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  • How to configure multiple mappings using FluentHibernate?

    - by chris.baglieri
    First time rocking it with NHibernate/Fluent so apologies in advance if this is a naive question. I have a set of Models I want to map. When I create my session factory I'm trying to do all mappings at once. I am not using auto-mapping (though I may if what I am trying to do ends up being more painful than it ought to be). The problem I am running into is that it seems only the top map is taking. Given the code snippet below and running a unit test that attempts to save 'bar', it fails and checking the logs I see NHibernate is trying to save a bar entity to the foo table. While I suspect it's my mappings it could be something else that I am simply overlooking. Code that creates the session factory (note I've also tried separate calls into .Mappings): Fluently.Configure().Database(MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2008 .ConnectionString(c => c .Server(@"localhost\SQLEXPRESS") .Database("foo") .Username("foo") .Password("foo"))) .Mappings(m => { m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<FooMap>() .Conventions.Add(FluentNHibernate.Conventions.Helpers .Table.Is(x => "foos")); m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<BarMap>() .Conventions.Add(FluentNHibernate.Conventions.Helpers .Table.Is(x => "bars")); }) .BuildSessionFactory(); Unit test snippet: using (var session = Data.SessionHelper.SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { var bar = new Bar(); session.Save(bar); Assert.NotNull(bar.Id); }

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  • Facebook connect with iPhone not working?

    - by Atulkumar V. Jain
    Hi Everybody, I am trying to use Facebook connect in my application, but its not working as I desire. When I am trying to use the API Key and the API SecretKey of my application which I have registered with the facebook its not working. I have downloaded the code for the facebook. In the SessionViewController.m file when I pass my key values its not working. What I am trying to achieve is, when the app launches the first page is the Facebook Login Page. The user enters his username and password and then the next view should display. But nothing is happening, even the label doesn't display the username. Heres the code which I am using - (void)request:(FBRequest*)request didLoad:(id)result { NSArray* users = result; NSDictionary* user = [users objectAtIndex:0]; NSString* name = [user objectForKey:@"name"]; _label.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Logged in as %@",name]; NSLog(@"Username is :- %@",name); FrontController *main = [[FrontController alloc] init]; [self.view addSubview:main.view]; [main release]; } I am not able to figure out what is wrong with this code. When I try with some other key values such as the key for connect application its working fine. Can anyone help me with this... Thanx in advance...

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  • Extracting a number from a 1-word string

    - by Kyle
    In this program I am trying to make, I have an expression (such as "I=23mm", or "H=4V") and I am trying to extract the 23 (or the 4) out of it, so that I can turn it into an integer. The problem I keep running into is that since the expression I am trying to take the numbers out of is 1 word, I cannot use split() or anything. One example I saw but wouldnt work was - I="I=2.7A" [int(s) for s in I.split() if s.isdigit()] This wouldnt work because it only takes the numbers are are delimited by spaces. If there was a number in the word int078vert, it wouldnt extract it. Also, mine doesnt have spaces to delimit. I tried one that looked like this, re.findall("\d+.\d+", "Amps= 1.4 I") but it didnt work either, because the number that is being passed is not always 2 digits. It could be something like 5, or something like 13.6. What code do I need to write so that if I pass a string, such as I="I=2.4A" or I="A=3V" So that I can extract only the number out of this string? (and do operations on it)? There are no spaces or other constant chars that I can delimit by.

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  • Android layouts within layouts, with separate classes handling their input?

