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• iphone - moving from one view to another

  - by codemonkey

  Hi there, I am getting started with iphone development and am trying to move from one view to another. I have a main view (NearestPhotosViewController) which basically acts as a menu for my app. I then have a second view (DisplayNearestPhotos). I come from a web (html) background so what i'm trying to do here in web terms is click a button (link) on the NearestPhotosViewController view to then display the DisplayNearestPhotos view. I have been looking around for some code to do this (I don't think it's as simple as doing the equivelent in html). The following code is hooked up to a button on my menu view. -(IBAction)ButtonPressed:(id)sender { DisplayNearestPhotos *views = [[DisplayNearestPhotos alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; [self presentModalViewController:views animated:YES]; views.release; } The above code works (it displays the second view) but what i'd like to know is, is that the correct way to do it? If not, what is the correct way to move from one view to another? Thank you in advance

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• Password hashing, salt and storage of hashed values

  - by Jonathan Leffler

  Suppose you were at liberty to decide how hashed passwords were to be stored in a DBMS. Are there obvious weaknesses in a scheme like this one? To create the hash value stored in the DBMS, take: A value that is unique to the DBMS server instance as part of the salt, And the username as a second part of the salt, And create the concatenation of the salt with the actual password, And hash the whole string using the SHA-256 algorithm, And store the result in the DBMS. This would mean that anyone wanting to come up with a collision should have to do the work separately for each user name and each DBMS server instance separately. I'd plan to keep the actual hash mechanism somewhat flexible to allow for the use of the new NIST standard hash algorithm (SHA-3) that is still being worked on. The 'value that is unique to the DBMS server instance' need not be secret - though it wouldn't be divulged casually. The intention is to ensure that if someone uses the same password in different DBMS server instances, the recorded hashes would be different. Likewise, the user name would not be secret - just the password proper. Would there be any advantage to having the password first and the user name and 'unique value' second, or any other permutation of the three sources of data? Or what about interleaving the strings? Do I need to add (and record) a random salt value (per password) as well as the information above? (Advantage: the user can re-use a password and still, probably, get a different hash recorded in the database. Disadvantage: the salt has to be recorded. I suspect the advantage considerably outweighs the disadvantage.) There are quite a lot of related SO questions - this list is unlikely to be comprehensive: Encrypting/Hashing plain text passwords in database Secure hash and salt for PHP passwords The necessity of hiding the salt for a hash Clients-side MD5 hash with time salt Simple password encryption Salt generation and Open Source software I think that the answers to these questions support my algorithm (though if you simply use a random salt, then the 'unique value per server' and username components are less important).

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• Clustered index - multi-part vs single-part index and effects of inserts/deletes

  - by Anssssss

  This question is about what happens with the reorganizing of data in a clustered index when an insert is done. I assume that it should be more expensive to do inserts on a table which has a clustered index than one that does not because reorganizing the data in a clustered index involves changing the physical layout of the data on the disk. I'm not sure how to phrase my question except through an example I came across at work. Assume there is a table (Junk) and there are two queries that are done on the table, the first query searches by Name and the second query searches by Name and Something. As I'm working on the database I discovered that the table has been created with two indexes, one to support each query, like so: --drop table Junk1 CREATE TABLE Junk1 ( Name char(5), Something char(5), WhoCares int ) CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name ON Junk1 ( Name ) CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name_Something ON Junk1 ( Name, Something ) Now when I looked at the two indexes, it seems that IX_Name is redundant since IX_Name_Something can be used by any query that desires to search by Name. So I would eliminate IX_Name and make IX_Name_Something the clustered index instead: --drop table Junk2 CREATE TABLE Junk2 ( Name char(5), Something char(5), WhoCares int ) CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name_Something ON Junk2 ( Name, Something ) Someone suggested that the first indexing scheme should be kept since it would result in more efficient inserts/deletes (assume that there is no need to worry about updates for Name and Something). Would that make sense? I think the second indexing method would be better since it means one less index needs to be maintained. I would appreciate any insight into this specific example or directing me to more info on maintenance of clustered indexes.

