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• Change array format in PHP.

  - by Muhammad Sajid

  I have an array like: Array ( [6] => Array ( [quantity] => 23 [orgId] => 6 [validity] => 20 ) [2] => Array ( [quantity] => 5 [orgId] => 2 [validity] => 2 ) [5] => Array ( [quantity] => 5 [orgId] => 5 [validity] => 4 ) [4] => Array ( [quantity] => 7 [orgId] => 4 [validity] => 10 ) ) and i want to show that like this: Array ( [0] => Array ( [quantity] => 23 [orgId] => 6 [validity] => 20 ) [1] => Array ( [quantity] => 5 [orgId] => 2 [validity] => 2 ) [2] => Array ( [quantity] => 5 [orgId] => 5 [validity] => 4 ) [3] => Array ( [quantity] => 7 [orgId] => 4 [validity] => 10 ) ) To do that i used array_push & some other technique but fail. can someone help me thanks.

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• AJAX Partial Rendering issues for the default page in IIS 7 when using custom http module

  - by WiseGuyEh

  The problem When I try to make a AJAX partial update request (using the UpdatePanel control) from the default page of an IIS7 web site, it fails- instead of returning the html to be updated, it returns the entire page, which then causes the MS AJAX Javascript to throw a parsing shit-fit. The suspected cause I have narrowed the cause down to two issues- making an AJAX request to the default page when I have a certain custom http module registered. A partial rendering request to http://localhost will fail, but a partial rendering request to http://localhost/default.aspx will work fine. Also, If i remove the following line in my custom HttpModule: _application.PreRequestHandlerExecute += OnPreRequestHandlerExecute; The AJAX partial render will work correctly. Wierd huh? Another wierd thing... If I look at trace.axd, I can see that when a partial rendering request fails, two POST requests are logged for the one partial rendering request- one where the default.aspx page executes successfully (trace information such as page_load is logged) but no content is produced and a second that doesn't seem to actually execute (no trace information is logged) but produces content (HTTP_CONTENT_LENGTH is greater than 0). Please help! If anyone with a good knowledge of HTTP modules or the MS AJAX Http module could explain why this is occuring I would be very grateful. As it is, the obvious work arround is to just redirect to default.aspx if the request url is "/" but I would really like to understand why this is occurring.

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• How make this special many2many fields validation using Django ORM?

  - by e-satis

  I have the folowing model: class Step(models.Model): order = models.IntegerField() latitude = models.FloatField() longitude = models.FloatField() date = DateField(blank=True, null=True) class Journey(models.Model): boat = models.ForeignKey(Boat) route = models.ManyToManyField(Step) departure = models.ForeignKey(Step, related_name="departure_of", null=True) arrival = models.ForeignKey(Step, related_name="arrival_of", null=True) I would like to implement the following check: # If a there is less than one step, raises ValidationError. routes = tuple(self.route.order_by("date")) if len(routes) <= 1: raise ValidationError("There must be at least two setps in the route") # save the first and the last step as departure and arrival self.departure = routes[0] self.arrival = routes[-1] # departure and arrival must at least have a date if not (self.departure.date or self.arrival.date): raise ValidationError("There must be an departure and an arrival date. " "Please set the date field for the first and last Step of the Journey") # departure must occurs before arrival if not (self.departure.date > self.arrival.date): raise ValidationError("Departure must take place the same day or any date before arrival. " "Please set accordingly the date field for the first and last Step of the Journey") I tried to do that by overloading save(). Unfortunately, Journey.route is empty in save(). What's more, Journey.id doesn't exists yet. I didn't try django.db.models.signals.post_save but suppose it will fail because Journey.route is empty as well (when does this get filled anyway?). I see a solution in django.db.models.signals.m2m_changed but there are a lot of steps (thousands), and I want to avoid to perform an operation for every single of them.