    - by Demonofloom
    Hey all, I have created a program in Java that uses Jpanels within Jpanels. One example of this is having a side view containing buttons that change the main view when pressed. The main view also has buttons that can be used to alter itself. I am trying to re-create this on the android. I have my layout set up from an xml, with a side panel containing buttons and the main view. There is another xml that contains what I want in the main view. Now I am struggling to get this separate xml to be displayed in the main view and can’t figure out how I would get the class to handle its own input. I don’t want to paste the code into the main.xml as I want to keep things object orientated and each view needs some custom elements such as different textviews. An example of what I am trying to convert for the android is below:- //The ViewInt class has its own layout ViewInt tempView = new ViewInt(i, mFloorNo); //The viewInt class is then added to the main window. mainWindowPanel.add(tempView); This small bit of code would create a view, add it to the main view and then any input in the main window is handled by that class, but at the same time any input not in this main window is handled by another class (probably the root class). Any help is greatly appreciated, thanks. To clarify: The program has a side panel layout, containing buttons. And a main view layout that is empty. I am trying to set a .xml layout to this main view layout, and have it so that if any buttons are pressed in that main view then a class for that layout will handle it.

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  • How to convert a lambda to an std::function using templates

    - by retep998
    Basically, what I want to be able to do is take a lambda with any number of any type of parameters and convert it to an std::function. I've tried the following and neither method works. std::function([](){});//Complains that std::function is missing template parameters template <typename T> void foo(function<T> f){} foo([](){});//Complains that it cannot find a matching candidate The following code does work however, but it is not what I want because it requires explicitly stating the template parameters which does not work for generic code. std::function<void()>([](){}); I've been mucking around with functions and templates all evening and I just can't figure this out, so any help would be much appreciated. As mentioned in a comment, the reason I'm trying to do this is because I'm trying to implement currying in C++ using variadic templates. Unfortunately, this fails horribly when using lambdas. For example, I can pass a standard function using a function pointer. template <typename R, typename...A> void foo(R (*f)(A...)) {} void bar() {} int main() { foo(bar); } However, I can't figure out how to pass a lambda to such a variadic function. Why I'm interested in converting a generic lambda into an std::function is because I can do the following, but it ends up requiring that I explicitly state the template parameters to std::function which is what I am trying to avoid. template <typename R, typename...A> void foo(std::function<R(A...)>) {} int main() { foo(std::function<void()>([](){})); }

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  • flex positioning a button within a panel

    - by pfunc
    All I'm trying to do is place a button inside of a panel, rotate that button (so it is vertical) and place it on the edge of the panel. I can;t seem to do this correctly. Here is my code: <mx:Panel id="weekList" width="260" height="100%" x="-500" title="Weeks" > <mx:List id="weekButtonList" width="260" borderVisible="false" contentBackgroundAlpha="0" dataProvider="{_data.mappoints.week.@number}" itemClick="onWeekClick(event);" > <mx:itemRenderer> <mx:Component> <mx:Button buttonMode="true" right="20" width="260" height="50" label="Week {data}" /> </mx:Component> </mx:itemRenderer> </mx:List> <mx:HBox id="closeButtonHolder" rotation="90" width="100" > <mx:Button label="OPEN" click="weekListToggle()" /> </mx:HBox> </mx:Panel> If you look at the part of the script you will see I am trying to rotate it and move it to the left. I am just trying to move it somewhere, and nothing is working. Also, the text seems to dissapear when I rotate it on a 90% axis. Anyone know what I can do for this?

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  • MSI File/Registry failures on Windows Server 2008/Windows 7 (x64)

    - by Luca
    I'm trying to deploy an application on Windows Server 2008 (SP2 x64) and Windows 7 (x64), using VS2005 Installer Project. The MSI version (I think) it the 2.0. Everything works fine, except that some registry keys and some files are not copied on the install machine. The MSI system doesn't notify about nothing (and I don't know whether MSI logs its operations). Are there incompatibilities between my MSI installer project and these new OSes? It seems to me that the OS protect itself for being modified in some part. For example, I'm trying to set the registry keys: HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows NT\WinLogon\SpecialAccounts\UserList\User but it is not created. In the same installer there are many other keys, which are created like expected (as they always did before on Windows XP and Windows Server 2003). To provide another example, I'm trying to install the file %SystemFolder%\oobe\info\backgrounds\backgroundDefault.jpg (where %SystemFolder% is typically "C:\Windows\System32"), but the file is not copied at all!!! What's going on? I've found the backgroundDefault.jpg file is located in another directory: %SystemRoot%\SysWOW64\oobe\info. But I've not specified nothing about a System (64 bit) folder. How can I copy the file in the right place?