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• UIPickerView crashing when switching segemented control

  - by Mattog1456

  Hello, I have four NSDictionaries that I would like to use to populate a pickerview depending on a segemented control. With the code I have, the first segmented control/pickerview works fine but when I switch to the second segment the picker view only loads part of the second dictionary, that is it loads the same number of rows as it counted in the first dictionary. When I change the segmented control to the third or fourth segment it simply crashes with a sigabrt error indicating that it cannot index item43 when only 27 exist. This I suspect stems from a UItextfield population based on the upickerview row and object. I think the problem is with the way I have the data source and delegate set up. #pragma mark - #pragma mark UIPickerViewDelegate - (NSString *)pickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView titleForRow:(NSInteger)row forComponent:(NSInteger)component { if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 0) { return [robskeys objectAtIndex:row]; } if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 1) { return [esabskeys objectAtIndex:row]; } if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 2) { return [lebskeys objectAtIndex:row]; } else if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 3) { return [sbskeys objectAtIndex:row]; } return @"Unknown title"; } #pragma mark - #pragma mark UIPickerViewDataSource - (NSInteger)numberOfComponentsInPickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)pickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView numberOfRowsInComponent:(NSInteger)component { if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 0) { return robskeys.count; } if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 1) { return esabskeys.count; } if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 2) { return lebskeys.count; } else if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 3) { return sbskeys.count; } return 1; } #pragma mark - Any help would be much appreciated Thank you

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• Jquery problem - cant expand the row above in a table

  - by apg1985

  Hi People, What I cant figure out is how I would toggle a row in a table using the one below it. So say I have a table with 2 rows the first contains content and the one below contains a button, when the page loads the content row is hidden and when you click the button it toggles the content row on and off. In the example the first table works but the second does not, I need the second one to work. <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Testing Horizontal Accordion</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".sectionhead").toggle( function() { $(this).next("tr").hide(); }, function() { $(this).next("tr").show(); } ) }); </script> </head> <body> <table> <tr class="sectionhead"><td></td></tr> <tr class="child"><td>child</td></tr> </table> <br> <table> <tr class="child"><td>child</td></tr> <tr class="sectionhead"><td></td></tr> </table> </body> </html>

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• Rails - eager load the number of associated records, but not the record themselves.

  - by Max Williams

  I have a page that's taking ages to render out. Half of the time (3 seconds) is spent on a .find call which has a bunch of eager-loaded associations. All i actually need is the number of associated records in each case, to display in a table: i don't need the actual records themselves. Is there a way to just eager load the count? Here's a simplified example: @subjects = Subject.find(:all, :include => [:questions]) In my table, for each row (ie each subject) i just show the values of the subject fields and the number of associated questions for each subject. Can i optimise the above find call to suit these requirements? I thought about using a group field but my full call has a few different associations included, with some second-order associations, so i don't think group by will work. @subjects = Subject.find(:all, :include => [{:questions => :tags}, {:quizzes => :tags}], :order => "subjects.name") :tags in this case is a second-order association, via taggings. Here's my associations in case it's not clear what's going on. Subject has_many :questions has_many :quizzes Question belongs_to :subject has_many :taggings has_many :tags, :through => :taggings Quiz belongs_to :subject has_many :taggings has_many :tags, :through => :taggings Grateful for any advice - max

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• Python creating a dictionary and swapping these into another file

  - by satsurae

  Hi all, I have two tab delimited .csv file. From one.csv I have created a dictionary which looks like: 'EB2430': ' "\t"idnD "\t"yjgV "\t"b4267 "\n', 'EB3128': ' "\t"yagE "\t\t"b0268 "\n', 'EB3945': ' "\t"maeB "\t"ypfF "\t"b2463 "\n', 'EB3944': ' "\t"eutS "\t"ypfE "\t"b2462 "\n', I would like to insert the value of the dictionary into the second.csv file which looks like: "EB2430" 36.81 364 222 4 72 430 101 461 1.00E-063 237 "EB3128" 26.04 169 108 6 42 206 17 172 6.00E-006 45.8 "EB3945" 20.6 233 162 6 106 333 33 247 6.00E-005 42.4 "EB3944" 19.07 367 284 6 1 355 1 366 2.00E-023 103 With a resultant output tab delimited: 'EB2430' idnD yjgV b4267 36.81 364 222 4 72 430 101 461 1.00E-063 237 'EB3128' yagE b0268 26.04 169 108 6 42 206 17 172 6.00E-006 45.8 'EB3945' maeB ypfF b2463 20.6 233 162 6 106 333 33 247 6.00E-005 42.4 'EB3944' eutS ypfE b2462 19.07 367 284 6 1 355 1 366 2.00E-023 103 Here is my code for creating the dictionary: f = open ("one.csv", "r") g = open ("second.csv", "r") eb = [] desc = [] di = {} for line in f: for row in f: eb.append(row[1:7]) desc.append(row[7:]) di = dict(zip(eb,desc)) Sorry for it being so long-winded!! I've not been programming for long. Cheers! Sat

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• Why would the value of the Session object go away?

