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  • How to properly close a UDT server in Netty 4

    - by Steffen
    I'm trying to close my UDT server (Netty 4.0.5.Final) with shutDownGracefully() and reopen it on the same port. Unfortunately, I always get the socket exception below although it waits until the future has completed. I also added the socket option SO_REUSEADDR. What is the proper way to do this? Exception in thread "main" com.barchart.udt.ExceptionUDT: UDT Error : 5011 : another socket is already listening on the same UDP port : listen0:listen [id: 0x323d3939] at com.barchart.udt.SocketUDT.listen0(Native Method) at com.barchart.udt.SocketUDT.listen(SocketUDT.java:1136) at com.barchart.udt.net.NetServerSocketUDT.bind(NetServerSocketUDT.java:66) at io.netty.channel.udt.nio.NioUdtAcceptorChannel.doBind(NioUdtAcceptorChannel.java:71) at io.netty.channel.AbstractChannel$AbstractUnsafe.bind(AbstractChannel.java:471) at io.netty.channel.DefaultChannelPipeline$HeadHandler.bind(DefaultChannelPipeline.java:1006) at io.netty.channel.DefaultChannelHandlerContext.invokeBind(DefaultChannelHandlerContext.java:504) at io.netty.channel.DefaultChannelHandlerContext.bind(DefaultChannelHandlerContext.java:487) at io.netty.channel.ChannelDuplexHandler.bind(ChannelDuplexHandler.java:38) at io.netty.handler.logging.LoggingHandler.bind(LoggingHandler.java:254) at io.netty.channel.DefaultChannelHandlerContext.invokeBind(DefaultChannelHandlerContext.java:504) at io.netty.channel.DefaultChannelHandlerContext.bind(DefaultChannelHandlerContext.java:487) at io.netty.channel.DefaultChannelPipeline.bind(DefaultChannelPipeline.java:848) at io.netty.channel.AbstractChannel.bind(AbstractChannel.java:193) at io.netty.bootstrap.AbstractBootstrap$2.run(AbstractBootstrap.java:321) at io.netty.util.concurrent.SingleThreadEventExecutor.runAllTasks(SingleThreadEventExecutor.java:354) at io.netty.channel.nio.NioEventLoop.run(NioEventLoop.java:366) at io.netty.util.concurrent.SingleThreadEventExecutor$2.run(SingleThreadEventExecutor.java:101) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:724) A small test program demonstration the problem: public class MsgEchoServer { public static class MsgEchoServerHandler extends ChannelInboundHandlerAdapter { } public void run() throws Exception { final ThreadFactory acceptFactory = new UtilThreadFactory("accept"); final ThreadFactory connectFactory = new UtilThreadFactory("connect"); final NioEventLoopGroup acceptGroup = new NioEventLoopGroup(1, acceptFactory, NioUdtProvider.MESSAGE_PROVIDER); final NioEventLoopGroup connectGroup = new NioEventLoopGroup(1, connectFactory, NioUdtProvider.MESSAGE_PROVIDER); try { final ServerBootstrap boot = new ServerBootstrap(); boot.group(acceptGroup, connectGroup) .channelFactory(NioUdtProvider.MESSAGE_ACCEPTOR) .option(ChannelOption.SO_BACKLOG, 10) .option(ChannelOption.SO_REUSEADDR, true) .handler(new LoggingHandler(LogLevel.INFO)) .childHandler(new ChannelInitializer<UdtChannel>() { @Override public void initChannel(final UdtChannel ch) throws Exception { ch.pipeline().addLast(new MsgEchoServerHandler()); } }); final ChannelFuture future = boot.bind(1234).sync(); } finally { acceptGroup.shutdownGracefully().syncUninterruptibly(); connectGroup.shutdownGracefully().syncUninterruptibly(); } new MsgEchoServer().run(); } public static void main(final String[] args) throws Exception { new MsgEchoServer().run(); } }

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  • Uninitialized array offset

