: 300px auto auto 50px; text-align: left; font-weight: bold; font-size: 18px; display: block; width: 250px; }

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  • Loading a CSV file using jQuery GET returns the header but no data

    - by Cees Meijer
    When reading a CSV file from a server using the jQuery 'GET' function I do not get any data. When I look at the code using FireBug I can see the GET request is sent and the return value is '200 OK'. Also I see that the header is returned correctly so the request is definitely made, and data is returned. This is also what I see in Wireshark. Here I see the complete contents of the CSV file is returned as a standard HTTP response. But the actual data is not there in my script. Firebug shows an empty response and the 'success' function is never called. What could be wrong ? <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>New Web Project</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <script src="jquery.js" type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var csvData; $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnGET").click(function() { csvData = $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "http://www.mywebsite.com/data/sample_file.csv", dataType: "text/csv", success: function () { alert("done!"+ csvData.getAllResponseHeaders()) } }); }); }) </script> </head> <body> <h1>New Web Project Page</h1> <button id="btnGET">GET Data</button> </body> </html>

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  • AssemblyResolve event is not firing during compilation of a dynamic assembly for an aspx page.

    - by John
    This one is really pissing me off. Here goes: My goal is to load assemblies at run-time that contain embedded aspx,ascx etc. What I would also like is to not lock the assembly file on disk so I can update it at run-time without having to restart the application (I know this will leave the previous version(s) loaded). To that end I have written a virtual path provider that does the trick. I have subscribed to the CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve event so as to redirect the framework to my assemblies. The problem is that the when the framework tries to compile the dynamic assembly for the aspx page I get the following: Compiler Error Message: CS0400: The type or namespace name 'Pages' could not be found in the global namespace (are you missing an assembly reference?) Source Error: public class app_resource_pages__version_1_0_0_0__culture_neutral__publickeytoken_null_default_aspx : global::Pages._Default, System.Web.SessionState.IRequiresSessionState, System.Web.IHttpHandle I noticed that if I load the assembly with Assembly.Load(AssemblyName) or Assembly.LoadFrom(filename) I dont get the above error. If I load it with Assembly.Load(byte[]) (so as to not lock it), the exception is thrown but my AssemblyResolve handler, when called is returning the assembly correctly (it is called once). So I am guessing that it is called once when the framework parses the asp markup but not when it tries to create the dynamic assembly for the aspx page.

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  • Request-local storage in ASP.NET (accessible to the code from IHttpModule implementation)

    - by IgorK
    I need to have some object hanging around between two events I'm interested in: PreRequestHandlerExecute (where I create an instance of my object and want to save it) and PostRequestHandlerExecute (where I want to get to the object). After the second event the object is not needed for my purposes and should be discarded either by storage or my explicit action. So the ideal context where my object should be stored is per request (with guaranteed no sharing issues when different threads are serving requests... or processes/servers :) ) Take into account that actual implementation I can do is being made from a HttpModule and is supposed to be a pluggable solution for already written web apps (so the option to provide some state using static/instance variables in Global.asax doesn't look good - I will have to modify Global.asax on every web application). Cache seems to be too broad for this use. I tried to see whether httpContext.Application (of type HttpApplicationState) is good for me or not, but cannot get whether it is exactly per HttpApplication instance or not (AFAIK you can have several instances of HttpApplications used on different threads and therefore serving several requests simultaneously - then using storage shared between threads will not work correctly; otherwise I would use it because one HttpApplication instance serves exactly one request at a time). Something could be done with storing state on the HttpModule instances if I know for sure that it's exactly bound 1-to-1 with every HttpApplication instance running (but again I need a proof that HttpApplication instance is 1-to-1 with my HttpModule's instance). Any valuable and reputable links on these topics are much appreciated... Would be great to find something particularly well-suited for per request situation (because otherwise I may end up with something ulgy... probably either some 'broader' scoped storage and some hacks to have different keys in the storage for different requests, OR using a thread-local thing and in this way commit to the theory that IIS/ASP.NET will not ever serve first event from one thread and the second event from the other thread and so on)

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  • Test if Java trusts an SSL certificate