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• Sql Server Maintenance Plan Tasks & Completion

  - by Ben

  Hi All, I have a maintenance plan that looks like this... Client 1 Import Data (Success) -> Process Data (Success) -> Post Process (Completion) -> Next Client Client 2 Import Data (Success) -> Process Data (Success) -> Post Process (Completion) -> Next Client Client N ... Import Data and Process Data are calling jobs and Post Process is an Execute Sql task. If Import Data or Process Data Fail, it goes to the next client Import Data... Both Import Data and Process Data are jobs that contain SSIS packages that are using the built-in SQL logging provider. My expectation with the configuration as it stands is: Client 1 Import Data Runs: Failure - Client 2 Import Data | Success Process Data Process Data Runs: Failure - Client 2 Import Data | Success Post Process Post Process Runs: Completion - Success or Failure - Next Client Import Data This isn't what I'm seeing in my logs though... I see several Client Import Data SSIS log entries, then several Post Process log entries, then back to Client Import Data! Arg!! What am I doing wrong? I didn't think the "success" piece of Client 1 Import Data would kick off until it... well... succeeded aka finished! The logs seem to indicate otherwise though... I really need these tasks to be consecutive not concurrent. Is this possible? Thanks!

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• nhibernate error recovery

  - by Berryl

  I downloaded Rhino Security today and started going through some of the tests. Several that run perfectly in isolation start getting errors after one that purposely raises an exception runs though. Here is that test: [Test] public void EntitesGroup_CanCreate() { var group = _authorizationRepository.CreateEntitiesGroup("Accounts"); _session.Flush(); _session.Evict(group); var fromDb = _session.Get<EntitiesGroup>(group.Id); Assert.NotNull(fromDb); Assert.That(fromDb.Name, Is.EqualTo(group.Name)); } And here are the tests and error messages that fail: [Test] public void User_CanSave() { var ayende = new User {Name = "ayende"}; _session.Save(ayende); _session.Flush(); _session.Evict(ayende); var fromDb = _session.Get<User>(ayende.Id); Assert.That(fromDb, Is.Not.Null); Assert.That(ayende.Name, Is.EqualTo(fromDb.Name)); } ----> System.Data.SQLite.SQLiteException : Abort due to constraint violation column Name is not unique [Test] public void UsersGroup_CanCreate() { var group = _authorizationRepository.CreateUsersGroup("Admininstrators"); _session.Flush(); _session.Evict(group); var fromDb = _session.Get<UsersGroup>(group.Id); Assert.NotNull(fromDb); Assert.That(fromDb.Name, Is.EqualTo(group.Name)); } failed: NHibernate.AssertionFailure : null id in Rhino.Security.Tests.User entry (don't flush the Session after an exception occurs) Does anyone see how I can reset the state of the in memory SQLite db after the first test? I changed the code to use nunit instead of xunit so maybe that is part of the problem here as well. Cheers, Berryl

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• Can I use Ninject ConstructorArguments with strong naming?

  - by stiank81

  Well, I don't know if "strong naming" is the right term, but what I want to do is as follows. Currently I use ConstructorArgument like e.g. this: public class Ninja { private readonly IWeapon _weapon; private readonly string _name; public Ninja(string name, IWeapon weapon) { _weapon = weapon; _name = name; } // ..more code.. } public void SomeFunction() { var kernel = new StandardKernel(); kernel.Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); var ninja = ninject.Get<Ninja>(new ConstructorArgument("name", "Lee")); } Now, if I rename the parameter "name" (e.g. using ReSharper) the ConstructorArgument won't update, and I will get a runtime error when creating the Ninja. To fix this I need to manually find all places I specify this parameter through a ConstructorArgument and update it. No good, and I'm doomed to fail at some point even though I have good test coverage. Renaming should be a cheap operation. Is there any way I can make a reference to the parameter instead - such that it is updated when I rename the parameter?

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• Window message procedures in Linux vs Windows

  - by mizipzor

  In Windows when you create a window, you must define a (c++) LRESULT CALLBACK message_proc(HWND Handle, UINT Message, WPARAM WParam, LPARAM LParam); to handle all the messages sent from the OS to the window, like keypresses and such. Im looking to do some reading on how the same system works in Linux. Maybe it is because I fall a bit short on the terminology but I fail to find anything on this through google (although Im sure there must be plenty!). Is it still just one single C function that handles all the communication? Does the function definition differ on different WMs (Gnome, KDE) or is it handled on a lower level in the OS? Edit: Ive looked into tools like QT and WxWidgets, but those frameworks seems to be geared more towards developing GUI extensive applications. Im rather looking for a way to create a basic window (restrict resize, borders/decorations) for my OGL graphics and retrieve input on more than one platform. And according to my initial research, this kind of function is the only way to retrieve that input. What would be the best route? Reading up, learning and then use QT or WxWidgets? Or learning how the systems work and implement those few basic features I want myself?

