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  • Regex problem in Java in code sample

    - by JaneNY
    I have job with regex in my expressions: example !(FA1_A.i & FA1_M.i) I have operators ! ( ) & | operands have names [a-zA-Z_]*.[a-zA-Z_] I wrote in Java to split on tokens, but it doesn't split on operators and operands If should be !, (, FA1_A.i, &, FA1_m.i, ) . Can anybody tell me what is wrong ? String stringOpеrator = "([!|&()])"; String stringOperand = "(([a-zA-Z_]*)\\.([a-zA-Z_]*))"; String reg=stringOpеrator+"|"+stringOperand; Pattern pattern = Pattern.compile(reg); Matcher m = pattern.matcher(expression); // System.out.println("func: " + function + " item: " + item); while (m.find()) { int a=m.start(); int b=m.end(); String test=expression.substring(m.start(), m.end()); String g=test; tokens.add(new Token(expression.substring(m.start() , m.end()))); //m = pattern.matcher(expression); }

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  • How can I run a local Windows Application and have the output be piped into the Browser.

    - by Trey Sherrill
    I have Windows Application (.EXE file is written in C and built with MS-Visual Studio), that outputs ASCII text to stdout. I’m looking to enhance the ASCII text to include limited HTML with a few links. I’d like to invoke this application (.EXE File) and take the output of that application and pipe it into a Browser. This is not a one time thing, each new web page would be another run of the Local Application! The HTML/java-script application below has worked for me to execute the application, but the output has gone into a DOS Box windows and not to pipe it into the Browser. I’d like to update this HTML Application to enable the Browser to capture that text (that is enhanced with HTML) and display it with the browser. <body> <script> function go() { w = new ActiveXObject("WScript.Shell"); w.run('C:/DL/Browser/mk_html.exe'); return true; } </script> <form> Run My Application (Window with explorer only) <input type="button" value="Go" onClick="return go()"> </FORM> </body>

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  • Using $.get with jquery validation

    - by Jimmy McCarthy
    I'm trying to use the Jquery builtin validator on my page. The issue is that I have certain fields that only are required if the JobID (entered into another field) does not already exist in our database. I have a simple service which simply takes JobID and returns True or False based on whether the JobID exists, but I can't seem to get this information where I want it. Some sample code: $("#dep_form").validate({ rules: { JobID: { required: true, digits: true, minlength: 3 }, OrgName: { required: function(element) { //This field is required if the JobID is new. return $("#jobinfo").html().length==15; } } }, messages: { JobID: { required: "Enter a Job Number.", digits: "Only numbers are allowed in Job ID's.", minlength: "Job Number must be at least 3 digits" }, OrgName: { required: "Select a Practice from the dropdown list." } }, errorClass: "ui-state-error-input", errorLabelContainer: "#errorbox", errorElement: 'li', errorContainer: "#validation_errors", onfocusout: false, onkeyup: false, focusinvalid: false }; Currently, I'm using a lazy method to validate (shown above). However, I now have access to a service using the URL: var lookupurl = "/deposits/jobidvalidate/?q=" + $("#id_JobID").val() + "&t=" + new Date().getTime(); which is a page which will contain just the word True or False based on whether that given JobID exists. I've tried half a dozen different ways of setting variables and calling functions within functions and still cannot get a way to simply return the value of that page (which I've been trying to access with $.get() ) to my validator, so that required is set to true when the Job does not exist and false if the job already exists. Any suggestions? Thanks.