    - by Eric R. Rath
    My java web application uses the standard mail libraries to establish an IMAPS connection to a mail server under my control. The mail server used a valid SSL cert issued by a CA. When the cert expired, I renewed it from the same CA, and put the cert into use. But my web application wouldn't trust the new cert. We had never explicitly trusted the old cert, or managed any trust stores. I talked with someone from the CA, and we tracked it down to a difference in the intermediate certs between the old and new cert. The old one used multiple intermediates, including one tied to a root that must've been trusted by default by our version of Java. The new cert used only one intermediate cert, and it was tied to a root missing from our Java version's default trusted cert store. When we renew this cert again in the future, is there an easy way, given a new crt and intermediate crt file, test if Java will consider that cert valid? I didn't see anything in keytool that looked promising. A code solution is okay, but I'd prefer one based on the Java command-line tools.

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  • Integration transport choice (Oracle + SQL Server)

    - by lak-b
    We have several systems with Oracle (A) and SQL Server (B) databases on backend. I have to consolidate data from those systems into the new SQL Server database. Something like that: (A) =>|---------------| | some software | => SQL Server (B) =>|---------------| where some software is: transport (A and B systems located in the network) processing business logic (custom .NET code) Due to first point, I need some queue software or something similar (like MSMQ, Service Broker or something). In another hand, I can implement a web-service instead of queue. (A) =>|---------------|-------------| | queue/service | custom code | => SQL Server (B) =>|---------------|-------------| The question is: which queue/transport framework should I use with Oracle and SQL Server databases? It would be nice, if I can post messages to MSMQ in both Oracle and SQL Server stored procedures (can I?) It would be nice, if I can call a web-service in both Oracle and SQL Server stored procedures (can I?) It would be nice, if I can use something similar in both Oracle and SQL Server stored procedures (what exactly?) What software should I prefer to my requirements?

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  • sql server mdf file database attachment

    - by jnsohnumr
    hello all i'm having a bear of a time getting visual studio 2010 (ultimate i think) to properly attach to my database. it was moved from original spot to #MYAPP#/#MYAPP#.Web/App_Data/#MDF_FILE#.mdf. I have three instances of sql server running on this machine. i have tried to replace the old mdf file with my new one and cannot get the connectionstring right for it. what i'm really wanting to do is to just open some DB instance, run a DB create script. Then I can have a DB that was generated via my edmx (generate database from model) in silverlight business application (c#) right now, when i go to server explorer in VS, choose add new connection, choose MS SQL Server Database FIle (SqlClient), choose my file location (app_data directory), use windows authentication, and hit the Test Connection button I get the following error: Unable to open the physical file "". Operating system error 5: "5(Access Denied.)". An attempt to attach to an auto-named database for file"" failed. A database with the same name exists, or specified file cannot be opened, or it is located on UNC share. The mdf file was created on the same machine by connecting to (local) on the sql server management studio, getting a new query, pasting in the SQL from the generated ddl file, adding a CREATE DATABASE [NcrCarDatabase]; GO before the pasted SQL, and executing the query. I then disconnected from the DB in management studio, closed management studio, navigated to the DATA directory for that instance, and copying the mdf and ldf files to my application's app_data folder. I am then trying to connect to the same file inside visual studio. I hope that gives more clarity to my problems :). Connection string is: Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=C:\SourceCode\NcrCarDatabase\NcrCarDatabase.Web\App_Data\NcrCarDatabase.mdf;Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=True

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  • JAX-RS --- How to return JSON and HTTP Status code together?

    - by masato-san
    I'm writing REST web app (Netbean6.9, JAX-RS, Toplink-essential) and trying to return JSON and Http status code. I have code ready and working just to return JSON when HTTP GET Method is called from client. Code snippet @Path("get/id") @GET @Produces("application/json") public M_?? getMachineToUpdate(@PathParam("id") String id) { //some code to return JSON . . return myJson But I also want to return HTTP status code (500, 200, 204 etc) along with returning JSON. I tried using HttpServletResponse object, response.sendError("error message", 500); But this made browser to think it's real 500 so output web page was regular Http 500 error page. What I want to is just to return status code so that my Javascript on client side can handle some logic depending on what HTTP status code is returned. (maybe just to display the error code and message on html page.) Is it possible to do so? or should HTTP status code not be used for such thing?