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• Problems with GData Request Token

  - by Dan Delgado

  We have successfully used GData libraries to access a user's Google Docs. But we encountered problems when many users log in to our site and authorize our web app at the same time or successively. Here's what happens: First user successful logs in, authorizes our web app via OAuth and is able to add rubric (or google spreadsheet). Second user, immediately after first user adds a rubric, successfully logs in then webapp fails on authorize (Token not given. I tried to log it.) Third user fails on login. Fourth user was able to log in, authorize via OAuth, and create rubrics successfully. Fifth user was able to log in but like the second user, gets an invalid token on authorize (Token not given.) And the list goes on. Results were unpredicatable. Below is an excerpt of the stack trace we get when the fail scenario happens: Nested in org.springframework.web.util.NestedServletException: Request processing failed; nested exception is java.lang.NullPointerException: java.lang.NullPointerException at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthUtil.normalizeParameters(OAuthUtil.java:158) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthUtil.getSignatureBaseString(OAuthUtil.java:81) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthHelper.addCommonRequestParameters(OAuthHelper.java:649) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthHelper.getOAuthUrl(OAuthHelper.java:592) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthHelper.getUnauthorizedRequestToken(OAuthHelper.java:276) at com.projectrix.controller.OAuthController.authorize(OAuthController.java:59) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:40) Help!

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• PDO empy result from SELECT when using AND

  - by Jurgen

  Hello, I've come upon a rather interesting thing, which I can't seem to figure out myself. Everytime when executing a SQL statement which contains a '... AND ...' the result is empty. Example: echo('I have a user: ' . $email . $wachtwoord . '<br>'); $dbh = new PDO($dsn, $user, $password); $sql = 'SELECT * FROM user WHERE email = :email AND wachtwoord= :wachtwoord'; $stmt = $dbh->prepare($sql); $stmt->bindParam(:email,$email,PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->bindParam(:wachtwoord,$wachtwoord,PDO::PARAM_STR); $stmt->execute(); while($row = $stmt->fetchObject()) { echo($row-email . ',' . $row-wachtwoord); $user[] = array( 'email' = $row-email, 'wachtwoord' = $row-wachtwoord ); } The first echo displays the correct values, however the line with echo($row->email . ',' . $row->wachtwoord); is never reached. A few things I want to add: 1) I am connected to the database since other queries work, only the ones where I add an 'AND' after my 'WHERE's fail. 2) Working with the while works perfectly with queries that do not contain '... AND ...' 3) Error reporting is on, PDO gives no exceptions on my query (or anything else) 4) Executing the query directly on the database does give what I want: SELECT * FROM user WHERE email = '[email protected]' AND wachtwoord = 'jurgen' I can stare at it all day long again (which I already did once, but I managed to work around the 'AND'), but maybe one of you can give me a helping hand. Thank you in advance. Jurgen

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• Expression Tree with Property Inheritance causes an argument exception

  - by Adam Driscoll

  Following this post: link text I'm trying to create an expression tree that references the property of a property. My code looks like this: public interface IFoo { void X {get;set;} } public interface IBar : IFoo { void Y {get;set;} } public interface IFooBarContainer { IBar Bar {get;set;} } public class Filterer { //Where T = "IFooBarContainer" public IQueryable<T> Filter<T>(IEnumerable<T> collection) { var argument = Expression.Parameter(typeof (T), "item"); //... //where propertyName = "IBar.X"; PropertyOfProperty(argument, propertyName); } private static MemberExpression PropertyOfProperty(Expression expr, string propertyName) { return propertyName.Split('.').Aggregate<string, MemberExpression>(null, (current, property) => Expression.Property(current ?? expr, property)); } } I receive the exception: System.ArgumentException: Instance property 'X' is not defined for type 'IBar' ReSharper turned the code in the link above into the condensed statement in my example. Both forms of the method returned the same error. If I reference IBar.Y the method does not fail.