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  • Specify which xml file to load when link is clicked

    - by Jason
    Good morning, I would like it so when a link is clicked on the homepage it would load a particular xml file into the next page (the page is called category-list.apsx). This category list page uses the Repeater Control method to display the xml details on the page. I used the example shown here: http://www.w3schools.com/aspnet/aspnet_repeater.asp So at the moment the repeater script looks like: <script runat="server"> sub Page_Load if Not Page.IsPostBack then dim mycategories=New DataSet mycategories.ReadXml(MapPath("categories.xml")) categories.DataSource=mycategories categories.DataBind() end if end sub </script> After doing some research I did find someone with the same problem and the solution was to insert #tags as part of the link on the homepage (i.e. category-list.apsx#company1results) and then some script on the list page to pick up the correct xml file: <script type="text/javascript"> var old_onload = window.onload; // Play it safe by respecting onload handlers set by other scripts. window.onload=function() { var categories = document.location.href.substring(document.location.href.indexOf("#")+1); loadXMLDoc('XML/'+categories+'.xml'); old_onload(); } </script> This was from the following link: http://www.hotscripts.com/forums/javascript/45641-solved-specify-xml-file-load-when-click-link.html How can I get these two scripts to connect with each other? Thank you for your time

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  • Accessing an iFrame's dom from a Firefox Extension

    - by luisgo
    Hi all, I've spent a long time trying different things to get this to work but nothing does and documentation is not helping much. I'm trying to populate a form inside an iframe that I dynamically inject into a page. To inject that iframe I do: myObject.iframe = document.createElement("iframe"); myObject.iframe.setAttribute("src", data.url); myObject.iframe.setAttribute("id","extension-iframe"); myObject.window.document.getElementById('publisher').appendChild(myObject.iframe); myObject.iframe.addEventListener("load", function(){ myObject.populate(data); }, false); which works fine and DOES trigger the populate() method. My problem is getting the document or window objects for that iframe. I've tried all of the following: myObject.iframe.window myObject.iframe.document myObject.iframe.content but these are all undefined. I also tried passing the event object to that iframe's load event listener and then doing: event.originalTarget But that didn't work either. I am reading the following documentation: https://developer.mozilla.org/En/Working%5Fwith%5Fwindows%5Fin%5Fchrome%5Fcode https://developer.mozilla.org/en/Code%5Fsnippets/Interaction%5Fbetween%5Fprivileged%5Fand%5Fnon-privileged%5Fpages But either I'm not understanding it or it's just not properly explained. Can anyone shed some light? Thanks!

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  • Memcache key generation strategy

    - by Maxim Veksler
    Given function f1 which receives n String arguments, would be considered better random key generation strategy for memcache for the scenario described below ? Our Memcache client does internal md5sum hashing on the keys it gets public class MemcacheClient { public Object get(String key) { String md5 = Md5sum.md5(key) // Talk to memcached to get the Serialization... return memcached(md5); } } First option public static String f1(String s1, String s2, String s3, String s4) { String key = s1 + s2 + s3 + s4; return get(key); } Second option /** * Calculate hash from Strings * * @param objects vararg list of String's * * @return calculated md5sum hash */ public static String stringHash(Object... strings) { if(strings == null) throw new NullPointerException("D'oh! Can't calculate hash for null"); MD5 md5sum = new MD5(); // if(prevHash != null) // md5sum.Update(prevHash); for(int i = 0; i < strings.length; i++) { if(strings[i] != null) { md5sum.Update("_" + strings[i] + "_"); // Convert to String... } else { // If object is null, allow minimum entropy by hashing it's position md5sum.Update("_" + i + "_"); } } return md5sum.asHex(); } public static String f1(String s1, String s2, String s3, String s4) { String key = stringHash(s1, s2, s3, s4); return get(key); } Note that the possible problem with the second option is that we are doing second md5sum (in the memcache client) on an already md5sum'ed digest result. Thanks for reading, Maxim.