  - by Michael

  In ASP.NET/VB.NET 2005 I've created a small web app with two forms. In Default there is a button and a text box and a link. When you press the button whatever is in the text box is put into the Session. Protected Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Session("mykey") = Me.TextBox1.Text End Sub When you press the link it's NavigateURL property is "~/Retrieve.aspx" On the Retrieve page it pulls the information out of the Session (that is, whatever you typed in the text box). Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim myValue As String = CType(System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Session("mykey"), String) Response.Write(myValue) End Sub Now it works on my machine and when deployed to the production web-site server if I run the browser remotely there it works fine - What you type on the first page appears on the second page. But when I run it from my machine to the production web server the second page is always blank. Why? It doesnt seem like a timeout issue - brand new web.config taking the defaults. Any pointers would be greatly appreciated! Thanks!

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• Creating Emulated iSCSI Target in a Lab/Testing Environment using Windows Server 2008 R2

  - by Brian McCleary

  We have a single server running Windows Server 2008 with Hyper-V installed running 5 virtual machines. I have purchased a second DELL R805 Server so that we can create a fail-over cluster to our current R805 that is currently in production. Right now, our R805 connects via iSCSI to a MD3000i iSCSI SAN. Before we try to roll out the second server and clustering to our production environment, I want to be able to test and "play with" the clustering features in our lab before rolling it out. The problem is that I don't want to spend a couple thousand dollars on another iSCSI SAN server just for testing. I already have two servers in my lab that are installed with Windows Server 2008 R2 64bit (one is the R805 and another spare desktop that was laying around) and with the Hyper-V roll enabled that should be ready to test with, but I don't have an iSCSI target to use as the Cluster Shared Volume. Is there anyway to install, either on a Hyper-V image or on a external spare computer that we have some sort of emulated iSCSI target? In our lab, we obviously don't need a real SAN, just something that we can test out how to setup the clustering properly outside of our production environment. Any advise is appreciated. FYI - I have read Jose Barret's blog on WUDSS at http://blogs.technet.com/josebda/archive/2008/01/07/installing-the-evaluation-version-of-wudss-2003-refresh-and-the-microsoft-iscsi-software-target-version-3-1-on-a-vm.aspx, but it seems awfully complex. I'm hoping for an easier solution.

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• php multidimensional array as name value pair

  - by Ayad Mfs

  For ecommerce, that expected name value pair I have the following approved code: function create_example_purchase() { set_credentials(); $purchase = array( 'name' => 'Digital Good Purchase Example', 'description' => 'Example Digital Good Purchase', 'amount' => '12.00', // sum of all item_amount 'items' => array( array( // First item 'item_name' => 'First item name', 'item_description' => 'a description of the 1st item', 'item_amount' => '6.00', 'item_tax' => '0.00', 'item_quantity' => 1, 'item_number' => 'XF100', ), array( // Second item 'item_name' => 'Second Item', 'item_description' => 'a description of the 2nd item', 'item_amount' => '3.00', 'item_tax' => '0.00', 'item_quantity' => 2, 'item_number' => 'XJ100', ), ) ); return new Purchase( $purchase); } I would like to get $items Array inside associative $purchase array dynamically from shipping cart. Is there a way to generate exactly the same output above? My dirty solution, to write $purchase array as string inclusive the generated $items array in a file and include it later in the called script. Help appreciated.