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• ASP.NET MVC on GoDaddy Not Working (Not Primary Domain Deployment)

  - by JPrescottSanders

  I am trying to get ASP.NET MVC working on GoDaddy and I'm not having much luck. I have read the post on SO that covers the subject, but I must have a slightly different configuration or must be missing somehting along the way because the main MVC page comes up, but all links seem to fail and no amount of tweaking the URLs seems to get it to work. A little back ground. I have a single hosting plan with many domains pointed to sub folders of the main domain. Basic ASP.NET web forms pages work just fine, but of course I wanted to try and host a sample MVC site in one of these non-primary domains. You can go to the URL here. As you can see this first page comes up, but if you click on Home or About it doesn't work. Clicking on Home creates this link "http://www.jprescottsanders.com/jps/" and clicking on about creates this link "http://www.jprescottsanders.com/jps/Home/About". As you can see JPS sneaks in there, this of course is the sub folder that i place my web app files in. I would like to know if this is a MVC related issue or a GoDaddy issue. I suspect that MVC may want to sit in the root directory of the site, and when it puts the "jps" into the URLs it breaks the routing mechanisms (but this is conjecture). I know Dan said this was possible so I'm hoping he sees this and helps me get to the bottom of this deployment strategy for MVC.

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• What are the security implications of making a clientaccesspolicy proxy workaround?

  - by Edward Tanguay

  I wanted to use a published GoogleDocs document as the datasource of a Silverlight application but ran into clientaccesspolicy issues. I read many articles like this and this about how difficult it is to get around the clientaccesspolicy issue. So I wrote this 15-line CURL script and put it on my PHP site and now I can get the text of any GoogleDocs document and any text from any URL into my Silverlight application: <?php $url = filter_input(INPUT_GET, 'url',FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING); $user_agent = 'Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 5.01; Windows NT 5.0)'; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, "/tmp/cookie"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, "/tmp/cookie"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url ); // set url to post to curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FAILONERROR, 1); // Fail on errors curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 0); // allow redirects curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); // return into a variable curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 15); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $user_agent); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 0); echo curl_exec($ch); ?> So it makes me wonder: Why is there so much discussion about whether or not URLs support clientaccesspolicy or not, since you just have to write a simple proxy script and get the information through it? Why aren't there services, e.g. like the URL shortening services, which supply this functionality? What are the security implications of having a script like this?

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• How to use include within a function?

  - by mahks

  I have a large function that I wish to load only when it is needed. So I assume using include is the way to go. But I need several support functions as well -only used in go_do_it(). If they are in the included file I get a redeclare error. See example A If I place the support functions in an include_once it works fine, see Example B. If I use include_once for the func_1 code, the second call fails. -func_1 needs include -func_2 needs include_once Why does does include_once fail for func_1, does it get reloaded each time the function is called? Example A: <?php /* main.php */ go_do_it(); go_do_it(); function go_do_it(){ include 'func_1.php'; } ?> <?php /* func_1.php */ echo '<br>Doing it'; nested_func() function nested_func(){ echo ' in nest'; } ?> Example B: <?php /* main.php */ go_do_it(); go_do_it(); function go_do_it(){ include_once 'func_2.php'; include 'func_1.php'; } ?> <?php /* func_1.php */ echo '<br> - doing it'; nested_func(); ?> <?php /* func_2.php */ function nested_func(){ echo ' in nest'; } ?>

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• Unit tests - The benefit from unit tests with contract changes?

  - by Stefan Hendriks

  Recently I had an interesting discussion with a colleague about unit tests. We where discussing when maintaining unit tests became less productive, when your contracts change. Perhaps anyone can enlight me how to approach this problem. Let me elaborate: So lets say there is a class which does some nifty calculations. The contract says that it should calculate a number, or it returns -1 when it fails for some reason. I have contract tests who test that. And in all my other tests I stub this nifty calculator thingy. So now I change the contract, whenever it cannot calculate it will throw a CannotCalculateException. My contract tests will fail, and I will fix them accordingly. But, all my mocked/stubbed objects will still use the old contract rules. These tests will succeed, while they should not! The question that rises, is that with this faith in unit testing, how much faith can be placed in such changes... The unit tests succeed, but bugs will occur when testing the application. The tests using this calculator will need to be fixed, which costs time and may even be stubbed/mocked a lot of times... How do you think about this case? I never thought about it thourougly. In my opinion, these changes to unit tests would be acceptable. If I do not use unit tests, I would also see such bugs arise within test phase (by testers). Yet I am not confident enough to point out what will cost more time (or less). Any thoughts?