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  • jquery slide to attribute with specific data attribute value

    - by Alex M
    Ok, so I have the following nav with absolute urls: <ul class="nav navbar-nav" id="main-menu"> <li class="first active"><a href="http://example.com/" title="Home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="http://example.com/about.html" title="About">About</a></li> <li><a href="http://example.com/portfolio.html" title="Portfolio">Portfolio</a></li> <li class="last"><a href="example.com/contact.html" title="Contact">Contact</a></li> </ul> and then articles with the following data attributes: <article class="row page" id="about" data-url="http://example.com/about.html"> <div class="one"> </div> <div class="two" </div> </article> and when you click the link in the menu I would like to ignore the fact it is a hyperlink and slide to the current article based on its attribute data-url. I started with what I think is the obvious: $('#main-menu li a').on('click', function(event) { event.preventDefault(); var pageUrl = $(this).attr('href'); )}; and have tried find and animate but then I don't know how to reference the article with data-url="http://example.com/about.html". Any help would be most appreciated. Thanks

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  • Small-o(n^2) implementation of Polynomial Multiplication

    - by AlanTuring
    I'm having a little trouble with this problem that is listed at the back of my book, i'm currently in the middle of test prep but i can't seem to locate anything regarding this in the book. Anyone got an idea? A real polynomial of degree n is a function of the form f(x)=a(n)x^n+?+a1x+a0, where an,…,a1,a0 are real numbers. In computational situations, such a polynomial is represented by a sequence of its coefficients (a0,a1,…,an). Assuming that any two real numbers can be added/multiplied in O(1) time, design an o(n^2)-time algorithm to compute, given two real polynomials f(x) and g(x) both of degree n, the product h(x)=f(x)g(x). Your algorithm should **not** be based on the Fast Fourier Transform (FFT) technique. Please note it needs to be small-o(n^2), which means it complexity must be sub-quadratic. The obvious solution that i have been finding is indeed the FFT, but of course i can't use that. There is another method that i have found called convolution, where if you take polynomial A to be a signal and polynomial B to be a filter. A passed through B yields a shifted signal that has been "smoothed" by A and the resultant is A*B. This is supposed to work in O(n log n) time. Of course i am completely unsure of implementation. If anyone has any ideas of how to achieve a small-o(n^2) implementation please do share, thanks.

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  • Send post request from client to node.js

    - by Husar
    In order to learn node.js I have built a very simple guestbook app. There is basically just a comment form and a list of previous comments. Currently the app is client side only and the items are stored within local storage. What I want to do is send the items to node where I will save them using Mongo DB. The problem is I have not yet found a way to establish a connection to send data back and forth the client and node.js using POST requests. What I do now is add listeners to the request and wait for data I send: request.addListener('data', function(chunk) { console.log("Received POST data chunk '"+ chunk + "'."); }); On the client side I send the data using a simple AJAX request: $.ajax({ url: '/', type: 'post', dataType: 'json', data: 'test' }) This does not work at all in them moment. It could be that I don't know what url to place in the AJAX request 'url' parameter. Or the whole thing might just be the build using the wrong approach. I have also tried implementing the method described here, but also with no success. It would really help if anyone can share some tips on how to make this work (sending POST request from the client side to node and back) or share any good tutorials. thanks.

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  • bitset to dynamic bitset

    - by mr.bio
    Hi.. I have a function where i use bitset.Now i need to convert it to a dynamic bitset.. but i don't know how. Can somebody help me ? set<string> generateCandidates(set<string> ck,unsigned int k){ set<string> nk ; for (set<string>::const_iterator p = ck.begin( );p != ck.end( ); ++p){ for (set<string>::const_iterator q = ck.begin( );q != ck.end( ); ++q){ bitset<4> bs1(*p); bitset<4> bs2(*q); bs1|= bs2 ; if(bs1.count() == k){ nk.insert(bs1.to_string<char,char_traits<char>,allocator<char> >()); } } } return nk; }

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  • Can't get SFTP to work in PHP

