Search Results

Search found 4077 results on 164 pages for 'throw'.

Page 130/164 | < Previous Page | 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137  | Next Page >

• page.insert_html not rendering partial correctly

  - by mathee

  The following is in the text_field. = f.text_field :title, :size => 50, :onchange => remote_function(:update => :suggestions, :url => {:action => :display_question_search_results}) The following is in display_questions_search_results.rjs. page.insert_html :bottom, 'suggestions', :partial => 'suggestions' Whenever the user types, I'd like to search the database for any tuples that match the keywords in the text field. Then, display those results. But, at the moment, _suggestions.haml only contains the word "suggestions!!". But, instead of seeing "suggestions!!" in the suggestions div tag, I get: try { Element.insert("suggestions", { bottom: "suggestions!!" }); } catch (e) { alert('RJS error:\n\n' + e.toString()); alert('Element.insert(\"suggestions\", { bottom: \"suggestions!!\" });'); throw e } I've been trying to find out why this is being done, but the previously asked questions I found seem more complicated than what I'm doing...

  Read the article

• WSACONNREFUSED when connecting to server

  - by Robert Mason

  I'm currently working on a server. I know that the client side is working (I can connect to www.google.com on port 80, for example), but the server is not functioning correctly. The socket has socket()ed, bind()ed, and listen()ed successfully and is on an accept loop. The only problem is that accept() doesn't seem to work. netstat shows that the server connection is running fine, as it prints the PID of the server process as LISTENING on the correct port. However, accept never returns. Accept just keeps running, and running, and if i try to connect to the port on localhost, i get a 10061 WSACONNREFUSED. I tried looping the connection, and it just keeps refusing connections until i hit ctrl+c. I put a breakpoint directly after the call to accept(), and no matter how many times i try to connect to that port, the breakpoint never fires. Why is accept not accepting connections? Has anyone else had this problem before? Known: [breakpoint0] if ((new_fd = accept(sockint, NULL, NULL)) == -1) { throw netlib::error("Accept Error"); //netlib::error : public std::exception } else { [breakpoint1] code...; } breakpoint0 is reached (and then continued through), no exception is thrown, and breakpoint1 is never reached. The client code is proven to work. Netstat shows that the socket is listening. If it means anything, i'm connecting to 127.0.0.1 on port 5842 (random number). The server is configured to run on 5842, and netstat confirms that the port is correct.

  Read the article

• Bookmarklet, js injection and popup issue

  - by Neewok

  I'm currently writing a bookmarklet that loads and executes a remote js file by appending a new <script> tag in the current window, like so : javascript:(function() { if(typeof __bml_main != "undefined") return __bml_main.init(); var s= document.createElement('script'); s.type= 'text/javascript'; s.src= 'http://127.0.0.1:8000/media/bookmarklet.js'; void(document.body.appendChild(s)); })(); My bookmarklet needs to perform some dom manipulations in order to extract data from the page being viewed, and then to open a new popup to list them. The thing is : if I want to bypass pop-up blockers, I can't open my new window from the injected script. I need to open it right from the beginning in the bookmarklet code, and to access it later when needed. I've tried to do somehting like this : javascript:var my_popup = window.open('http://127.0.0.1:8000/resources/manage/new/', 'newResourcePopup',config='height=200,width=400,toolbar=no,menubar=no,scrollbars=no,resizable=no,location=no,directories=no,status=no'); (function() { // script injection (...) })(); but if I then try to access my_popup from my remotely loaded script, most browsers will throw a security warning and won't let me access the Window object. This is understandable since the script is not from the same domain than the displayed page, but I'm kind of stuck... A solution would be to use a div overlay, but I'd really prefer to open a window in this case. Any hints ?