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• UITextField inside of UITableViewCell will not activate on iPad but works on iPhone

  - by cfihelp

  I have a UITextField inside a UITableViewCell. It will not activate on the iPad (but it works fine on the iPhone) no matter what I try. Tapping on it and telling it to become the firstResponder both fail. The odd thing is that if I take the exact same code and move it to another view controller in my app it executes just fine. This makes it seem as if there is likely a problem in the parent UITableViewController but I can't find anything obvious. I'm hoping that someone out there has experienced a similar problem and can point me in the right direction. Below is the sample code that works fine when I move it to a new project or put it in a new view controller launched immediately by my app delegate: // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } if (indexPath.row == 0) { UITextField *nameText = [[UITextField alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(5, 5, cell.contentView.frame.size.width, cell.contentView.frame.size.height)]; nameText.delegate = self; nameText.backgroundColor = [UIColor redColor]; [cell.contentView addSubview:nameText]; [nameText becomeFirstResponder]; [nameText release]; } // Configure the cell... return cell; } Help!

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• Delphi Shell IExtractIcon usage and result

  - by Roy M Klever

  What I do: Try to extract thumbnail using IExtractImage if that fail I try to extract icons using IExtractIcon, to get maximum iconsize, but IExtractIcon gives strange results. Problem is I tried to use a methode that extracts icons from an imagelist but if there is no large icon (256x256) it will render the smaller icon at the topleft position of the icon and that does not look good. That is why I am trying to use the IExtractIcon instead. But icons that show up as 256x256 icons in my imagelist extraction methode reports icon sizes as 33 large and 16 small. So how do I check if a large (256x256) icon exists? If you need more info I can provide som sample code. if PThumb.Image = nil then begin OleCheck(ShellFolder.ParseDisplayName(0, nil, StringToOleStr(PThumb.Name), Eaten, PIDL, Atribute)); ShellFolder.GetUIObjectOf(0, 1, PIDL, IExtractIcon, nil, XtractIcon); CoTaskMemFree(PIDL); bool:= False; if Assigned(XtractIcon) then begin GetLocationRes := XtractIcon.GetIconLocation(GIL_FORSHELL, @Buf, sizeof(Buf), IIdx, IFlags); if (GetLocationRes = NOERROR) or (GetLocationRes = E_PENDING) then begin Bmp := TBitmap.Create; try OleCheck(XtractIcon.Extract(@Buf, IIdx, LIcon, SIcon, 32 + (16 shl 16))); Done:= False; Roy M Klever

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• Help needed in grokking password hashes and salts

  - by javafueled

  I've read a number of SO questions on this topic, but grokking the applied practice of storing a salted hash of a password eludes me. Let's start with some ground rules: a password, "foobar12" (we are not discussing the strength of the password). a language, Java 1.6 for this discussion a database, postgreSQL, MySQL, SQL Server, Oracle Several options are available to storing the password, but I want to think about one (1): Store the password hashed with random salt in the DB, one column Found on SO and elsewhere is the automatic fail of plaintext, MD5/SHA1, and dual-columns. The latter have pros and cons MD5/SHA1 is simple. MessageDigest in Java provides MD5, SHA1 (through SHA512 in modern implementations, certainly 1.6). Additionally, most RDBMSs listed provide methods for MD5 encryption functions on inserts, updates, etc. The problems become evident once one groks "rainbow tables" and MD5 collisions (and I've grokked these concepts). Dual-column solutions rest on the idea that the salt does not need to be secret (grok it). However, a second column introduces a complexity that might not be a luxury if you have a legacy system with one (1) column for the password and the cost of updating the table and the code could be too high. But it is storing the password hashed with a random salt in single DB column that I need to understand better, with practical application. I like this solution for a couple of reasons: a salt is expected and considers legacy boundaries. Here's where I get lost: if the salt is random and hashed with the password, how can the system ever match the password? I have theory on this, and as I type I might be grokking the concept: Given a random salt of 128 bytes and a password of 8 bytes ('foobar12'), it could be programmatically possible to remove the part of the hash that was the salt, by hashing a random 128 byte salt and getting the substring of the original hash that is the hashed password. Then re hashing to match using the hash algorithm...??? So... any takers on helping. :) Am I close?