    - by Chris Kloberdanz
    I am writing a simple SFTP client in PHP because we have the need to programatically retrieve files via n remote servers. I am using the PECL SSH2 extension. I have run up against a road block, though. The documentation on php.net suggests that you can do this: $stream = fopen("ssh2.sftp://$sftp/path/to/file", 'r'); However, I have an ls method that attempts to something similar public function ls($dir) { $rd = "ssh2.sftp://{$this->sftp}/$dir"; $handle = opendir($rd); if (!is_resource($handle)) { throw new SFTPException("Could not open directory."); } while (false !== ($file = readdir($handle))) { if (substr($file, 0, 1) != '.'){ print $file . "\n"; } } closedir($handle); } I get the following error: PHP Warning: opendir(): Unable to open ssh2.sftp://Resource id #5/outgoing on remote host This makes perfect sense because that's what happens when you cast a resource to string. Is the documentation wrong? I tried replacing the resource with host, username, and host and that didn't work either. I know the path is correct because I can run SFTP from the command line and it works fine. Has anyone else tried to use the SSH2 extenstion with SFTP? Am I missing something obvious here? UPDATE: I setup sftp on another machine in-house and it works just fine. So, there must be something about the server I am trying to connect to that isn't working.

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  • Update one-to-many EntityKey using Foreign Key

    - by User.Anonymous
    To use by the easiest way Entity Framework, I use partial class to add Foreign Key on most important Entities Model. For example, I have an Entity "CONTACT" which have "TITLE", "FUNCTION" and others. When I update a CONTACT, with this code, Foreign Key are automatically updated : public int? TitId { get { if (this.TITLE_TIT != null) return TITLE_TIT.TIT_ID; return new Nullable<int>(); } set { this.TITLE_TITReference.EntityKey = new System.Data.EntityKey("Entities.TITLE_TIT", "TIT_ID", value); } } But I have a join with ACTIVITY, that can have many CONTACT, and I don't know how to update EntityKey on setters. public IEnumerable<EntityKeyMember> ActId { get { List<EntityKeyMember> lst = new List<EntityKeyMember>(); if (this.ACT_CON2 != null) { foreach (ACT_CON2 id in this.ACT_CON2.ToList()) { EntityKeyMember key = new EntityKeyMember(id.CON_ID.ToString(),id.ACT_ID); lst.Add(key); } } return lst; } set { this.ACT_CON2.EntityKey = new System.Data.EntityKey("Entities.ACT_CON2", value); } } How set many EntityKey ? Thank you.

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  • PHP/Java Bridge - Access Java objects in PHP

    - by Omer Hassan
    I have a Red5 application which defines some public Java methods. When I start the server, an object of the application class gets created. I am trying to call the public methods of the application class from PHP using the existing instance of the Java application class. So here's my Java application: public class App extends org.red5.server.adapter.ApplicationAdapter { public boolean appStart(IScope app) { // This method gets called when the application starts // and an object of this App class is created. return true; } // This is the method I would like to call from PHP. public void f() { } } From PHP, I would like to get access to the App object that is created and call the method f() on it. I have tried playing around with this thing called "context". So in the Java method App.appStart(), I did this: // Save a reference to this App object to be retrieved later in PHP. new PhpScriptContextFactory().getContext().put("x", this); And in PHP, I tried to access the saved object like this: require_once("http://localhost:5080/JavaBridge/java/Java.inc"); var_dump(java_is_null(java_context()->get("x"))); Unfortunately, the java_is_null() function in PHP returns true. I also tried saving the App object in a static variable of App class but when I access that variable in PHP, its value is null.