  Read the article

• StructureMap Open Generic Types

  - by Shane Fulmer

  I have the following classes: public interface IRenderer<T> { string Render(T obj); } public class Generic<T> { } public class SampleGenericRenderer<T> : IRenderer<Generic<T>> { public string Render(Generic<T> obj) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } I would like to be able to call StructureMap with ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IRenderer<Generic<string>>>(); and receive SampleGenericRenderer<string>. I'm currently using the following registration and receiving this error when I call GetInstance. "Unable to cast object of type 'ConsoleApplication1.SampleGenericRenderer'1[ConsoleApplication1.Generic'1[System.String]]' to type 'ConsoleApplication1.IRenderer'1[ConsoleApplication1.Generic'1[System.String]]'." public class CoreRegistry : Registry { public CoreRegistry() { Scan(assemblyScanner => { assemblyScanner.AssemblyContainingType(typeof(IRenderer<>)); assemblyScanner.AddAllTypesOf(typeof(IRenderer<>)); assemblyScanner.ConnectImplementationsToTypesClosing(typeof(IRenderer<>)); }); } } Is there any way to configure StructureMap so that it creates SampleGenericRenderer<string> instead of SampleGenericRenderer<Generic<string>>?

  Read the article

• Best solution for an StringToInt function in C#

  - by StefanE

  Hi, I were asked to do an StringToInt / Int.parse function on the white board in an job interview last week and did not perform very good but I came up with some sort of solution. Later when back home I made one in Visual Studion and I wonder if there are any better solution than mine below. Have not bothred with any more error handling except checking that the string only contains digits. private int StrToInt(string tmpString) { int tmpResult = 0; System.Text.Encoding ascii = System.Text.Encoding.ASCII; byte[] tmpByte = ascii.GetBytes(tmpString); for (int i = 0; i <= tmpString.Length-1; i++) { // Check whatever the Character is an valid digit if (tmpByte[i] > 47 && tmpByte[i] <= 58) // Here I'm using the lenght-1 of the string to set the power and multiply this to the value tmpResult += (tmpByte[i] - 48) * ((int)Math.Pow(10, (tmpString.Length-i)-1)); else throw new Exception("Non valid character in string"); } return tmpResult; }

  Read the article

• In ArrayBlockingQueue, why copy into ReentrantLock field into local final variable?

  - by mjlee

  In ArrayBlockingQueue, any method that requires lock will get set 'final' local variable before calling 'lock()'. public boolean offer(E e) { if (e == null) throw new NullPointerException(); final ReentrantLock lock = this.lock; lock.lock(); try { if (count == items.length) return false; else { insert(e); return true; } } finally { lock.unlock(); } } Is there any reason to set a local variable 'lock' from 'this.lock' when field 'this.lock' is final also. Additionally, it also set local variable of E[] before acting on. private E extract() { final E[] items = this.items; E x = items[takeIndex]; items[takeIndex] = null; takeIndex = inc(takeIndex); --count; notFull.signal(); return x; } Is there any reason for copying to local final variable?

  Read the article

• MS Access Bulk Insert exits app

  - by Brij

  In the web service, I have to bulk insert data in MS Access database. First, There was single complex Insert-Select query,There was no error but app exited after inserting some records. I have divided the query to make it simple and using linq to remove complexity of query. now I am inserting records using for loop. there are approx 10000 records. Again, same problem. I put a breakpoint after loop, but No hit. I have used try catch, but no error found. For Each item In lstSelDel Try qry = String.Format("insert into Table(Id,link,file1,file2,pID) values ({0},""{1}"",""{2}"",""{3}"",{4})", item.WebInfoID, item.Links, item.Name, item.pName, pDateID) DAL.ExecN(qry) Catch ex As Exception Throw ex End Try Next Public Shared Function ExecN(ByVal SQL As String) As Integer Dim ret As Integer = -1 Dim nowConString As String = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=" + System.AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory + "DataBase\\mydatabase.mdb;" Dim nowCon As System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection nowCon = New System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection(nowConString) Dim cmd As New OleDb.OleDbCommand(SQL, nowCon) nowCon.Open() ret = cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() nowCon.Close() nowCon.Dispose() cmd.Dispose() Return ret End Function After exiting app, I see w3wp.exe uses more than 50% of Memory. Any idea, What is going wrong? Is there any limitation of MS Access?

  Read the article

• How do actually castings work at the CLR level?