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• Can protobuf-net serialize this combination of interface and generic collection?

  - by tsupe

  I am trying to serialize a ItemTransaction and protobuf-net (r282) is having a problem. ItemTransaction : IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<Type, IItemCollection>></code> and ItemCollection is like this: FooCollection : ItemCollection<Foo> ItemCollection<T> : BindingList<T>, IItemCollection IItemCollection : IList<Item> where T is a derived type of Item. ItemCollection also has a property of type IItemCollection. I am serializing like this: IItemCollection itemCol = someService.Blah(...); ... SerializeWithLengthPrefix<IItemCollection>(stream, itemCol, PrefixStyle.Base128); My eventual goal is to serialize ItemTransaction, but am snagged with IItemCollection. Item and it's derived types can be [de]serialized with no issues, see [1], but deserializing an IItemCollection fails (serializing works). ItemCollection has a ItemExpression property and when deserializing protobuf can't create an abstract class. This makes sense to me, but I'm not sure how to get through it. ItemExpression<T> : ItemExpression, IItemExpression ItemExpression : Expression ItemExpression is abstract as is Expression How do I get this to work properly? Also, I am concerned that ItemTransaction will fail since the IItemCollections are going to be differing and unknown at compile time (an ItemTransaction will have FooCollection, BarCollection, FlimCollection, FlamCollection, etc). What am I missing (Marc) ? [1] http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2276104/protobuf-net-deserializing-across-assembly-boundaries

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• Visual Studio 2008 / ASP.NET 3.5 / C# -- issues with intellisense, references, and builds

  - by goober

  Hey all, Hoping you can help me -- the strangest thing seems to have happened with my VS install. System config: Windows 7 Pro x64, Visual Studio 2008 SP1, C#, ASP.NET 3.5. I have two web site projects in a solution. I am referencing NUnit / NHibernate (did this by right-clicking on the project and selecting "Add Reference". I've done this for several projects in the past). Things were working fine but recently stopped working and I can't figure out why. Intellisense completely disappears for any files in my App_Code directory, and none of the references are recognized (they are recognized by any file in the root directory of the web site project. Additionally, pretty simple commands like the following (in Page_Load) fail (assume TextBox1 is definitely an element on the page): if (Page.IsPostBack) { str test1; test1 = TextBox1.Text; } It says that all the page elements are null or that it can't access them. At first I thought it was me, but due to the combination of issues, it seems to be Visual Studio itself. I've tried clearing the temp directories & rebuilding the solution. I've also tried tools -- options -- text editor settings to ensure intellisense is turned on. I'd appreciate any help you can give! Thanks, Sean

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• junit assert in thread throws exception

  - by antony.trupe

  What am I doing wrong that an exception is thrown instead of showing a failure, or should I not have assertions inside threads? @Test public void testComplex() throws InterruptedException { int loops = 10; for (int i = 0; i < loops; i++) { final int j = i; new Thread() { @Override public void run() { ApiProxy.setEnvironmentForCurrentThread(env);//ignore this new CounterFactory().getCounter("test").increment();//ignore this too int count2 = new CounterFactory().getCounter("test").getCount();//ignore assertEquals(j, count2);//here be exceptions thrown. this is line 75 } }.start(); } Thread.sleep(5 * 1000); assertEquals(loops, new CounterFactory().getCounter("test").getCount()); } StackTrace Exception in thread "Thread-26" junit.framework.AssertionFailedError: expected:<5> but was:<6> at junit.framework.Assert.fail(Assert.java:47) at junit.framework.Assert.failNotEquals(Assert.java:277) at junit.framework.Assert.assertEquals(Assert.java:64) at junit.framework.Assert.assertEquals(Assert.java:195) at junit.framework.Assert.assertEquals(Assert.java:201) at com.bitdual.server.dao.ShardedCounterTest$3.run(ShardedCounterTest.java:77)