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  • get an id of child element and store in a variable using jquery?

    - by Simpson88Keys
    I'm basically trying to do exactly what the subject suggests, but I'm getting "undefined" in my alert, and I'm not entirely sure why. I am fairly new to jquery, so, I probably have the syntax wrong, but not sure where to go from here. I'll post both of my attempts, which both yield "undefined" in the alert... //In my first attempt, I'm trying to get the id of the inner a tag <ul> <li id="l1" class="active"><a href="#c1">Samp 1</a></li> <li id="l2" class=""><a href="#c2">Samp 2</a></li> <li id="l3" class=""><a href="#c3">Samp 3</a></li> </ul> var selected = $(".active).children("a").attr("id"); alert(selected); //In my second attempt, I'm trying to get the id of the currently selected li var selected = $(".active").attr("id"); alert(selected);

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  • Passing user_id, site_id, and question_id to same table on create...

    - by bgadoci
    I can't seem to figure out how to do this. I am trying to pass four different variables to a single table. To be more specific I am trying to create a "like" in a likes table that also captures the site_id (like an answer), user_id, and the question_id. Here is the set up. class Like < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :site belongs_to :user belongs_to :question end I will spare you the reverse, has_many associations but they are there. Here is the likes controller where I think the problem is. class LikesController < ApplicationController def create @user = current_user @site = Site.find(params[:site_id]) @like = @site.likes.create!(params[:like]) @like.user = current_user @like.save respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to @site} format.js end end end This code successfully passes the like and site_id but after many different variations of trying I can't get it to pass the question id. Here is my form: /views/sites/_site.html.erb (though the partial is being displayed in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file). <% remote_form_for [site, Like.new] do |f| %> <%= f.hidden_field :site_name, :value => "#{site.name}" %> <%= f.hidden_field :ip_address, :value => "#{request.remote_ip}" %> <%= f.hidden_field :like, :value => "1" %> <%= submit_tag "^" , :class => 'voteup' %> <% end %>

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  • Execute JavaScript from within a C# assembly

    - by ScottKoon
    I'd like to execute JavaScript code from within a C# assembly and have the results of the JavaScript code returned to the calling C# code. It's easier to define things that I'm not trying to do: I'm not trying to call a JavaScript function on a web page from my code behind. I'm not trying to load a WebBrowser control. I don't want to have the JavaScript perform an AJAX call to a server. What I want to do is write unit tests in JavaScript and have then unit tests output JSON, even plain text would be fine. Then I want to have a generic C# class/executible that can load the file containing the JS, run the JS unit tests, scrap/load the results, and return a pass/fail with details during a post-build task. I think it's possible using the old ActiveX ScriptControl, but it seems like there ought to be a .NET way to do this without using SilverLight, the DLR, or anything else that hasn't shipped yet. Anyone have any ideas? update: From Brad Abrams blog namespace Microsoft.JScript.Vsa { [Obsolete("There is no replacement for this feature. Please see the ICodeCompiler documentation for additional help. http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?linkid=14202")] Clarification: We have unit tests for our JavaScript functions that are written in JavaScript using the JSUnit framework. Right now during our build process, we have to manually load a web page and click a button to ensure that all of the JavaScript unit tests pass. I'd like to be able to execute the tests during the post-build process when our automated C# unit tests are run and report the success/failure alongside of out C# unit tests and use them as an indicator as to whether or not the build is broken.

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  • Help Redirecting A Page to Another Page with adverts for 5 seconds, and then redirecting to another page.