  - by devoured elysium

  When doing an upcast or downcast, what does really happen behind the scenes? I had the idea that when doing something as: string myString = "abc"; object myObject = myString; string myStringBack = (string)myObject; the cast in the last line would have as only purpose tell the compiler we are safe we are not doing anything wrong. So, I had the idea that actually no casting code would be embedded in the code itself. It seems I was wrong: .maxstack 1 .locals init ( [0] string myString, [1] object myObject, [2] string myStringBack) L_0000: nop L_0001: ldstr "abc" L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: ldloc.1 L_000a: castclass string L_000f: stloc.2 L_0010: ret Why does the CLR need something like castclass string? There are two possible implementations for a downcast: You require a castclass something. When you get to the line of code that does an castclass, the CLR tries to make the cast. But then, what would happen had I ommited the castclass string line and tried to run the code? You don't require a castclass. As all reference types have a similar internal structure, if you try to use a string on an Form instance, it will throw an exception of wrong usage (because it detects a Form is not a string or any of its subtypes). Also, is the following statamente from C# 4.0 in a Nutshell correct? Upcasting and downcasting between compatible reference types performs reference conversions: a new reference is created that points to the same object. Does it really create a new reference? I thought it'd be the same reference, only stored in a different type of variable. Thanks

  Read the article

• Angularjs throws TypeError: Cannot read property 'indexOf' of undefined

  - by Ali

  I'm trying to debug the above code which I feel like this is very useful .< I can't even find what is wrong in my code and don't really know where to start since Angularjs still very new to me. I'm trying to localize Angularjs app. I know this is missing a lot of context in order to get a help, but I'm trying to see what information that I should give that would help on this debugging. I've gone through any indexOf in angularjs file and I can see few things is undefined but don't know if that would be helpful. So I've traced the problem here and this is what I have figured is the problem, but still counldn't figure out why... config(['$routeProvider', '$locationProvider', function ($routeProvider, $locationProvider) { $routeProvider.when('/:locale?/:username/badges', { templateUrl: '_partials/badges.html', controller: 'badges' }) .when('/:username/badges', { templateUrl: '_partials/badges.html', controller: 'badges' }) .when('/:username/teaching-resources', { templateUrl: '_partials/teaching-resources.html', controller: 'teachingResources' }) .when('/:username/makes', { templateUrl: '_partials/makes.html', controller: 'makes' }) .when('/:username/likes', { templateUrl: '_partials/likes.html', controller: 'likes' }) .when('/:username/events', { templateUrl: '_partials/events.html', controller: 'events' }) .when('/:username', { templateUrl: '_partials/badges.html', controller: 'badges' }); $routeProvider.otherwise({ redirectTo: '/error/404' }); The URL that I'm visiting for default page is: This will fail and throw the error. http://localhost:1969/en-US/user/someUserName This will work fine http://localhost:1969/user/someUserName UPDATE I figured out! This is the problem: $locationProvider.html5Mode(true); But why!?

  Read the article

• MySQL Can Connect Remotely but not Locally

  - by A Wizard Did It

  This is a weird problem and I'm not sure what's going on. I installed MySQL on a linux box I have running Ubuntu 10.04 LTS. I can access mysql via SSH mysql -p and perform all my commands that way. I added a user, and I can use AddedUser to connect remotely from my machine, but not from the local machine. It makes no sense to me... SELECT host, user FROM mysql.user Yields: +-----------+------------------+ | host | user | +-----------+------------------+ | % | AddedUser | | 127.0.0.1 | root | | li241-255 | root | | localhost | debian-sys-maint | | localhost | root | +-----------+------------------+ Problem is I'm developing on this machine using Node.js, and I can't connect locally from the server using the same username. I've tried FLUSH PRIVILEGES but that seems to have no effect. I know it's not Node.js because I'm using the same code on another database and it's working in that environment. Edit This is the error node is giving me. node.js:50 throw e; // process.nextTick error, or 'error' event on first tick ^ Error: ECONNREFUSED, Connection refused at Stream._onConnect (net.js:687:18) at IOWatcher.onWritable [as callback] (net.js:284:12) Edit 2 I have the right port & server as best I can tell. My /etc/mysql/my.cnf contains this: port = 3306 socket = /var/run/mysqld/mysqld.sock My MySQL object contains: { host: 'localhost', port: 3306, user: 'removed', password: 'removed', database: '', typeCast: true, flags: 260047, maxPacketSize: 16777216, charsetNumber: 192, debug: false, ending: false, connected: false, _greeting: null, _queue: [], _connection: null, _parser: null, server: 'ExternalIpAddress' } Possibly useful? netstat -ln | grep mysql unix 2 [ ACC ] STREAM LISTENING 1016418 /var/run/mysqld/mysqld.sock