    - by kimmothy16
    Hey everyone, I am using PHP to create a form with an array of fields. Basically you can add an unlimited number of 'people' to the form and each person has a first name, last name, and phone number. The form requires that you add a phone number for the first person only. If you leave the phone number field blank on any others, the handler file is supposed to be programmed to use the phone number from the first person. So, my fields are: person[] - a hidden field with a value that is this person's primary key. fname[] - an input field lname[] - an input field phone[] - an input field My form handler looks like this: $people = $_POST['person'] $counter = 0; foreach($people as $person): if($phone[$counter] == '') { // use $phone[0]'s phone number } else { // use $phone[$counter] number } $counter = $counter + 1; endforeach; PHP doesn't like this though, it is throwing me an Notice: Uninitialized string offset error. I debugged it by running the is_array function on people, fname, lname, and phone and it returns true to being an array. I can also manually echo out $phone[2], etc. and get the correct value. I've also ran is_int on the $counter variable and it returned true, so I'm unsure why this isn't working as intended? Any help would be great!

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  • Issue in achartengine jar file

    - by Anshuman
    Actually i have created an app in which i have used achartengine to contruct graph. It was running ok, but today i saw an update for android SDK to r17. Once i upadated the sdk the app i had build started crash. In the logcat i show the following error report. Why this happen, is it because the jar file i have used is deprecated. 03-27 14:44:26.320: E/AndroidRuntime(4360): java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: [Lorg.achartengine.chart.PointStyle; 03-27 14:44:26.320: E/AndroidRuntime(4360): at in.com.example.ChartEngineActivity.onCreate(ChartEngineActivity.java:58) 03-27 14:44:26.320: E/AndroidRuntime(4360): at android.app.Instrumentation.callActivityOnCreate(Instrumentation.java:1047) 03-27 14:44:26.320: E/AndroidRuntime(4360): at android.app.ActivityThread.performLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:1611) 03-27 14:44:26.320: E/AndroidRuntime(4360): at android.app.ActivityThread.handleLaunchActivity(ActivityThread.java:1663) 03-27 14:44:26.320: E/AndroidRuntime(4360): at android.app.ActivityThread.access$1500(ActivityThread.java:117) 03-27 14:44:26.320: E/AndroidRuntime(4360): at android.app.ActivityThread$H.handleMessage(ActivityThread.java:931) 03-27 14:44:26.320: E/AndroidRuntime(4360): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) 03-27 14:44:26.320: E/AndroidRuntime(4360): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:130) 03-27 14:44:26.320: E/AndroidRuntime(4360): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:3683) 03-27 14:44:26.320: E/AndroidRuntime(4360): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 03-27 14:44:26.320: E/AndroidRuntime(4360): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:507) 03-27 14:44:26.320: E/AndroidRuntime(4360): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:839) 03-27 14:44:26.320: E/AndroidRuntime(4360): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:597) 03-27 14:44:26.320: E/AndroidRuntime(4360): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method)

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  • In IIS6, how to provide authenticated access to static files on remote server

    - by frankadelic
    We have a library of ZIP files that we would like to make available for download at an ASP.NET site. The files are sitting on a NAS device that is accessible from out web farm. Here is our initial strategy: Map an IIS virtual directory to the shared drive at path /zipfiles Users can download the zip files when given the URL However, if users share links to the files, anyone can download them. We would instead like to make use of the ASP.NET forms authentication in our site to validate users' requests before initiating the file transfer. A few problems: A request for a zip file is handled by IIS, not ASP.NET. So it is not subject to forms authentication. In addition, we don't want ASP.NET to handle the request, because it uses up an ASP.NET thread and is not scalable for download of large files. So, configuring the asp.net dll to handle *.zip requests is not an option. Any ideas on this? One idea we've tossed around is this: Initial request for download will be for an ashx handler. This handler will, after authentication, generate a download token which is saved to a database. Then, the user is redirected to the file with token appended in QueryString (e.g. /files/xyz.zip?token=123456789). An ISAPI plugin will be used to check the token. Also, the token will expire after x amount of time. Any thoughts on this? I have not implemented an ISAPI plugin so I'm not sure if this will even work. I would like to avoid custom coding since security is an issue and I'd prefer to use a time-tested solution.