    - by XcodeDev
    Hey, I am trying to redirect a page to another page, and that was working successfully. However I am trying to redirect the first page to another page with adverts. This page will then redirect to another page after five seconds. I am trying to do that by doing this: <?php include('ads.php'); ?> <?php sleep(2); $url = $_GET['url']; header("Location: ".$url.""); exit; ?> However it is showing the advert in ads.php perfectly, but it is not redirecting after five seconds. I am receiving this error in my web browser: Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /home/nucleusi/public_html/adverts/ads.php:1) in /home/nucleusi/public_html/adverts/index.php on line 7 A typical link I would be redirecting to would be this: http://nucleusiphone.com/adverts/index.php/?url=http%3A%2F%2Fitunes.apple.com%2Fmx%2Falbum%2Fstill-got-the-blues%2Fid14135178%3Fi%3D14135158 Thanks in advanced. PS. I don't know any php so any code helps!

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  • Can't authenticate mobile client with node.js (using passport.js)

    - by Pazinio
    I'm trying to build some CRUD application with node.js as a back-end API (express) and web-app (backbone) and mobile client (native android) as front-ends.(I'm node.js beginner) My server solution is based on the following great tutorial 'easy-node-authentication'. In my android app I have managed to get the user Google-Token after I completed the authentication step with Google Plus SDK.(mobile to google-plus directly request). I'm trying to understand and find right and elegant way to re-use a given google-token and authenticate again my android user through Google-Plus account to ensure the mobile client holds real token, then add a new entry (id, token, email, name) to my users table DB within my node back-end. The question is: what should be my next step in case I want to keep my back-end without changes? should I send a GET request with the token as a cookie to /auth/google? maybe to /auth/google/callback? another URL? Does this make sense at all? Please note: I'm aware to the fact the mentioned above 'easy-node-auth' solution is based on sessions and cookies. having said that, i'm still trying to understand if there is a convenient way to integrate both (android and node) as it works good for my web-app and node. Thanks in advance.

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  • Cocoa button won't display image

    - by A Mann
    Just started exploring Cocoa so pretty much a total noob. I've written a very simple game. Set it up in Interface Builder and got it working fine. It contains a number of buttons and I'm now trying to get the buttons to display images. To start with I'm trying to get an image displayed on just one of the buttons which is called tile0 . The image file (it's nothing but a green square at the moment, but I'm just trying to get that working before I attempt anything more exotic) is sitting in the same directory as the class file which controls the game. I have the following code sitting in my wakeFromNib method: NSString *myImageFileName = [[NSString alloc] init]; myImageFileName = @"greenImage.jpg"; NSImage *myImage = [[NSImage alloc] initByReferencingFile:myImageFileName]; [tile0 setImage: myImage]; Trouble is, the game runs fine, but the image isn't appearing on my button. Is there someone who could kindly tell me if I'm doing something obviously wrong? Many Thanks.

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  • How can I serialize functions using JSON or some other serialization library?

    - by Oragamster
    I am trying to create a program that uses javascript to write a simple textadventure that I can then post on my blog and run on my iphone. I have run into a problem though. I was trying to make it so that my program would save it's state into cookies using JSON to convert it into strings and then post it into a cookie but then I realised that I couldn't serialize the functions that are on my item object. I was trying to make it so that my item would have an associative array that would contain the name of the use as the key and the function as the value. This worked well untill I tried to serialize it. I learned that I could create a JSON like serialization for functions by storing the body into a string and using escape charectors for the double quotes but for some reason I was unable to make my cookie with the function as the string stored. When I posted the cookie and then tried to get it back the string wasn't there. My code and the over all project are on my site if you want to look at that, though my full code including the item actions are not posted yet.

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  • Get parent attribute within new child form?