  Read the article

• ASP.NET enum dropdownlist validation

  - by Arun Kumar

  I have got a enum public enum TypeDesc { [Description("Please Specify")] PleaseSpecify, Auckland, Wellington, [Description("Palmerston North")] PalmerstonNorth, Christchurch } I am binding this enum to drop down list using the following code on page_Load protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (TypeDropDownList.Items.Count == 0) { foreach (TypeDesc newPatient in EnumToDropDown.EnumToList<TypeDesc>()) { TypeDropDownList.Items.Add(EnumToDropDown.GetEnumDescription(newPatient)); } } } public static string GetEnumDescription(Enum value) { FieldInfo fi = value.GetType().GetField(value.ToString()); DescriptionAttribute[] attributes = (DescriptionAttribute[])fi.GetCustomAttributes(typeof(DescriptionAttribute), false); if (attributes != null && attributes.Length > 0) return attributes[0].Description; else return value.ToString(); } public static IEnumerable<T> EnumToList<T>() { Type enumType = typeof(T); // Can't use generic type constraints on value types, // so have to do check like this if (enumType.BaseType != typeof(Enum)) throw new ArgumentException("T must be of type System.Enum"); Array enumValArray = Enum.GetValues(enumType); List<T> enumValList = new List<T>(enumValArray.Length); foreach (int val in enumValArray) { enumValList.Add((T)Enum.Parse(enumType, val.ToString())); } return enumValList; } and my aspx page use the following code to validate <asp:DropDownList ID="TypeDropDownList" runat="server" > </asp:DropDownList> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="TypeRequiredValidator" runat="server" ControlToValidate="TypeDropDownList" ErrorMessage="Please Select a City" Text="<img src='Styles/images/Exclamation.gif' />" ValidationGroup="city"></asp:RequiredFieldValidator> But my validation is accepting "Please Specify" as city name. I want to stop user to submit if the city is not selected.

  Read the article

• What's an effective way to move data from one open browser tab to another?

  - by slk

  I am looking for a quick way to grab some data off of one Web page and throw it into another. I don't have access to the query string in the URL of the second page, so passing the data that way is not an option. Right now, I am using a Greasemonkey user script in tandem with a JS bookmarklet trigger: javascript:doIt(); // ==UserScript== // @include public_site // @include internal_site // ==/UserScript== if (document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { var datum1 = GM_getValue("d1"); var datum2 = GM_getValue("d2"); } unsafeWindow.doIt = function() { if(document.location.host.match(public_site)) { var d1 = innerHTML of page element 1; var d2 = innerHTML of page element 2; //Next two lines use setTimeout to bypass GM_setValue restriction window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d1", d1);}, 0); window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d2", d2);}, 0); } else if(document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { document.getElementById("field1").value = datum1; document.getElementById("field2").value = datum2; } } While I am open to another method, I would prefer to stay with this basic model if possible, as this is just a small fraction of the code in doIt() which is used on several other pages, mostly to automate date-based form fills; people really like their "magic button." The above code works, but there's an interruption to the workflow: In order for the user to know which page on the public site to grab data from, the internal page has to be opened first. Then, once the GM cookie is set from the public page, the internal page has to be reloaded to get the proper information into the internal page variables. I'm wondering if there's any way to GM_getValue() at bookmarklet-clicktime to prevent the need for a refresh. Thanks!