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  • MySQL Stored Procedures not working with SELECT (basic question)

    - by TMG
    Hello, I am using a platform (perfectforms) that requires me to use stored procedures for most of my queries, and having never used stored procedures, I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. The following statement executes without error: DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_db.test_proc// CREATE PROCEDURE test_db.test_proc() SELECT 'foo'; // DELIMITER ; But when I try to call it using: CALL test_proc(); I get the following error: #1312 - PROCEDURE test_db.test_proc can't return a result set in the given context I am executing these statements from within phpmyadmin 3.2.4, PHP Version 5.2.12 and the mysql server version is 5.0.89-community. When I write a stored procedure that returns a parameter, and then select it, things work fine (e.g.): DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_db.get_sum// CREATE PROCEDURE test_db.get_sum(out total int) BEGIN SELECT SUM(field1) INTO total FROM test_db.test_table; END // DELIMITER ; works fine, and when I call it: CALL get_sum(@t); SELECT @t; I get the sum no problem. Ultimately, what I need to do is have a fancy SELECT statement wrapped up in a stored procedure, so I can call it, and return multiple rows of multiple fields. For now I'm just trying to get any select working. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • android numberformat exception

    - by asifkt
    my application shows this number format exception errror while running. 1 0-22 11:09:06.095: WARN/System.err(290): at java.lang.Long.parseLong(Long.java:330) 10-22 11:09:06.095: WARN/System.err(290): at java.lang.Long.parseLong(Long.java:307) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at com.htc.socialnetwork.facebook.FacebookUtils.getSyncInterval(FacebookUtils.java:54) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at com.htc.socialnetwork.facebook.remote.FacebookReceiver.getSyncInterval(FacebookReceiver.java:269) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at com.htc.socialnetwork.facebook.remote.FacebookReceiver.onReceive(FacebookReceiver.java:196) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at android.app.ActivityThread.handleReceiver(ActivityThread.java:2751) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at android.app.ActivityThread.access$3100(ActivityThread.java:126) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at android.app.ActivityThread$H.handleMessage(ActivityThread.java:1982) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:123) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:4603) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:521) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:860) 10-22 11:09:06.105: WARN/System.err(290): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:618) 10-22 11:09:06.115: WARN/System.err(290): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) anybody please help me to get the reason for this error

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  • asp.net mvc: What is the correct way to return html from controller to refresh select list?

    - by Mark Redman
    Hi, I am new to ASP.NET MVC, particularly ajax operations. I have a form with a jquery dialog for adding items to a drop-down list. This posts to the controller action. If nothing (ie void method) is returned from the Controller Action the page returns having updated the database, but obviously there no chnage to the form. What would be the best practice in updating the drop down list with the added id/value and selecting the item. I think my options are: 1) Construct and return the html manually that makes up the new <select> tag [this would be easy enough and work, but seems like I am missing something] 2) Use some kind of "helper" to construct the new html [This seems to make sense] 3) Only return the id/value and add this to the list and select the item [This seems like an overkill considering the item needs to be placed in the correct order etc] 4) Use some kind of Partial View [Does this mean creating additional forms within ascx controls? not sure how this would effect submitting the main form its on? Also unless this is reusable by passing in parameters(not sure how thats done) maybe 2 is the option?] UPDATE: Having looked around a bit, it seems that generating html withing the controller is not a good idea. I have seen other posts that render partialviews to strings which I guess is what I need and separates concerns (since the html bits are in the ascx). Any comments on whether that is good practice.

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  • RegisterStartupScript not working after upgrading to framework 3.5

    - by AaronS
    I'm trying to upgrade an asp.net c# web project from framework 2.0 to 3.5. When I do this, the client side script that gets written using RegisterStartupScript isn't rendered on the client page. This works perfectly when I compile for 2.0, and for 3.0, but not when I compile for 3.5. Here is the code that isn't getting rendered: Page myPage = (Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(myPage, myPage.GetType(), "alertscript", "alert('test');", true); This is called from a class project, and not the web project itself, which is why I'm using the HttpContext.Current.Handler. There are no errors getting generated from the compiler, the CLR, and there are no client side JavaScript errors. If I do a search for the "alertscript" in my rendered page, the above code actually isn't there. Anyone have ideas as to what is going on? -Edit- This seems to be an issue when I'm trying to register the script from an external project. If I use the exact same code in a class file in the web project (not the code behind), it works. However, if I make a call to a method in a class from another project, it does not work. Does the ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript not get registered correctly if performed from somewhere besides the web project itself?