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• Join two tables with same # of row but sorted for NULL

  - by VISQL

  I need to join two tables with the same number of rows. Each table has 1 column. There is NO CONNECTING COLUMN to reference for a join. I need to join them side by side because each table was sorted separately so that numeric values are at the top in descinding order. The Table Earners has income values from say 200K down to 0. I cannot just select using 2 cases, because then I will have my first row with Incomes above 100K, but the first 20 or so entries in the second row are NULL. I want the second row to also be sorted descending. I looked up using ORDER BY within CASE but there is no such thing. I have tried to read about row_number() but none of the examples seem to match or make sense. drop table #20plus select case when Income >= 20000 AND Income < 100000 then Income end as 'mula' into #20plus from Earners order by mula desc drop table #100plus select case when Income >= 100000 then Income end as 'dinero' into #100plus from Earners order by dinero desc Select A.dinero, B.mula FROM #100plus as A JOIN #20plus as B ON A.????? = B.????? Since both A and B are sorted descending, moving all NULL to the bottom, what can I reference to join the two tables? Previous output using one SELECT statement with 2 CASE statements dinero mula 2.12688e+007 NULL 1.80031e+007 NULL 1.92415e+006 NULL … … NULL 93530.7 NULL 91000 NULL 84500 Desired output using one SELECT statement after creating two temp TABLES dinero mula 2.12688e+007 93530.7 1.80031e+007 91000 1.92415e+006 84500 … 82500 NULL 82000 NULL … NULL NULL This is Microsoft SQL Server 2008. I'm super new to this, so please give an answer as clear and simplified as possible. Thank you.

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• Boost Unit testing memory reuse causing tests that should fail to pass

  - by Knyphe

  We have started using the boost unit testing library for a large existing code base, and I have run into some trouble with unit tests incorrectly passing, seemingly due to the reuse of memory on the stack. Here is my situation: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { SelectBase selectBase(); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { SelectBase selectBase(true, _T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } The first test passed correctly, initializing all the variables. The constructor in the second unit test did not correctly set EntityType or DataPosition, but the unit test passed. I was able to get it to fail by placing some variables on the stack in the second test, like so: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { int a, b; SelectBase selectBase(true, _T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } If there is only one int, only the dataPos CHECK_EQUAL fails, but if there are two, both EntityType and DataPos fail, so it seems pretty clear that this is an issue with the variables being created on the same stack memory or some such. Is there a good way to clear the memory between each unit test, or am I potentially using the library incorrectly or writing bad tests? Any help would be appreciated.

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• Increment part of a string in Ruby

  - by Rik

  I have a method in a Ruby script that is attempting to rename files before they are saved. It looks like this: def increment (path) if path[-3,2] == "_#" print " Incremented file with that name already exists, renaming\n" count = path[-1].chr.to_i + 1 return path.chop! << count.to_s else print " A file with that name already exists, renaming\n" return path << "_#1" end end Say you have 3 files with the same name being saved to a directory, we'll say the file is called example.mp3. The idea is that the first will be saved as example.mp3 (since it won't be caught by if File.exists?("#{file_path}.mp3") elsewhere in the script), the second will be saved as example_#1.mp3 (since it is caught by the else part of the above method) and the third as example_#2.mp3 (since it is caught by the if part of the above method). The problem I have is twofold. 1) if path[-3,2] == "_#" won't work for files with an integer of more than one digit (example_#11.mp3 for example) since the character placement will be wrong (you'd need it to be path[-4,2] but then that doesn't cope with 3 digit numbers etc). 2) I'm never reaching problem 1) since the method doesn't reliably catch file names. At the moment it will rename the first to example_#1.mp3 but the second gets renamed to the same thing (causing it to overwrite the previously saved file). This is possibly too vague for Stack Overflow but I can't find anything that addresses the issue of incrementing a certain part of a string. Thanks in advance!

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• Is JPA persistence.xml classpath located?

  - by Vinnie

  Here's what I'm trying to do. I'm using JPA persistence in a web application, but I have a set of unit tests that I want to run outside of a container. I have my primary persistence.xml in the META_INF folder of my main app and it works great in the container (Glassfish). I placed a second persistence.xml in the META-INF folder of my test-classes directory. This contains a separate persistence unit that I want to use for test only. In eclipse, I placed this folder higher in the classpath than the default folder and it seems to work. Now when I run the maven build directly from the command line and it attempts to run the unit tests, the persistence.xml override is ignored. I can see the override in the META-INF folder of the maven generated test-classes directory and I expected the maven tests to use this file, but it isn't. My Spring test configuration overrides, achieved in a similar fashion are working. I'm confused at to whether the persistence.xml is located through the classpath. If it were, my override should work like the spring override since the maven surefire plugin explains "[The test class directory] will be included at the beginning the test classpath". Did I wrongly anticipate how the persistence.xml file is located? I could (and have) create a second persistence unit in the production persistence.xml file, but it feels dirty to place test configuration into this production file. Any other ideas on how to achieve my goal is welcome.