    - by dannymcc
    I have a simple Rails 3 application and I am trying to create a new record that belongs to it's owner. It's working by passing the id to a hidden field in the new form of the child record. This works well and once the new child form submitted it correctly gets associated in the child/parent relationship. What I am trying to do, is lookup values form the parent within the new child form. The problem is that the child relationship is not yet created. Is there anyway I can use a .where lookup in the view? Or, is there a better way of doing this? At the moment I am passing the animal_id though to the new Claim form and it's inserted into a hidden field labelled animal_id. What I am trying to do: <%= @animal.where(:animal_id => params[:animal_id]).id %> The above would ideally get the animal ID from the soon-to-be-associated animal. Is there any sort of before_filter or anything that could take the passed params from the URL and temporarily create the relationship just for the new form view and then permanently create the relationship once the form is submitted? I've tried adding the following to my Claims controller and then called @animal.AnimalName in the view but I get NoMethodError: before_filter :find_animal protected def find_animal if params[:animal_id] Animal.find(params[:animal_id]) end end The URL of the new claim is correctly showing the animal ID so I'm not sure why it's not finding it: http://localhost:3000/claims/new?animal_id=1 The model relations are as follows: animal has_many claims animal has_one exclusion claim has_one animal exception has_one animal

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  • jQuery select by two name roots and perform one of two function depending on which root was selected

    - by RetroCoder
    I'm trying to get this code to work in jQuery and I'm trying to make sure that for each iteration of each root element, its alternate root element for that same iteration doesn't contain anything. Otherwise it sets the .val("") property to an empty string. Looking for a simple solution if possible using search, find, or swap. Each matching number is on the same row level and the same iteration count. I have two input types of input text elements with two different root names like so: 1st Root is "rootA" <input type="text" name="rootA1" /> <input type="text" name="rootA2 /> <input type="text" name="rootA3" /> 2nd Root is "rootB" <input type="text" name="rootB1" /> <input type="text" name="rootB2 /> <input type="text" name="rootB3" /> On blur if any of rootA is called call function fnRootA();. On blur if any of rootB is called call function fnRootB();. Again, I'm trying to make sure that for each iteration like 1 that the alternate root doesn't contain anything, else it sets the .val("") property to an empty string of the root being blurred. My current code works for a single element but wanted to use find or search but not sure how to construct it.. $("input[name='rootA1']").blur(function(e) { fnRootA(1); // this code just removes rootA1's value val("") //if rootB1 has something in it value property // the (1) in parenthesis is the iteration number });

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  • How do I populate an NSMutableArray in one class with another object?

    - by AngeloS
    Hello, I know this is a simple answer, but I can't seem to find the solution. I created an object in its own class and I am trying to populate it with data from another class. For simple data types like NSString, I have no problem, but when trying make an NSMutableArray equal to another NSMutableArray or when I try to populate a NSMutableArray with another objects (like strings), I keep getting exception errors... Here is the object I am trying to populate: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface RSSFeedList : NSObject { NSString *subject; NSMutableArray *rssfeedDetail; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *subject; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *rssfeedDetail; @end This is how I was able to populate the NSString 'subject' in another class: rssFeedList.subject = @"test"; However, if I follow similar convention within that same class with respect to an Array, it throws an exception: rssFeedList.rssfeedDetail = rssItemDetailArray; Where rssItemDetailArray is a NSMutableArray that I have built in the same class. I have also tried to add items (i tried strings for testing) to the NSMutableArray directly like so to no avail: [rssFeedList.rssfeedDetail addObject:@"test"]; Any ideas?? Thanks in advance!!

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  • android.intent.action.NOTIFICATION_REMOVE not available on all devices?

    - by Matt McMinn
    I've got a receiver set up in my android application to catch android.intent.action.NOTIFICATION_REMOVE intents. On my Evo, it works fine - when a notification is cleared from the notification bar, I catch that event and can run some code. I tried running this on a Samsung Moment though, and it is never caught. So now I'm trying to figure out why, and I can't seem to find anything on Google about this intent action - and I set this code up a few months ago, so I don't remember where I even found this action, it doesn't seem to be in the API. The evo is running 2.2, and the moment is running 2.1-update1, so I'm guessing that it's undocumented, and only available in 2.2. Is there any other way to catch an event that a notification has been cleared? Note that I'm not trying to cancel a notification that I put up, or trying to cancel another app's notification, just catch an event when a notification has been cleared. Here's my receiver in AndroidManafest.xml: <receiver android:name=".NotificationClearedReciever"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.NOTIFICATION_REMOVE" /> </intent-filter> </receiver>