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  • SQL Query - group by more than one column, but distinct

    - by Ranhiru
    I have a bidding table, as follows: SellID INT FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES SellItem(SellID), CusID INT FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES Customer(CusID), Amount FLOAT NOT NULL, BidTime DATETIME DEFAULT getdate() Now in my website I need to show the user the current bids; only the highest bid but without repeating the same user. SELECT CusID, Max(Amount) FROM Bid WHERE SellID = 10 GROUP BY CusID ORDER BY Max(Amount) DESC This is the best I have achieved so far. This gives the CusID of each user with the maximum bid and it is ordered ascending. But I need to get the BidTime for each result as well. When I try to put the BidTime in to the query: SELECT CusID, Max(Amount), BidTime FROM Bid WHERE SellID = 10 GROUP BY CusID ORDER BY Max(Amount) DESC I am told that "Column 'Bid.BidTime' is invalid in the select list because it is not contained in either an aggregate function or the GROUP BY clause." Thus I tried: SELECT CusID, Max(Amount), BidTime FROM Bid WHERE SellID = 10 GROUP BY CusID, BidTime ORDER BY Max(Amount) DESC But this returns all the rows. No distinction. Any suggestions on solving this issue?

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  • Remove accents from a JSON response using the raw content.

    - by Pentium10
    This is a follow up of this question: Remove accents from a JSON response. The accepted answer there works for a single item/string of a raw JSON content. But I would like to run a full transformation over the entire raw content of the JSON without parsing each object/array/item. What I've tried is this function removeAccents($jsoncontent) { $obj=json_decode($jsoncontent); // use decode to transform the unicode chars to utf $content=serialize($obj); // serialize into string, so the whole obj structure can be used string as a whole $a = 'ÀÁÂÃÄÅÆÇÈÉÊËÌÍÎÏÐÑÒÓÔÕÖØÙÚÛÜÝÞßàáâãäåæçèéêëìíîïðñòóôõöøùúûýýþÿRr'; $b = 'aaaaaaaceeeeiiiidnoooooouuuuybsaaaaaaaceeeeiiiidnoooooouuuyybyRr'; $content=utf8_decode($content); $jsoncontent = strtr($content, $a, $b); // at this point the accents are removed, and everything is good echo $jsoncontent; $obj=unserialize($jsoncontent); // this unserialization is returning false, probably because we messed up with the serialized string return json_encode($obj); } As you see after I decoded JSON content, I serialized the object to have a string of it, than I remove the accents from that string, but this way I have problem building back the object, as the unserialize stuff returns false. How can I fix this?

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  • Dojo DataGrid, programmatic creation

    - by djna
    I'm trying to create a DataGrid dynamically. Declarative creation is working fine: A source of data: <span dojoType="dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore" jsId="theStore" url="dataonly001.json"> </span> a simple layout: <script type="text/javascript" > var layout = [ { field: 'custId', name: 'Id', } // more items elided ... ]; </script> The grid: <body class="tundra" id="mainbody"> <div id="grid" dojoType="dojox.grid.DataGrid" store="theStore" structure="layout" autoWidth="true" ></div> </body> And I get the grid displayed nicely. Instead, I want to create the grid dynamically. For the sake of figuring out what's broken I've tried to use exactly the same layout and store, removing just teh grid declaration and adding this script: <script type="text/javascript" djConfig="parseOnLoad: true, debugAtAllCosts: true"> dojo.addOnLoad(function(){ // initialise and lay out home page console.log("Have a store:" + theStore); console.log("Have a structure:" + layout); var grid = new dojox.grid.DataGrid({ id:"grid", store : theStore, clientSort : "true", structure : layout }); grid.startup(); dojo.place(grid.domNode, dojo.body(), "first"); }); </script> The effect that I get is a completely empty rectangle is displayed. Using FireBug I can see that the DataGrid widget is created but that it has no rows or columns. So my guess is that the datastore or layout are not being passed correctly. However, it does appear that at the point of creation the values of theStore and layout are correct. Suggestions please, or indeed a working example of a programmic grid might solve the problem.