  Read the article

• passing an "unknown enumeration" to a method

  - by firoso

  I'm currently trying to make a class that can register strings as identifiers and accociate them with different types of Enumerations, these enumerations are being evaluated only in so much that I am ensuring that when it's used, that the parameter passed to broadcast (messageType) is an instance of the associated Enum Type. This would work something like this: Diagnostics.RegisterIdentifier("logger", typeof(TestEnum)); Diagnostics.Broadcast("logger", TestEnum.Info, null, "Hello World", null); here's the code I currently have, I need to be able to verify that messageTypesEnum is contained in messageTypesFromIdentifier. private static Dictionary<string, Type> identifierMessageTypeMapping = new Dictionary<string, Type>(); private static List<IListener> listeners = new List<IListener>(); public static void RegisterIdentifier(string identifier, Type messageTypesEnum) { if (messageTypesEnum.BaseType.FullName == "System.Enum") { identifierMessageTypeMapping.Add(identifier, messageTypesEnum); } else { throw new ArgumentException("Expected type of messageTypesEnum to derive from System.Enum", "messageTypesEnum"); } } public static void Broadcast(string identifier, object messageType, string metaIdentifier, string message, Exception exception) { if (identifierMessageTypeMapping.ContainsKey(identifier)) { Type messageTypesFromIdentifier = identifierMessageTypeMapping[identifier]; foreach (var listener in listeners) { DiagnosticsEvent writableEvent = new DiagnosticsEvent(identifier, messageType, metaIdentifier, message, exception); listener.Write(writableEvent); } } }

  Read the article

• Can a WebServiceHost be changed to avoid the use of HttpListener?

  - by sbyse

  I am looking for a way to use a WCF WebServiceHost without having to rely on the HttpListener class and it's associated permission problems (see this question for details). I'm working on a application which communicates locally with another (third-party) application via their REST API. At the moment we are using WCF as an embedded HTTP server. We create a WebServiceHost as follows: String hostPath = "http://localhost:" + portNo; WebServiceHost host = new WebServiceHost(typeof(IntegrationService), new Uri(hostPath)); // create a webhttpbinding for rest/pox and enable cookie support for session management WebHttpBinding webHttpBinding = new WebHttpBinding(); webHttpBinding.AllowCookies = true; ServiceEndpoint ep = host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IIntegrationService), webHttpBinding, ""); host.Open() ChannelFactory<IIntegrationService> cf = new ChannelFactory<IIntegrationService>(webHttpBinding, hostPath); IIntegrationService channel = cf.CreateChannel(); Everything works nicely as long as our application is run as administrator. If we run our application on a machine without administrative privileges the host.Open() will throw an HttpListenerException with ErrorCode == 5 (ERROR_ACCESS_DENIED). We can get around the problem by running httpcfg.exe from the command line but this is a one-click desktop application and that's not really as long term solution for us. We could ditch WCF and write our own HTTP server but I'd like to avoid that if possible. What's the easiest way to replace HttpListener with a standard TCP socket while still using all of the remaining HTTP scaffolding that WCF provides?

  Read the article

• odd behavior with C# ftp client class

  - by geoff

  I found an ftp client class in c# over a year ago and have been using it in a process that uploads files on a nightly basis. A few days ago we started having a problem where it would time out. I'm not well versed in this so I'm not sure why it's doing this. When the program starts uploading a file it checks to see if it's logged in and if not, it calls the login method. In that method is this block of code. if (this.resultCode != 230) { this.sendCommand("PASS " + password); if (!(this.resultCode == 230 || this.resultCode == 202)) { this.cleanup(); throw new FtpException(this.result.Substring(4)); } } On the line that says this.sendCommand("PASS"... it goes into this code. private void sendCommand(String command) { if (this.verboseDebugging) Debug.WriteLine(command, "FtpClient"); Byte[] cmdBytes = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes((command + "\r\n").ToCharArray()); clientSocket.Send(cmdBytes, cmdBytes.Length, 0); this.readResponse(); } If I let the program run, it times out. However if I step through it into the sendCommand method it executes fine. Does anyone know why it would work fine when I step through it? Nothing on our end has changed and I've been told nothing on the client's end has changed so I'm stumped. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Spring MVC 3.0 Rest problem