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  • XCode Obj-C: Make new NSArray from one key each out of an Array of Dictionaries

    - by user323772
    This actually could be a multipart question. But here's the first part ... I have an array (actually in a plist) of dictionaries. Each dictionary has 3 keys in it: (title), (points), and (description). I am trying to make a NEW array with the values of the key "title" from each dictionary in that first array. Let me explain WHY I am doing this and maybe that will provide a better all around explanation. I am trying to let people pick from a pre-determined list. Heck, if this was a web page it would be very simple since all I really care about are the "points" and the "Title". On a web site I could simply do a drop down combo-box with the "points" being the value and the title being the text for each row. But this is not a web page. So what I am trying to do here is pop out a modal picker when they click the text field. The modal picker shows the alphabetical ordered "titles" from our new array. And whichever one they select, it closes the modal view and assigns that "title" text to the UITextField which cannot be edited by the user. I have some code to get my modal picker to pop out. But I need to feed it an array of just the "titles" of each dictionary in my real array. Thanks in advance (and yes I am a newbie)

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  • Java Generics Issue (w/ Spring)

    - by drewzilla
    I think I may be a victim of type erasure but thought I'd check with others here first. I have the requirement to do something like this: public interface FooFactory { public <T extends Bar> Foo<T> createFoo( Class<T> clazz ); } It is perfectly valid to write this code. However, I'm trying to implement this functionality using a Spring BeanFactory and I can't do it. What I'd like to do is this... public class FooFactoryImpl implements BeanFactoryAware { private BeanFactory beanFactory; public <T extends Bar> Foo<T> createFoo( Class<T> clazz ) { return beanFactory.getBean( ????????? ); } public void setBeanFactory( BeanFactory beanFactory ) { this.beanFactory = beanFactory; } } As you can see, I've put in ???????? where I'd like to retrieve a bean of type Foo<T>, where T extends Bar. However, it is not possible to derive a Class object of type Foo<T> and so I assume what I'm trying to do is impossible? Anyone else see a way round this or an alternative way of implementing what I'm trying to do? Thanks, Andrew

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  • Configuring WPA WiFi in Ubuntu 10.10

    - by sma
    Hello, I am trying to configure my wireless network on my laptop running Ubuntu 10.10 and am having a bit of difficulty. I am a complete Linux newb, but want to learn it, hence the reason I'm trying to set this up. Here's the vitals: It is a Gateway 600 YG2 laptop. It was previously running Windows XP, but I installed Ubuntu 10.10 in place of it (not a dual boot, I removed XP altogether). I have an old wireless card that I'm trying to resurrect. I haven't really used the card in a couple years, but it seems to still work, I just can't connect to my home's wireless network. The card is a Linksys WPC11 v2.5. When I plug it in, Ubuntu recognizes the network, but won't connect to it. My home network uses WPA encryption and the only connection type that Ubuntu's network manager is giving me is WEP and then it asks for a key -- I have no idea what that key should be. So, basically, I'm asking, is there a way I can instead connect through WPA? I've tried creating a new connection in network manager, but that won't work, it keeps falling back to the WEP connection and asking me for a key. I have tried to install the XP driver using ndiswrapper but I don't know if that's working or not. Is there a way to tell if: A) the card is working as it should B) the correct drivers are installed (again, I installed the XP one using ndiswrapper NET8180.INF, but I'm not sure what to do next) Any help would be appreciated. Thank you.

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  • Doesn't this defeat the whole purpose of having read-only properties?