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  • Passing array values in an HTTP request in .NET

    - by Zarjay
    What's the standard way of passing and processing an array in an HTTP request in .NET? I have a solution, but I don't know if it's the best approach. Here's my solution: <form action="myhandler.ashx" method="post"> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Aaron" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Bobby" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Jimmy" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Kelly" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="Simon" /> <input type="checkbox" name="user" value="TJ" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> The ASHX handler receives the "user" parameter as a comma-delimited string. You can get the values easily by splitting the string: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { string[] users = context.Request.Form["user"].Split(','); } So, I already have an answer to my problem: assign multiple values to the same parameter name, assume the ASHX handler receives it as a comma-delimited string, and split the string. My question is whether or not this is how it's typically done in .NET. What's the standard practice for this? Is there a simpler way to grab the multiple values than assuming that the value is comma-delimited and calling Split() on it? Is this how arrays are typically passed in .NET, or is XML used instead? Does anyone have any insight on whether or not this is the best approach?

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  • JSP: How can I still get the code on my error page to run, even if I can't display it?

    - by Josh Hinman
    I've defined an error-page in my web.xml: <error-page> <exception-type>java.lang.Exception</exception-type> <location>/error.jsp</location> </error-page> In that error page, I have a custom tag that I created. The tag handler for this tag e-mails me the stacktrace of whatever error occurred. For the most part this works great. Where it doesn't work great is if the output has already begun being sent to the client at the time the error occurs. In that case, we get this: SEVERE: Exception Processing ErrorPage[exceptionType=java.lang.Exception, location=/error.jsp] java.lang.IllegalStateException I believe this error happens because we can't redirect a request to the error page after output has already started. The work-around I've used is to increase the buffer size on particularly large JSP pages. But I'm trying to write a generic error handler that I can apply to existing applications, and I'm not sure it's feasible to go through hundreds of JSP pages making sure their buffers are big enough. Is there a way to still allow my stack trace e-mail code to execute in this case, even if I can't actually display the error page to the client?

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  • ASP.NET Loading a User Control in a Repeater

    - by user70192
    Hello, I have a Repeater control that loads instances of a custom control I have built. This repeater looks like this: <asp:Repeater ID="myRepeater" runat="server" OnLoad="myRepeater_Load"> <HeaderTemplate> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <tr><td><my:CustomControl ID="myControl" runat="server" OnLoad="myControl_Load" /> </td></tr> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate> </table> </FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I bind to the Repeater through the myRepeater_Load event handler. My custom control is used to render an item within the Repeater. Because of this, I am trying to set properties on the custom control during the myControl_Load event handler. However, I do not know how to access the current item during the myControl_Load event. Is there a way I can pass along the current item or access the current item during the myControl_Load event? If so, how? Thank you,

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  • Python: Catching / blocking SIGINT during system call

    - by danben
    I've written a web crawler that I'd like to be able to stop via the keyboard. I don't want the program to die when I interrupt it; it needs to flush its data to disk first. I also don't want to catch KeyboardInterruptedException, because the persistent data could be in an inconsistent state. My current solution is to define a signal handler that catches SIGINT and sets a flag; each iteration of the main loop checks this flag before processing the next url. However, I've found that if the system happens to be executing socket.recv() when I send the interrupt, I get this: ^C Interrupted; stopping... // indicates my interrupt handler ran Traceback (most recent call last): File "crawler_test.py", line 154, in <module> main() ... File "/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/socket.py", line 397, in readline data = recv(1) socket.error: [Errno 4] Interrupted system call and the process exits completely. Why does this happen? Is there a way I can prevent the interrupt from affecting the system call?