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• Using Array Controllers to restrict the view in one popup depending on the selection in another. Not

  - by mjohnh

  I am working on an app that is not core data based - the data feed is a series of web services. Two arrays are created from the data feed. The first holds season data, each array object being an NSDictionary. Two of the NSDictionary entries hold the data to be displayed in the popup ('seasonName') and an id ('seasonID') that acts as a pointer (in an external table) by matches defined for that season. The second array is also a collection of NSDictionaries. Two of the entries hold the data to be displayed in the popup ('matchDescription') and the id ('matchSeasonId') that points to the seasonId defined in the NSDictionaries in first array. I have two NSPopUps. I want the first to display the season names and the second to display the matches defined for that season, depending on the selection in the first. I'm new at bindings, so excuse me if I've missed something obvious. I've tried using ArrayControllers as follows: SeasonsArrayController: content bound to appDelegate seasonsPopUpArrayData. seasonsPopup: content bound to SeasonsArrayController.arrangedObjects; content value bound to SeasonsArrayController.arrangedObjects.seasonName I see the season names fine. I can obviously follow a similar route to see the matches, but I then see them all, instead of restricting the list to the matches for the season highlighted. All the tutorials I can find seem to revolve around core data and utilise the relationships defined therein. I don't have that luxury here. Any help very gratefully received.

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• iPhone xcode - Activity Indicator with tab bar controller and multi table view controllers

  - by Frames84

  I've looked for a tutorial and can't seem to find one for a activity indicator in a table view nav bar. in my mainWindow.xib I have a Tab Bar Controller with 4 Tabs controllers each containing a table view. each load JSON feeds using the framework hosted at Google. In one of my View Controller I can add an activity indicator to the nav bar by using: UIActivityIndicatorView *activityIndcator = [[UIActivityIndicatorView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0,0,20,20)]; [activityIndcator startAnimating]; UIBarButtonItem *activityItem = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithCustomView:activityIndcator]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = activityItem; however and can turn it off by using: self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem.enabled = FALSE; But if i place this in my viewDidLoad event it shows all the time. I only want it to show when I select a row in my table view. so I added it at the top of didSelectRowAtIndexPath and the stop line after I load a feed. it shows but takes a second or two and only shows for about half a second. is the an event that firers before the didSelectRowAtIndexPath event a type of loading event? if not what is the standard menthord for implementing such functionality?

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• Create a new delegate class for each asynchronous image download?

  - by Charles S.

  First, I'm using an NSURLConnection to download JSON data from twitter. Then, I'm using a second NSURLConnection to download corresponding user avatar images (the urls to the images are parsed from the first data download). For the first data connection, I have my TwitterViewController set as the NSURLConnection delegate. I've created a separate class (ImageDownloadDelegate) to function as the delegate for a second NSURLConnection that handles the images. After the tweets are finished downloading, I'm using this code to get the avatars: for(int j=0; j<[self.tweets count]; j++){ ImageDownloadDelegate *imgDelegate = [[ImageDownloadDelegate alloc] init]; Tweet *myTweet = [self.tweets objectAtIndex:j]; imgDelegate.tweet = myTweet; imgDelegate.table = timeline; NSURLRequest* request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:myTweet.imageURL] cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:60]; imgConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:request delegate:imgDelegate]; [imgDelegate release]; } So basically a new instance of the delegate class is created for each image that needs to be downloaded. Is this the best way to go about this? But then there's no way to figure out which image is associate with which tweet, correct? The algorithm works fine... I'm just wondering if I'm going about it the most efficient way.

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• mediaelement.js play/pause on click controls don't work

  - by iKode

  I need to play and pause the video player if any part of the video is clicked, so I implemented something like: $("#promoPlayer").click(function() { $("#promoPlayer").click(function() { if(this.paused){ this.play(); } else { this.pause(); } }); ...but now the controls of the video won't pause/play. You can see it in action here(http://175.107.134.113:8080/). The video is the second slide on the main carousel at the top. I suspect I'm now getting 2 onclick events one from my code above and a second on the actual pause/play button. I don't understand how the actual video controls work, because when I inspect the element, I just see a tag. If I could differentiate the controls, then perhaps I might have figured out a solution by now. Anyone know how I should have done this, or is my solution ok. If my solutions ok, how do I intercept a click on the control, so that I only have one click event to pause / play? If you look on the media element home page, they have a big play button, complete with mouseOver, but I can't see how they have done that? Can someone else help?