  - by Gidogeek

  Hi Guys, I'm trying out Spring MVC 3.0 for the first time and like to make it RESTfull. This is my controller: @Controller @RequestMapping(value = "/product") @SessionAttributes("product") public class ProductController { @Autowired private ProductService productService; public void setProductValidator(ProductValidator productValidator, ProductService productService) { this.productService = productService; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public Product create() { //model.addAttribute(new Product()); return new Product(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Product product, BindingResult result) { if (result.hasErrors()) { return "product/create"; } productService.add(product); return "redirect:/product/show/" + product.getId(); } @RequestMapping(value = "/show/{id}", method = RequestMethod.GET) public Product show(@PathVariable int id) { Product product = productService.getProductWithID(id); if (product == null) { //throw new ResourceNotFoundException(id); } return product; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public List<Product> list() { return productService.getProducts(); } } I have 2 questions about this. I'm a believer in Convention over Configuration and therefor my views are in jsp/product/ folder and are called create.jsp , list.jsp and show.jsp this works relatively well until I add the @PathVariable attribute. When I hit root/product/show/1 I get the following error: ../jsp/product/show/1.jsp" not found how do I tell this method to use the show.jsp view ? If I don't add the RequestMapping on class level my show method will be mapped to root/show instead of root/owner/show how do I solve this ? I'd like to avoid using the class level RequestMapping.

  Read the article

• Can we manipulate (subtract) the value of a property while template bidning?

  - by Subhen

  Hi, I am currently defining few grids as following: <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height-Height/5}"/> <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height/15}"/> <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height/20}"/> <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height/6}"/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> While the division works fine , the subtraction isn't yielding the output. Ialso tried like following: <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height-(Height/5)}"/> Still no result. Any suggestions plz. Thanks, Subhen ** Update ** Now In My XAML I tried implementing the IvalueConverter like : <RowDefinition Height="{TemplateBinding Height, Converter={StaticResource heightConverter}}"/> Added the reference as <local:medieElementHeight x:Key="heightConverter"/> In side generic.cs I have coded as following: public class medieElementHeight : IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { //customVideoControl objVdeoCntrl=new customVideoControl(); double custoMediaElementHeight = (double)value;//objVdeoCntrl.customMediaPlayer.Height; double mediaElementHeight = custoMediaElementHeight - (custoMediaElementHeight / 5); return mediaElementHeight; } #region IValueConverter Members object IValueConverter.ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } #endregion } But getting the exception Unknown Element Height in the element RowDefination.

  Read the article

• Returning pointers in a thread-safe way.

  - by Roddy

  Assume I have a thread-safe collection of Things (call it a ThingList), and I want to add the following function. Thing * ThingList::findByName(string name) { return &item[name]; // or something similar.. } But by doing this, I've delegated the responsibility for thread safety to the calling code, which would have to do something like this: try { list.lock(); // NEEDED FOR THREAD SAFETY Thing *foo = list.findByName("wibble"); foo->Bar = 123; list.unlock(); } catch (...) { list.unlock(); throw; } Obviously a RAII lock/unlock object would simplify/remove the try/catch/unlocks, but it's still easy for the caller to forget. There are a few alternatives I've looked at: Return Thing by value, instead of a pointer - fine unless you need to modify the Thing Add function ThingList::setItemBar(string name, int value) - fine, but these tend to proliferate Return a pointerlike object which locks the list on creation and unlocks it again on destruction. Not sure if this is good/bad practice... What's the right approach to dealing with this?

  Read the article

• Am I encrypting my passwords correctly in ASP.NET

  - by Nick

  I have a security class: public class security { private static string createSalt(int size) { //Generate a random cryptographic number RNGCryptoServiceProvider rng = new RNGCryptoServiceProvider(); byte[] b = new byte[size]; rng.GetBytes(b); //Convert to Base64 return Convert.ToBase64String(b); } /// <summary> /// Generate a hashed password for comparison or create a new one /// </summary> /// <param name="pwd">Users password</param> /// <returns></returns> public static string createPasswordHash(string pwd) { string salt = "(removed)"; string saltAndPwd = string.Concat(pwd, salt); string hashedPwd = FormsAuthentication.HashPasswordForStoringInConfigFile( saltAndPwd, "sha1"); return hashedPwd; } } This works fine, but I am wondering if it is sufficient enough. Also, is this next block of code better? Overkill? static byte[] encrInitVector = new byte[] { 0x12, 0x34, 0x56, 0x78, 0x90, 0xAB, 0xCD, 0xEF }; static string encrKey = "(removed)"; public static string EncryptString(string s) { byte[] key; try { key = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(encrKey.Substring(0, 8)); DESCryptoServiceProvider des = new DESCryptoServiceProvider(); byte[] inputByteArray = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(s); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); CryptoStream cs = new CryptoStream(ms, des.CreateEncryptor(key, encrInitVector), CryptoStreamMode.Write); cs.Write(inputByteArray, 0, inputByteArray.Length); cs.FlushFinalBlock(); return Convert.ToBase64String(ms.ToArray()); } catch (Exception e) { throw e; }