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  • No JSON object could be decoded - RPC POST call

    - by user1307067
    var body = JSON.stringify(params); // Create an XMLHttpRequest 'POST' request w/ an optional callback handler req.open('POST', '/rpc', async); req.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); req.setRequestHeader("Content-length", body.length); req.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); if (async) { req.onreadystatechange = function() { if(req.readyState == 4 && req.status == 200) { var response = null; try { response = JSON.parse(req.responseText); } catch (e) { response = req.responseText; } callback(response); } }; } // Make the actual request req.send(body); ---- on the server side ---- class RPCHandler(BaseHandler): '''@user_required''' def post(self): RPCmethods = ("UpdateScenario", "DeleteScenario") logging.info(u'body ' + self.request.body) args = simplejson.loads(self.request.body) ---- Get the following error on the server logs body %5B%22UpdateScenario%22%2C%22c%22%2C%224.5%22%2C%2230frm%22%2C%22Refinance%22%2C%22100000%22%2C%22740%22%2C%2294538%22%2C%2250000%22%2C%22owner%22%2C%22sfr%22%2C%22Fremont%22%2C%22CA%22%5D= No JSON object could be decoded: line 1 column 0 (char 0): Traceback (most recent call last): File "/base/python_runtime/python_lib/versions/1/google/appengine/ext/webapp/_webapp25.py", line 703, in call handler.post(*groups) File "/base/data/home/apps/s~mortgageratealert-staging/1.357912751535215625/main.py", line 418, in post args = json.loads(self.request.body) File "/base/python_runtime/python_lib/versions/1/simplejson/init.py", line 388, in loads return _default_decoder.decode(s) File "/base/python_runtime/python_lib/versions/1/simplejson/decoder.py", line 402, in decode obj, end = self.raw_decode(s, idx=_w(s, 0).end()) File "/base/python_runtime/python_lib/versions/1/simplejson/decoder.py", line 420, in raw_decode raise JSONDecodeError("No JSON object could be decoded", s, idx) JSONDecodeError: No JSON object could be decoded: line 1 column 0 (char 0) --- firebug shows the following --- Parameters application/x-www-form-urlencoded ["UpdateScenario","c","4.... Source ["UpdateScenario","c","4.5","30frm","Refinance","100000","740","94538","50000","owner","sfr","Fremont","CA"] Based on the firebug report and also the logs shows self.request.body as anticipated. However simplejson load doesn't like it. Please help!

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  • JTextField vs JComboBox behaviour in JTable

    - by Ash
    Okay, this is a hard one to explain but I'll try my best. I have a JTextField and a JComboBox in a JTable, whose getCellEditor method has been overriden as follows: public TableCellEditor getCellEditor( int row, int column ) { if ( column == 3 ) { // m_table is the JTable if ( m_table.getSelectedRowCount() == 1 ) { JComboBox choices = new JComboBox(); choices.setEditable( true ); choices.addItem( new String( "item 1" ) ); return new DefaultCellEditor( choices ); } return super.getCellEditor( row, column ); } Here are the behavioral differences (NOTE that from this point on, when I say JTextField or JComboBox, I mean the CELL in the JTable containing either component): When I click once on a JTextField, the cell is highlighted. Double clicking brings up the caret and I can input text. Whereas, with a JComboBox, single clicking brings up the caret to input text, as well as the combo drop down button. When I tab or use the arrow keys to navigate to a JTextField and then start typing, the characters I type automatically get entered into the cell. Whereas, when I navigate to a JComboBox the same way and then start typing, nothing happens apart from the combo drop down button appearing. None of the characters I type get entered unless I hit F2 first. So here's my question: What do I need to do have JComboBoxes behave exactly like JTextFields in the two instances described above? Please do not ask why I'm doing what I'm doing or suggest alternatives (it's the way it is and I need to do it this way) and yes, I've read the API for all components in question....the problem is, it's a swing API. Thanks in advance, Ash

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  • jQuery tooltip: Trouble with remove()

    - by Rosarch
    I'm using a jQuery tooltip plugin. I have HTML like this: <li class="term ui-droppable"> <strong>Fall 2011</strong> <li class="course ui-draggable">Biological Statistics I<a class="remove-course-button" href="">[X]</a></li> <div class="term-meta-data"> <p class="total-credits too-few-credits">Total credits: 3</p> <p class="median-GPA low-GPA">Median Historical GPA: 2.00</p> </div> </li> I want to remove the .course element. So, I attach a click handler to the <a>: function _addDeleteButton(course, term) { var delete_button = $('<a href="" class="remove-course-button" title="Remove this course">[X]</a>'); course.append(delete_button); $(delete_button).click(function() { course.remove(); return false; }).tooltip(); } This all works fine, in terms of attaching the click handler. However, when course.remove() is called, Firebug reports an error in tooltip.js: Line 282 tsettings is null if ((!IE || !$.fn.bgiframe) && tsettings.fade) { What am I doing wrong? If the link has a tooltip attached, do I need to remove it specially? UPDATE: Removing .tooltip() solve the problem. I'd like to keep it in, but that makes me suspect that my use of .tooltip() is incorrect here.