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  • Detecting death of spawned process using Window CRT

    - by Michael Tiller
    Executive summary: I need a way to determine whether a Windows process I've spawned via _spawnl and am communicating with using FDs from _pipe has died. Details: I'm using the low-level CRT function in Windows (_eof, _read) to communicate with a process that was spawned via a call to _spawnl (with the P_NOWAIT) flag. I'm using _pipe to create file descriptors to communicate with this spawned process and passing those descriptors (the FD #) to it on the command line. It is worth mentioning that I don't control the spawned process. It's a black box to me. It turns out that the process we are spawning occasionally crashes. I'm trying to make my code robust to this by detecting the crash. Unfortunately, I can't see a way to do this. It seems reasonable to me to expect that a call to _eof or _read on one of those descriptors would return an error status (-1) if the process had died. Unfortunately, that isn't the case. It appears that the descriptors have a life of their own independent of the spawned process. So even though the process on the other end is dead, I get no error status on the file descriptor I'm using to communicate with it. I've got the PID for the nested process (returned from the _spanwnl call) but I don't see anything I can do with that. My code works really well except for one thing. I can't detect whether the spawned process is simply busy computing me an answer or has died. If I can use the information from _pipe and _spawnl to determine if the spawned process is dead, I'll be golden. Suggestions very welcome. Thanks in advance. UPDATE: I found a fairly simple solution and added it as the selected answer.

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  • JPA - Setting entity class property from calculated column?

    - by growse
    I'm just getting to grips with JPA in a simple Java web app running on Glassfish 3 (Persistence provider is EclipseLink). So far, I'm really liking it (bugs in netbeans/glassfish interaction aside) but there's a thing that I want to be able to do that I'm not sure how to do. I've got an entity class (Article) that's mapped to a database table (article). I'm trying to do a query on the database that returns a calculated column, but I can't figure out how to set up a property of the Article class so that the property gets filled by the column value when I call the query. If I do a regular "select id,title,body from article" query, I get a list of Article objects fine, with the id, title and body properties filled. This works fine. However, if I do the below: Query q = em.createNativeQuery("select id,title,shorttitle,datestamp,body,true as published, ts_headline(body,q,'ShortWord=0') as headline, type from articles,to_tsquery('english',?) as q where idxfti @@ q order by ts_rank(idxfti,q) desc",Article.class); (this is a fulltext search using tsearch2 on Postgres - it's a db-specific function, so I'm using a NativeQuery) You can see I'm fetching a calculated column, called headline. How do I add a headline property to my Article class so that it gets populated by this query? So far, I've tried setting it to be @Transient, but that just ends up with it being null all the time.

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  • TSQL - How to join 1..* from multiple tables in one resultset?

    - by ElHaix
    A location table record has two address id's - mailing and business addressID that refer to an address table. Thus, the address table will contain up to two records for a given addressID. Given a location ID, I need an sproc to return all tbl_Location fields, and all tbl_Address fields in one resultset: LocationID INT, ClientID INT, LocationName NVARCHAR(50), LocationDescription NVARCHAR(50), MailingAddressID INT, BillingAddressID INT, MAddress1 NVARCHAR(255), MAddress2 NVARCHAR(255), MCity NVARCHAR(50), MState NVARCHAR(50), MZip NVARCHAR(10), MCountry CHAR(3), BAddress1 NVARCHAR(255), BAddress2 NVARCHAR(255), BCity NVARCHAR(50), BState NVARCHAR(50), BZip NVARCHAR(10), BCountry CHAR(3) I've started by creating a temp table with the required fields, but am a bit stuck on how to accomplish this. I could do sub-selects for each of the required address fields, but seems a bit messy. I've already got a table-valued-function that accepts an address ID, and returns all fields for that ID, but not sure how to integrate it into my required result. Off hand, it looks like 3 selects to create this table - 1: Location, 2: Mailing address, 3: Billing address. What I'd like to do is just create a view and use that. Any assistance would be helpful. Thanks.