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• jQuery .each() function. Resetting the index?

  - by Michael

  Hi there, I have multiple lists with the same class. I'd like to loop each list and its LI's and prepend the current number before each. The current code I have is: $jQuery(".numberList li").each(function(i) { var index = i + 1; $jQuery(this).prepend("<span>" + index + "</span>"); }); The problem is, is that the index doesn't restart back at 0 for each list it goes through, it just keeps going up. For example, the output I get now is: First list 1. item 2. item 3. item Second list 4. item 5. item 6. item Second list should start at 1 again by having the index back at 0. Could someone point out where I'm going wrong? I'm not a jQuery expert or anything...clearly :) Many thanks, Michael.

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• Linux time sample based profiler.

  - by Caspin

  short version: Is there a good time based sampling profiler for Linux? long version: I generally use OProfile to optimize my applications. I recently found a shortcoming that has me wondering. The problem was a tight loop spawning c++filt to demangle a c++ name. I only stumbled upon the code by accident while chasing down another bottleneck. The OProfile didn't show anything unusual about the code so I almost ignored it but my code sense told me to optimize the call and see what happened. I changed the popen of c++filt to abi::__cxa_demangle. The runtime went from more than a minute to a little over a second. About a x60 speed up. Is there a way I could have configured OProfile to flag the popen call? As the profile data sits now OProfile thinks the bottle neck was the heap and std::string calls (which BTW once optimized dropped the runtime to less than a second, more than x2 speed up). Here is my OProfile configuration: $ sudo opcontrol --status Daemon not running Event 0: CPU_CLK_UNHALTED:90000:0:1:1 Separate options: library vmlinux file: none Image filter: /path/to/excutable Call-graph depth: 7 Buffer size: 65536 Is there another profiler for Linux that could have found the bottleneck? I suspect the issue is that OProfile only logs its samples to the currently running process. I'd like it to always log its samples to the process I'm profiling. So if the process is currently switched out (blocking on IO or a popen call) OProfile would just place its sample at the blocked call. If I can't fix this, OProfile will only be useful when the executable is pushing near 100% CPU. It can't help with executables that that have inefficient blocking calls.

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• Old fashioned html onclick return false doesnt in IE work when jquery script included

  - by user292662

  Ok, so im quite new to jquery but found this bizzar problem just now, If we ignore jquery for a second and consider this scenario, if i have two links like below both with an href and both with and onclick event. The first link will not follow the href because the onclick returns false, and the second link will because the onclick returns true. <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Dont follow</a> <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Follow</a> This works just hunky dory in every browser as it should, the thing is, as soon as i include the jQuery script on the page this stops working in all versions of IE which then always follows the href whether the onclick returns false or not. (it continues to work fine in other browsers) Now if i add an event using jquery and call .preventDefault() on the event object instead of doing it the old fashioned way this behaves correctly, and you may say, well just do that then? But i have a site with thousands of lines of code and i am adding jquery support, i dont want to run the risk that i might miss an already defined html onclick="" and break the website. I cant see why jQuery should prevent perfectly normal javascript concepts from working, so is this a jQuery bug or am I missing something?

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• How to receive Email in JEE application

  - by Hank

  Obviously it's not so difficult to send out emails from a JEE application via JavaMail. What I am interested in is the best pattern to receive emails (notification bounces, mostly)? I am not interested in IMAP/POP3-based approaches (polling the inbox) - my application shall react to inbound emails. One approach I could think of would be Keep existing MTA (postfix on linux in my case) - ops team already knows how to configure / operate it For every mail that arrives, spawn a Java app that receives the data and sends it off via JMS. I could do this via an entry in /etc/aliases like myuser: "|/path/to/javahelper" with javahelper calling the Java app, passing STDIN along. MDB (part of JEE application) receives JMS message, parses it, detects bounce message and acts accordingly. Another approach could be Open a listening network socket on port 25 on the JEE application container. Associate a SessionBean with the socket. Bean is part of JEE application and can parse/detect bounces/handle the messages directly. Keep existing MTA as inbound relay, do all its security/spam filtering, but forward emails to myuser (that pass the filter) to the JEE application container, port 25. The first approach I have done before (albeit in a different language/setup). From a performance and (perceived) cleanliness point of view, I think the second approach is better, but it would require me to provide a proper SMTP transport implementation. Also, I don't know if it's at all possible to connect a network socket with a bean... What is your recommendation? Do you have details about the second approach?