  Read the article

• DO NOT BOTHER. THE PROBLEM IS NOT TRANSACTIONS. DUNNO HOW TO CLOSE / DELETE

  - by matti

  THE PROBLEM IS SOLVED. I DUNNO HOW TO CLOSE THIS QUESTION. ANOTHER SERVICE IS PROPABLY RUNNING AT ALMOST SAME SYNC THAT DOES THE THING. MY WORK "MATE" WILL HEAR A THING OR TWO IN THE MORNING. I have following code in windows service: data is in the dataset and it has been populated earlier and then rows are updated and inserted to dataset tables before calling code below. using (dataSetTxn = _cnctn.BeginTransaction()) { try { _somePlanAdptr.UpdateCommand.Transaction = dataSetTxn; _someLogAdptr.InsertCommand.Transaction = dataSetTxn; _someLinkAdptr.InsertCommand.Transaction = dataSetTxn; _someDataAdptr.InsertCommand.Transaction = dataSetTxn; _log.WriteDebug("Updating SomePlanAction"); _somePlanAdptr.Update(_ofDataSet, "SomePlanAction"); _log.WriteDebug(string.Format("Inserting {0} rows to SomeLog")); //error _someLogAdptr.Update(_ofDataSet, "SomeLog"); _log.WriteDebug(string.Format("Updating SomeLink with {0} rows", _ofDataSet.Tables["SomeLink"].Rows.Count)); _someLinkAdptr.Update(_ofDataSet, "SomeLink"); _log.WriteDebug(string.Format("Updating SomeData with {0} rows", _ofDataSet.Tables["SomeData"].Rows.Count)); _someDataAdptr.Update(_ofDataSet, "SomeData"); _log.WriteDebug("Commiting all changes to database."); dataSetTxn.Commit(); } catch (Exception e) { _log.WriteError("Updating database failed -> rollback", e); if (dataSetTxn != null && _cnctn.State == ConnectionState.Open) dataSetTxn.Rollback(); throw e; } } so one of the lines causes an exception log.WriteDebug(string.Format("Inserting {0} rows to SomeLog")); //error still the first adapter's data is updated to database. when debugged the data is not yet updated until the method that calls all (including this bit) exits. The method that does all is timed with System.Threading.Timer. Thanks & BR -Matti

  Read the article

• How to lazy process an xml documentwith hexpat?

  - by Florian

  In my search for a haskell library that can process large (300-1000mb) xml files i came across hexpat. There is an example in the Haskell Wiki that claims to -- Process document before handling error, so we get lazy processing. For testing purposes i have redirected the output to /dev/null and throw a 300mb file at it. Memory consumption kept rising until i had to kill the process. Now i removed the error handling from the process function: process :: String -> IO () process filename = do inputText <- L.readFile filename let (xml, mErr) = parse defaultParseOptions inputText :: (UNode String, Maybe XMLParseError) hFile <- openFile "/dev/null" WriteMode L.hPutStr hFile $ format xml hClose hFile return () As a result the function now uses constant memory. Why does the error handling result in massive memory consumption? As far as i understand xml and mErr are two seperate unevaluated thunks after the call to parse. Does format xml evaluate xml and build the evaluation tree of 'mErr'? If yes is there a way to handle the error while using constant memory? http://www.haskell.org/haskellwiki/Hexpat/

  Read the article

• Need help with many-to-many relationships....

  - by yuudachi

  I have a student and faculty table. The primary key for student is studendID (SID) and faculty's primary key is facultyID, naturally. Student has an advisor column and a requested advisor column, which are foreign key to faculty. That's simple enough, right? However, now I have to throw in dates. I want to be able to view who their advisor was for a certain quarter (such as 2009 Winter) and who they had requested. The result will be a table like this: Year | Term | SID | Current | Requested ------------------------------------------------ 2009 | Winter | 860123456 | 1 | NULL 2009 | Winter | 860445566 | 3 | NULL 2009 | Winter | 860369147 | 5 | 1 And then if I feel like it, I could also go ahead and view a different year and a different term. I am not sure how these new table(s) will look like. Will there be a year table with three columns that are Fall, Spring and Winter? And what will the Fall, Spring, Winter table have? I am new to the art of tables, so this is baffling me... Also, I feel I should clarify how the site works so far now. Admin can approve student requests, and what happens is that the student's current advisor gets overwritten with their request. However, I think I should not do that anymore, right?