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  • Django tests failing on invalid keyword argument

    - by Darwin Tech
    I have a models.py like so: from django.db import models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from datetime import datetime class UserProfile(models.Model): user = models.OneToOneField(User) def __unicode__(self): return self.user.username class Project(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(UserProfile) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) product = models.ForeignKey('tool.product') module = models.ForeignKey('tool.module') model = models.ForeignKey('tool.model') zipcode = models.IntegerField(max_length=5) def __unicode__(self): return unicode(self.id) And my tests.py: from django.test import TestCase, Client # --- import app models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from tool.models import Module, Model, Product from user_profile.models import Project, UserProfile # --- unit tests --- # class UserProjectTests(TestCase): fixtures = ['admin_user.json'] def setUp(self): self.product1 = Product.objects.create( name='bar', ) self.module1 = Module.objects.create( name='foo', enable=True ) self.model1 = Model.objects.create( module=self.module1, name='baz', enable=True ) self.user1 = User.objects.get(pk=1) ... def test_can_create_project(self): self.project1 = Model.objects.create( user=self.user1, product=self.product1, module=self.module1, model=self.model1, zipcode=90210 ) self.assertEquals(self.project1.zipcode, 90210) But I get a TypeError: 'product' is an invalid keyword argument for this function error. I'm not sure what is failing but I'm guessing something to do with the FK relationships... Any help would be much appreciated.

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  • #indent "off" in F#

    - by anta40
    I just started learning F#, and tried a code from the wiki: I prefer tabs to spaces, so I change the code a bit into this: #indent "off" open System open System.Windows.Forms let form = new Form(Visible=true, TopMost=true, Text="Welcome to F#") let label = let temp = new Label() let x = 3 + (4 * 5) temp.Text <- sprintf "x = %d" x temp form.Controls.Add(label) [<STAThread>] Application.Run(form) The output is: Microsoft (R) F# 2.0 Compiler build 4.0.30319.1 Copyright (c) Microsoft Corporation. All Rights Reserved. fstest2.fs(1,1): warning FS0062: This construct is for ML compatibility. Conside r using a file with extension '.ml' or '.mli' instead. You can disable this warn ing by using '--mlcompatibility' or '--nowarn:62'. fstest2.fs(9,2): error FS0010: Unexpected keyword 'let' or 'use' in expression. Expected 'in' or other token. fstest2.fs(13,1): error FS0597: Successive arguments should be separated by spac es or tupled, and arguments involving function or method applications should be parenthesized fstest2.fs(9,14): error FS0374: Invalid expression on left of assignment fstest2.fs(16,1): error FS0010: Unexpected identifier in definition Guess the error is somewhere in the let label block, but couldn't figure it out.

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  • Using ReadOnlyCollection preventing me from setting up a bi-directional many-to-many relationship

    - by Kevin Pang
    I'm using NHibernate to persist a many-to-many relation between Users and Networks. I've set up both the User and Network class as follows, exposing each's collections as ReadOnlyCollections to prevent direct access to the underlying lists. I'm trying to make sure that the only way a User can be added to a Network is by using its "JoinNetwork" function. However, I can't seem to figure out how to add the User to the Network's list of users since its collection is readonly. public class User { private ISet<Network> _Networks = new HashedSet<Network>(); public ReadOnlyCollection<Network> Networks { get { return new List<Network>(_Networks).AsReadOnly(); } } public void JoinNetwork(Network network) { _Networks.Add(network); // How do I add the current user to the Network's list of users? } } public class Network { private ISet<User> _Users = new HashedSet<User>(); public ReadOnlyCollection<User> Users { get { return new List<User>(_Users).AsReadOnly(); } } }

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  • MVC view engine that can render classic ASP?