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• C# Configuration Manager . ConnectionStrings

  - by Yoda

  I have a console app containing an application configuration file containing one connection string as shown below: <configuration> <connectionStrings> <add name="Target" connectionString="server=MYSERVER; Database=MYDB; Integrated Security=SSPI;" /> </connectionStrings> </configuration> When I pass this to my Connection using: ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[1].ToString() I have two values in there, hence using the second in the collection, my question is where is this second coming from? I have checked the Bin version and original and its not mine! Its obviously a system generated one but I have not seen this before? Can anyone enlighten me? The mystery connection string is: data source=.\SQLEXPRESS;Integrated Security=SSPI;AttachDBFilename=|DataDirectory|aspnetdb.mdf;User Instance=true This isn't a problem as such I would just like to know why this is occuring? Thanks in advance! For future reference to those who may or may not stumble on this, after discovering the machine.config its become apparent it is bad practice to refer to a config by its index as each stack will potentially be different, which is why "Keys" are used. Cheers all!

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• Question on overview of C# OOP in business WinForms application - scope of Object

  - by TimR

  I may have all this OO completely wrong, but here goes: Ok the scenario is a classic order entry. Customer places an Order which has OrderLineItems of StockItems. Order is entered by Employee. 1) Application starts and asks for login/password 2) Employee selects 'Orders' from Mainmenu form 3) Orders forms opens.... 4) Employee selects Customer 5) Employee selects Stock adds to OrderLineItems 6) Selects second StockItem; add to OrderLineItems 7) Order is committed, [stock decremented, order posted to DB, Order printed] 8) Employee is returned to MainMenu Now with Object scope: 1) Application starts and asks for login/password Is this the best place to make objEmployee, to be kept whilst in this whole Sales application? 2) Employee selects 'Orders' from Mainmenu form 3) Orders forms opens.... *Make objOrderHeader, is objEmployee able to be passed in or is it created here, or re-created here.* 4) Employee selects Customer - adds/edits Customer details if required... Make objCustomer 5) Employee selects Stock adds to OrderLineItems... *Make objStockItem and objOrderLineItem - add to objOrderLineItems_collection* 6) Selects second StockItem; add to OrderLineItems... *Make objStockItem and objOrderLineItem - add to objOrderLineItems_collection* 7) Order is committed, [stock decremented, order posted to DB, Order printed, Order Entered By = EmployeeID] Once posted to Db, all objects now redundant/garbage [except objEmployee?] 8) Employee is returned to MainMenu is objEmployee still valid as an object?

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• Java try finally variations

  - by Petr Gladkikh

  This question nags me for a while but I did not found complete answer to it yet (e.g. this one is for C# http://stackoverflow.com/questions/463029/initializing-disposable-resources-outside-or-inside-try-finally). Consider two following Java code fragments: Closeable in = new FileInputStream("data.txt"); try { doSomething(in); } finally { in.close(); } and second variation Closeable in = null; try { in = new FileInputStream("data.txt"); doSomething(in); } finally { if (null != in) in.close(); } The part that worries me is that the thread might be somewhat interrupted between the moment resource is acquired (e.g. file is opened) but resulting value is not assigned to respective local variable. Is there any other scenarios the thread might be interrupted in the point above other than: InterruptedException (e.g. via Thread#interrupt()) or OutOfMemoryError exception is thrown JVM exits (e.g. via kill, System.exit()) Hardware fail (or bug in JVM for complete list :) I have read that second approach is somewhat more "idiomatic" but IMO in the scenario above there's no difference and in all other scenarios they are equal. So the question: What are the differences between the two? Which should I prefer if I do concerned about freeing resources (especially in heavily multi-threading applications)? Why? I would appreciate if anyone points me to parts of Java/JVM specs that support the answers.

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