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  • IE event callback object JavaScript

    - by Randy Hall
    I may be WAY off on my terminology, so please feel free to correct me. Perhaps this is why I cannot seem to find anything relevant. No libraries, please. I have an event handler, which invokes a callback function. Fancy, right? In IE<9 the this object in the handler is the window. I don't know why, or how to access the correct object. if (document.addEventListener){ element.addEventListener(event, callback, false); } else { element.attachEvent('on' +event, callback); } This part DOES WORK. This part doesn't: function callback(event){ console.log(this); } this in IE is returning [object Window], whereas it returns the element that called the callback function in every other browser. This is cut down significantly from my full script, but this should be everything that's relevant. EDIT This link provided by @metadings How to reference the caller object ("this") using attachEvent is very close. However, there are still two issues. 1) I need to get both the event object and the DOM element calling this function. 2) This event is handled delegation style: there may be child DOM elements firing the event, meaning event.target is not necessarily (and in my case, not typically) the element with the listener.

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  • Powerpoint displays a "can't start the application" error when an Excel Chart object is embedded in

    - by A9S6
    This is a very common problem when Excel Worksheet or Chart is embedded into Word or Powerpoint. I am seeing this problem in both Word and Powerpoint and the reason it seems is the COM addin attached to Excel. The COM addin is written in C# (.NET). See the attached images for error dialogs. I debugged the addin and found a very strange behavior. The OnConnection(...), OnDisConnection(...) etc methods in the COM addin works fine until I add an event handler to the code. i.e. handle the Worksheet_SheetChange, SelectionChange or any similar event available in Excel. As soon as I add even a single event handler (though my code has several), Word and Powerpoint start complaining and do not Activate the embedded object. On some of the posts on the internet, people have been asked to remove the anti-virus addins for office (none in my case) so this makes me believe that the problem is somewhat related to COM addins which are loaded when the host app activates the object. Does anyone have any idea of whats happening here?

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  • jQuery modal dialog on ajaxStart event

    - by bdl
    I'm trying to use a jQuery UI modal dialog as a loading indicator via the ajaxStart, ajaxStop / ajaxComplete events. When the page fires, an Ajax handler loads some data, and the modal dialog shows just fine. However, it never hides or closes the dialog when the Ajax event is complete. It's a very small bit of code from the local server that is returned, so the actual Ajax event is very quick. Here's my actual code for the modal div: $("#modalwindow").dialog({ modal: true, height: 50, width: 200, zIndex: 999, resizable: false, title: "Please wait..." }) .bind("ajaxStart", function(){ $(this).show(); }) .bind("ajaxStop", function(){ $(this).hide(); }); The Ajax event is just a plain vanilla $.ajax({}) GET method call. Based on some searching here and Google, I've tried altering the ajaxStop handler to use $("#modalwindow").close(), $("#modalwindow").destroy(), etc. (#modalwindow referred to here as to give explicit context). I've also tried using the standard $("#modalwindow").dialog({}).ajaxStart(... as well. Should I be binding the events to a different object? Or calling them from within the $.ajax() complete event? I should mention, I'm testing on the latest IE8, FF 3.6 and Chrome. All have the same / effect.

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  • ASP.Net ListBox selections not working in Panel?