    - by flockofcode
    I know how to use properties and I understand that they implicitly call underlying get and set accessors, depending on whether we are writing to or reading from a property. static void Main(string[] args) { A a = new A(); (a.b).i = 100; } class A { private B _b = new B(); public B b { get { return _b; } } } class B { public int i; } What code (a.b).i = 100; essentially does is that first property’s get accessor returns a reference to an object _b, and once we have this reference, we are able to access _b’s members and change their values. Thus, in our example, having read only property only prevents outside code from changing the value of a reference variable _b, but it doesn’t prevent outside code from accessing _b’s members. So it seems that property can only detect whether we are trying to read from or write to a variable ( in our case variable _b ) located on the stack, while it’s not able to detect whether we’re trying to also write to members of an object to which the variable on the stack ( assuming this variable is of reference type ) points to. a) But doesn’t that defeat the whole purpose of having read-only properties? Wouldn’t it be more effective if properties had the ability to also detect whether we’re trying to access members of an object returned by get accessor( assuming backing field is of a reference type )? thank you

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  • Detailstext in TableView from Coredata Iphone

    - by user554867
    Hey, that is my first question here at stackoverflow. Let me try to be specific as I can. The project is as follows: I am trying to parse an xml file in an iphone app, which works already. I am saving the parsed data into the CoreData of the Iphone. So far so good: I have two elements of the xml file which I want to show in the tableview as the text and the detailtext. Now the strange behaviour occurs: If I take the data of the Core Data and trying to visualize them in the tableview, then both elements are displayed in seperate cells and not as detailtext of the element. If I am just taking a constant string for the detailtext, then it works, but if I am trying to take for every cell a specific element from the Core Data then it is shown seperately in the tableview. I googled a lot, reading here and there. I dont know which code I should show because I dont have a clue where exactly the mistake could be. Maybe someone can answer that immediately because it is a stupid mistake somewhere, which is common. Thanks for your help.

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  • .NET Best Way to move many files to and from various directories??

    - by Dan
    I've created a program that moves files to and from various directories. An issue I've come across is when you're trying to move a file and some other program is still using it. And you get an error. Leaving it there isn't an option, so I can only think of having to keep trying to move it over and over again. This though slows the entire program down, so I create a new thread and let it deal with the problem file and move on to the next. The bigger problem is when you have too many of these problem files and the program now has so many threads trying to move these files, that it just crashes with some kernel.dll error. Here's a sample of the code I use to move the files: Public Sub MoveIt() Try File.Move(_FileName, _CopyToFileName) Catch ex As Exception Threading.Thread.Sleep(5000) MoveIt() End Try End Sub As you can see.. I try to move the file, and if it errors, I wait and move it again.. over and over again.. I've tried using FileInfo as well, but that crashes WAY sooner than just using the File object. So has anyone found a fool proof way of moving files without it ever erroring? Note: it takes a lot of files to make it crash. It'll be fine on the weekend, but by the end of the day on monday, it's done.

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  • Clicking mouse by sending messages

    - by Frank Meulenaar
    I'm trying to send mouse clicks to a program. As I don't want the mouse to move, I don't want to use SendInput or mouse_event, and because the window that should receive the clicks doesn't really use Buttons or other GUI events, I can't send messages to these buttons. I'm trying to get this working using SendMessage, but for some reason it doesn't work. Relevant code is (in C#, but tried Java with jnative as well), trying this on Vista [DllImport("user32.dll", CharSet=CharSet.Auto)] public static extern int SendMessage(IntPtr A_0, int A_1, int A_2, int A_3); static int WM_CLOSE = 0x10; static int WM_LBUTTONDOWN = 0x201; static int WM_LBUTTONUP = 0x202; public static void click(IntPtr hWnd, int x, int y) { SendMessage(hWnd, WM_LBUTTONDOWN, 1, ((x << 0x10) ^ y)); SendMessage(hWnd, WM_LBUTTONUP, 0, ((x << 0x10) ^ y)); } public static void close(IntPtr hWnd) { SendMessage(hWnd, WM_CLOSE, 0, 0); } The close works fine, but the click doesn't do anything.

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