    - by David Lively
    I'm about to start integrating ASP.NET MVC into an existing 200k+ line classic ASP application. Rewriting the existing code (which runs an entire business, not just the public-facing website) is not an option. The existing ASP 3.0 pages are quite nicely structured (given what was available when this model was put into place nearly 15 years ago), like so: <!--#include virtual="/_lib/user.asp"--> <!--#include virtual="/_lib/db.asp"--> <!--#include virtual="/_lib/stats.asp"--> <!-- #include virtual="/_template/topbar.asp"--> <!-- #include virtual="/_template/lftbar.asp"--> <h1>page name</h1> <p>some content goes here</p> <p>some content goes here</p> <p>.....</p> <h2>Today's Top Forum Posts</h2> <%=forum_top_posts(1)%> <!--#include virtual="/_template/footer.asp"--> ... or somesuch. Some pages will include function and sub definitions, but for the most part these exist in include files. I'm wondering how difficult it would be to write an MVC view engine that could render classic ASP, preferably using the existing ASP.DLL. In that case, I could replace <!--#include virtual="/_lib/user.asp"--> with <%= Html.RenderPartial("lib/user"); %> as I gradually move existing pages from ASP to ASP.NET. Since the existing formatting and library includes are used very extensively, they must be maintained. I'd like to avoid having to maintain two separate versions. I know the ideal way to go about this would be to simply start a new app and say to hell with the ASP code, however, that simply ain't gonna happen. Ideas?

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  • C# trying to capture the KeyDown event on a form

    - by Patrick
    Hello! I am creating a small game, the game is printed onto a panel on a windows form. Now i want to capture the keydown event to see if its the arrow keys that has been pressed, the problem however is that i can't seem to capture it. Let me explain, on the form i have 4 buttons and various other controls and if the user for instance press one of the buttons (to trigger a game event) then the button has focus and i can't capture the movements with the arrow keys. I tried something like private void KeyDown(KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left) { game.MovePlayer(DonutWarsLibrary.GameObjects.Direction.E); game.DrawObjects(panel1.CreateGraphics()); } else if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Right) { game.MovePlayer(DonutWarsLibrary.GameObjects.Direction.W); game.DrawObjects(panel1.CreateGraphics()); } else if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Up) { game.MovePlayer(DonutWarsLibrary.GameObjects.Direction.N); game.DrawObjects(panel1.CreateGraphics()); } else if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Down) { game.MovePlayer(DonutWarsLibrary.GameObjects.Direction.S); game.DrawObjects(panel1.CreateGraphics()); } } and then when the form key down event was pressed, i used this private void MainForm_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { KeyDown(e); } I also added keydown for the buttons and the various other controls on the windows form, but i am not getting any response back. I have setup a breakpoint inside the function to see if it's being called, but that breakpoint never triggers? Any ideas? The most optimal was to have a general KeyDown event that triggers (regardless of what control that currently has focus) and then calls the KeyDown method.

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  • 'strcpy' error and warning

    - by Leejo
    I'm getting a 'strcpy' error and warning for the following lines: _tcscpy(strCommandLine,_T("MyProgram.exe /param1")); _tcscpy(strApplicationName,_T("MyProgram.exe")); Not sure why I'm getting a 'strcpy' error or warning since I'm not using 'strcpy'. The only lines related to this is: LPCTSTR strApplicationName; LPTSTR strCommandLine; _tcscpy(strCommandLine,_T("MyProgram.exe /param1")); //warning is on this line _tcscpy(strApplicationName,_T("MyProgram.exe")); //error is on this line The output is: 1c:\documents and settings\X.X\my documents\sandbox\sample.cpp(52) : warning C4996: 'strcpy': This function or variable may be unsafe. Consider using strcpy_s instead. To disable deprecation, use _CRT_SECURE_NO_WARNINGS. See online help for details. 1 c:\program files\microsoft visual studio 8\vc\include\string.h(74) : see declaration of 'strcpy' 1c:\documents and settings\X.X\my documents\sandbox\sample.cpp(53) : error C2664: 'strcpy' : cannot convert parameter 1 from 'LPCTSTR' to 'char *' 1 Conversion loses qualifiers Any ideas on what this could means? These are my headers: iostream windows.h stdio.h tchar.h winnt.h

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