    - by larryq
    Hi everyone, I'm having trouble processing a listbox after selecting some items from it. In my markup, the listbox is contained within an asp:panel and is populated during page load in the codebehind. That part works fine. It's when I select various items and submit that I have trouble. My handler loops through the listbox items but doesn't see any as being selected. I'm not sure why. Here's the markup: <asp:Panel ID="panEdit" runat="server" Height="180px" Width="400px" CssClass="ModalWindow"> <table width="100%"> <asp:label runat = "server">Choose your items</asp:label> <tr> <td> <asp:ListBox ID="lstFundList" runat="server" SelectionMode="Multiple" OnLoad="lstFundList_LoadData"> </asp:ListBox> </td> </tr> </table> <asp:Button ID="btnUpdate" runat="server" Text="Update" OnClick="btnUpdate_OnClick"/> <asp:Button ID="btnCancel" runat="server" Text="Cancel" OnClientClick="$find('ModalPopupExtender1').hide(); return false;" /> </asp:Panel> In my btnUpdate_OnClick handler I can't see any listbox items that are marked as selected. I assume something strange is going on with respect to postback and the panel?

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  • form change with javascript

    - by aslum
    I have two drop down lists <select name="branch"> <option value="b">Blacksburg</option> <option value="c">Christiansburg</option> <option value="f">Floyd</option> <option value="m">Meadowbrook</option> </select> but I would like the second list to be different based upon what is selected from the first list. So FREX Blacksburg's might be <select name="room"> <option value="Kitchen">Kitchen Side</option> <option value="Closet">Closet Side</option> <option value="Full">Full Room</option> </select While Christiansburg's is <select name="room"> <option value="Window">Window Side</option> <option value="Door">Door Side</option> <option value="Full">Full Room</option> and of course the options are also different for the other branches... Is it possible to change the second drop down list based on what they select for the first one? I have used javascript a teensy bit, but not much so please explain in detail. Thanks!

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  • Task predecessor/dependencies logic for task management application

    - by Serge
    Hey guys, I'm trying to figure out the logic for creating tasks that have dependencies. In short I'm building a dynamic task management system and each tasks has several options one of them is to have the task start after a predecessor. Users can add/remove/re-order (by drag&drop) tasks so I'm wondering how can I make the predecessors dynamic, here's an example of what I mean Task 1 Task 2 Task 3 - dependent of task 2 Task 4 - dependent of task 2 Tasks get renamed on delete and/or re-order. If task 1 gets deleted then 3 and 4 should become dependent of task 1 (which is the old task 2). I've been banging my head for the past few hours trying to figure out how to do that. I'm using jQuery right now and each task is contained in a div with an incremental id (ie id="task1") that gets renamed whenever a task is removed or re-ordered and I'm using a dynamically populated drop down for selecting a predecessor. What would be the easiest way to get this done?? by the way, I'm not necessarily asking for code, just trying to figure out the best way to tackle this

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  • Clustered index - multi-part vs single-part index and effects of inserts/deletes

    - by Anssssss
    This question is about what happens with the reorganizing of data in a clustered index when an insert is done. I assume that it should be more expensive to do inserts on a table which has a clustered index than one that does not because reorganizing the data in a clustered index involves changing the physical layout of the data on the disk. I'm not sure how to phrase my question except through an example I came across at work. Assume there is a table (Junk) and there are two queries that are done on the table, the first query searches by Name and the second query searches by Name and Something. As I'm working on the database I discovered that the table has been created with two indexes, one to support each query, like so: --drop table Junk1 CREATE TABLE Junk1 ( Name char(5), Something char(5), WhoCares int ) CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name ON Junk1 ( Name ) CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name_Something ON Junk1 ( Name, Something ) Now when I looked at the two indexes, it seems that IX_Name is redundant since IX_Name_Something can be used by any query that desires to search by Name. So I would eliminate IX_Name and make IX_Name_Something the clustered index instead: --drop table Junk2 CREATE TABLE Junk2 ( Name char(5), Something char(5), WhoCares int ) CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name_Something ON Junk2 ( Name, Something ) Someone suggested that the first indexing scheme should be kept since it would result in more efficient inserts/deletes (assume that there is no need to worry about updates for Name and Something). Would that make sense? I think the second indexing method would be better since it means one less index needs to be maintained. I would appreciate any insight into this specific example or directing me to more info on maintenance of clustered indexes.