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  • RetinaJS and LESS : Background image doesn't show on iOS

    - by jidma
    I am trying to make a background image into a retina image using LESS CSS and RetinaJs: in my index.html file : <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width, initial-scale=1.0, user-scalable=0, minimum-scale=1.0, maximum-scale=1.0"> <meta name="apple-mobile-web-app-capable" content="yes"> <meta name="apple-mobile-web-app-status-bar-style" content="black"> [...] <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet/less" href="resources/css/retina.less"> <script type="text/javascript" src="resources/js/less-1.3.0.minjs" ></script> [...] </head> <body> [...] <script type="text/javascript" src="resources/js/retina.js"></script> </body> </html> in my retina.less file: .at2x(@path, @w: auto, @h: auto) { background-image: url("@{path}"); @at2x_path: ~`"@{path}".split('.').slice(0, "@{path}".split('.').length - 1).join(".") + "@2x" + "." + "@{path}".split('.')["@{path}".split('.').length - 1]`; @media all and (-webkit-min-device-pixel-ratio : 1.5) { background-image: url("@{at2x_path}"); background-size: @w @h; } } .topMenu { .at2x('../../resources/img/topMenuTitle.png'); } I have both topMenuTitle.png (320px x 40px) and [email protected] (640px x 80px) in the same folder. When test this code: In Firefox i have the normal Background In the XCode iPhone simulator I also have the normal Background In the iPhone device, I don't have any background at all. I'm using GWT if that matters. Any suggestions ? Thanks.

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  • Pump Messages During Long Operations + C#

    - by Newbie
    Hi I have a web service that is doing huge computation and is taking more than a minute. I have generated the proxy file of the web service and then from my client end I am using the dll(of course I generated the proxy dll). My client side code is TimeSeries3D t = new TimeSeries3D(); int portfolioId = 4387919; string[] str = new string[2]; str[0] = "MKT_CAP"; DateRange dr = new DateRange(); dr.mStartDate = DateTime.Today; dr.mEndDate = DateTime.Today; Service1 sc = new Service1(); t = sc.GetAttributesForPortfolio(portfolioId, true, str, dr); But since it is taking to much time for the server to compute, after 1 minute I am receiving an error message The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context 0x33caf30 to COM context 0x33cb0a0 for 60 seconds. The thread that owns the destination context/apartment is most likely either doing a non pumping wait or processing a very long running operation without pumping Windows messages. This situation generally has a negative performance impact and may even lead to the application becoming non responsive or memory usage accumulating continually over time. To avoid this problem, all single threaded apartment (STA) threads should use pumping wait primitives (such as CoWaitForMultipleHandles) and routinely pump messages during long running operations. Kindly guide me what to do? Thanks

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  • Permission issue when webservice deployed as virtual directory.Works in VS IDE

    - by Shyju
    I have an ASP.NET web service which will create a text file in a path which is being passed as a parameter to the method. private void CreateFile(string path) { string strFileName = path; StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(strFileName, true); sw.WriteLine(""); sw.Write("Created at " + DateTime.Now.ToString()); sw.Close(); } Now I am passing a folder in the network as the parameter and calling the method CreateFile(@"\\192.168.0.40\\labels\\test.txt"); When running the code from the Visual studio IDE,the file is getting created in the path.But when i published this and deployed as a virtual directoty,Its throwing me some error like "System.UnauthorizedAccessException: Access to the path '\\192.168.0.40\labels\test.txt' is denied. at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.FileStream.Init(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, Int32 rights, Boolean useRights, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options, SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES secAttrs, String msgPath, Boolean bFromProxy) at System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options) at System.IO.StreamWriter.CreateFile(String path, Boolean append) at System.IO.StreamWriter..ctor(String path, Boolean append, Encoding encoding, Int32 bufferSize) at System.IO.StreamWriter..ctor(String path, Boolean append) I have in my web.config.My machine is running in XP and the other is in Windows Server 2003 Any idea to solve this ?? Thanks in advance

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