  Read the article

• How to Implement an Interface that Requires Duplicate Member Names?

  - by Will Marcouiller

  I often have to implement some interfaces such as IEnumerable<T> in my code. Each time, when implementing automatically, I encounter the following: public IEnumerator<T> GetEnumerator() { // Code here... } public IEnumerator GetEnumerator1() { // Code here... } Though I have to implement both GetEnumerator() methods, they impossibly can have the same name, even if we understand that they do the same, somehow. The compiler can't treat them as one being the overload of the other, because only the return type differs. When doing so, I manage to set the GetEnumerator1() accessor to private. This way, the compiler doesn't complaint about not implementing the interface member, and I simply throw a NotImplementedException within the method's body. However, I wonder whether it is a good practice, or if I shall proceed differently, as perhaps a method alias or something like so. What is the best approach while implementing an interface such as IEnumerable<T> that requires the implementation of two different methods with the same name? EDIT #1 Does VB.NET reacts differently from C# while implementing interfaces, since in VB.NET it is explicitly implemented, thus forcing the GetEnumerator1(). Here's the code: Public Function GetEnumerator() As System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerator(Of T) Implements System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable(Of T).GetEnumerator // Code here... End Function Public Function GetEnumerator1() As System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerator Implements System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable.GetEnumerator // Code here... End Function Both GetEnumerator() methods are explicitly implemented, and the compile will refuse them to have the same name. Why?

  Read the article

• How can I control UISlider Value Changed-events frequncy?

  - by Albert

  I'm writing an iPhone app that is using two uisliders to control values that are sent using coreBluetooth. If I move the sliders quickly one value freezes at the receiver, presumably because the Value Changed events trigger so often that the write-commands stack up and eventually get thrown away. How can I make sure the events don't trigger too often? Edit: Here is a clarification of the problem; the bluetooth connection sends commands every 105ms. If the user generates a bunch of events during that time they seem to que up. I would like to throw away any values generated between the connection events and just send one every 105ms. This is basically what I'm doing right now: -(IBAction) sliderChanged:(UISlider *)sender{ static int8_t value = 0; int8_t new_value = (int8_t)sender.value; if ( new_value > value + threshold || new_value < value - threshold ) { value = new_value; [btDevice writeValue:value]; } } What I'm asking is how to implement something like -(IBAction) sliderChanged:(UISlider *)sender{ static int8_t value = 0; if (105msHasPassed) { int8_t new_value = (int8_t)sender.value; if ( new_value > value + threshold || new_value < value - threshold ) { value = new_value; [btDevice writeValue:value]; } } }

  Read the article

• Treating differential operator as algebraic entity

  - by chappar

  I know that this question is offtopic and don't belong here. But i didn't know somewhere else to ask. So here is the question. I was reading e:the story of a number by Eli Maor, where he treats differential operator as just like any algebraic entity. For example if we have a differential equation like y’’ + 5y’ - 6y = 0. This can be treaed as (D^2 + 5D – 6)y = 0. So, either y = 0 (trivial solution) or (D^2 + 5D – 6) = 0. Factoring out above equation we get (D-1)(D+6)= 0 with solutions as D = 1 and D = -6. Since D does not have any meaning on its own, multiplying by y on both the sides we get Dy = y and Dy = -6y for which the solutions are Ae^x and Be^-6x. Combining these 2 solutions we get Ae^x + Be^-6x. Now my doubt is this approach break when we have an equation like D^2y = 0. Which means y = 0 (again trivial) or D^2 = 0 which means D = 0. Now Dy = y*0 = 0. That means y = C ( a constant). The actual answer should be Cx. I know that it is stupidity to treat D^2 = 0 as D = 0, it led me to doubt the entire process of treating differential equation as algebraic equation. Can someone throw light on this? Or any other site where i might get answer?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137  | Next Page >