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  • Passing Derived Class Instances as void* to Generic Callbacks in C++

    - by Matthew Iselin
    This is a bit of an involved problem, so I'll do the best I can to explain what's going on. If I miss something, please tell me so I can clarify. We have a callback system where on one side a module or application provides a "Service" and clients can perform actions with this Service (A very rudimentary IPC, basically). For future reference let's say we have some definitions like so: typedef int (*callback)(void*); // This is NOT in our code, but makes explaining easier. installCallback(string serviceName, callback cb); // Really handled by a proper management system sendMessage(string serviceName, void* arg); // arg = value to pass to callback This works fine for basic types such as structs or builtins. We have an MI structure a bit like this: Device <- Disk <- MyDiskProvider class Disk : public virtual Device class MyDiskProvider : public Disk The provider may be anything from a hardware driver to a bit of glue that handles disk images. The point is that classes inherit Disk. We have a "service" which is to be notified of all new Disks in the system, and this is where things unravel: void diskHandler(void *p) { Disk *pDisk = reinterpret_cast<Disk*>(p); // Uh oh! // Remainder is not important } SomeDiskProvider::initialise() { // Probe hardware, whatever... // Tell the disk system we're here! sendMessage("disk-handler", reinterpret_cast<void*>(this)); // Uh oh! } The problem is, SomeDiskProvider inherits Disk, but the callback handler can't receive that type (as the callback function pointer must be generic). Could RTTI and templates help here? Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Changing the indexing on existing table in SQL Server 2000

    - by Raj
    Guys, Here is the scenario: SQL Server 2000 (8.0.2055) Table currently has 478 million rows of data. The Primary Key column is an INT with IDENTITY. There is an Unique Constraint imposed on two other columns with a Non-Clustered Index. This is a vendor application and we are only responsible for maintaining the DB. Now the vendor has recommended doing the following "to improve performance" Drop the PK and Clustered Index Drop the non-clustered index on the two columns with the UNIQUE CONSTRAINT Recreate the PK, with a NON-CLUSTERED index Create a CLUSTERED index on the two columns with the UNIQUE CONSTRAINT I am not convinced that this is the right thing to do. I have a number of concerns. By dropping the PK and indexes, you will be creating a heap with 478 million rows of data. Then creating a CLUSTERED INDEX on two columns would be a really mammoth task. Would creating another table with the same structure and new indexing scheme and then copying the data over, dropping the old table and renaming the new one be a better approach? I am also not sure how the stored procs will react. Will they continue using the cached execution plan, considering that they are not being explicitly recompiled. I am simply not able to understand what kind of "performance improvement" this change will provide. I think that this will actually have the reverse effect. All thoughts welcome. Thanks in advance, Raj

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  • Pass an Event as parameter

    - by dkson
    I have a class which bundles events and registers controls to easily register/unregister them, it's basically used this way: Private Sub MyFocusHandler(ByVal sender As Object, ...) ... End Sub ... Dim b1 = new MyTextBox() Dim b2 = new MyTextBox() .... 'Lot of Controls' Dim cr = new ControlRegistration() cr.RegisterControl(b1) cr.RegisterControl(b2) .... 'Register a lot of controls' cr.RegisterEvent("Focus",New EventHandler(AddressOf MyFocusHandler)) cr.RegisterEvent("Validate",New EventHandler(AddressOf MyValidateHandler)) So I don't have to add the handlers manually for each control. The ControlRegistration-Class will cycle through the list of registered controls and check if a control has a registered event and then attach the eventhandler, something like: ... For Each control in contols Dim ev_info As Reflection.EventInfo = _ control.GetType().GetEvent(.GetType().GetEvent(event_name)) If Not (ev_info Is Nothing) Then ev_info.AddEventHandler ... ... My problem is that i am identifying the event by a string Public Sub RegisterEvent(ByVal eventName As String, ByVal handler As [Delegate]) ... ... cr.RegisterEvent("Focus",New EventHandler(AddressOf MyFocusHandler)) I don't want to depend on the name of the event, since it is possibly that the name changes, and then things will break up. Is there a way I can do this like: Public Sub RegisterEvent(ByVal theEvent As ???, ByVal handler As [Delegate]) ... ... cr.RegisterEvent(IMyControl.MyEvent,New EventHandler(AddressOf MyEventHandler)) I hope it is clear what I want to archive. Anybody any ideas? Thanks

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