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• Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

  - by Oddthinking

  Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

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• Model login constraints based on time

  - by DaDaDom

  Good morning, for an existing web application I need to implement "time based login constraints". It means that for each user, later maybe each group, I can define timeslots when they are (not) allowed to log in into the system. As all data for the application is stored in database tables, I need to somehow create a way to model this idea in that way. My first approach, I will try to explain it here: Create a tree of login constraints (called "timeslots") with the main "categories", like "workday", "weekend", "public holiday", etc. on the top level, which are in a "sorted" order (meaning "public holiday" has a higher priority than "weekday") for each top level node create subnodes, which have a finer timespan, like "monday", "tuesday", ... below that, create an "hour" level: 0, 1, 2, ..., 23. No further details are necessary. set every member to "allowed" by default For every member of the system create a 1:n relationship member:timeslots which defines constraints, e.g. a member A may have A:monday-forbidden and A:tuesday-forbidden Do a depth-first search at every login and check if the member has a constraint. Why a depth first search? Well, I thought that it may be that a member has the rules: A:monday->forbidden, A:monday-10->allowed, A:mondey-11->allowed So a login on monday at 12:30 would fail, but one at 10:30 succeed. For performance reasons I could break the relational database paradigm and set a flag for every entry in the member-to-timeslots-table which is set to true if the member has information set for "finer" timeslots, but that's a second step. Is this model in principle a good idea? Are there existing models? Thanks.

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• Calling an Oracle PL/SQL procedure with Custom Object return types from 0jdbc6 JDBCthin drivers

  - by Andrew Harmel-Law

  I'm writing some JDBC code which calls a Oracle 11g PL/SQL procdedure which has a Custom Object return type. Whenever I try an register my return types, I get either ORA-03115 or PLS-00306 as an error when the statement is executed depending on the type I set. An example is below: PLSQL Code: Procedure GetDataSummary (p_my_key IN KEYS.MY_KEY%TYPE, p_recordset OUT data_summary_tab, p_status OUT VARCHAR2); Java Code: String query = "beginmanageroleviewdata.getdatasummary(?, ?, ?); end;"); CallableStatement stmt = conn.prepareCall(query); stmt.setInt(1, 83); stmt.registerOutParameter(2, OracleTypes.CURSOR); // Causes error: PLS-00306 stmt.registerOutParameter(3, OracleTypes.VARCHAR); stmt.execute(stmt); // Error mentioned above thrown here. Can anyone provide me with an example showing how I can do this? I guess it's possible. However I can't see a rowset OracleType. CURSOR, REF, DATALINK, and more fail. Apologies if this is a dumb question. I'm not a PL/SQL expert and may have used the wrong terminology in some areas of my question. (If so, please edit me). Thanks in advance. Regs, Andrew

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• C# Delegate under the hood question.

  - by Ted

  Hi Guys I was doing some digging around into delegate variance after reading the following tquestion in SO. "delegate-createdelegate-and-generics-error-binding-to-target-method" (sorry not allowed to post more than one hyperlink as a newbie here!) I found a very nice bit of code from Barry kelly at https://www.blogger.com/comment.g?blogID=8184237816669520763&postID=2109708553230166434 Here it is (in a sugared-up form :-) using System; namespace ConsoleApplication4 { internal class Base { } internal class Derived : Base { } internal delegate void baseClassDelegate(Base b); internal delegate void derivedClassDelegate(Derived d); internal class App { private static void Foo1(Base b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 1"); } private static void Foo2(Derived b) { Console.WriteLine("Foo 2"); } private static T CastDelegate<T>(Delegate src) where T : class { return (T) (object) Delegate.CreateDelegate( typeof (T), src.Target, src.Method, true); // throw on fail } private static void Main() { baseClassDelegate a = Foo1; // works fine derivedClassDelegate b = Foo2; // works fine b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though b(new Derived()); b = CastDelegate<derivedClassDelegate>(a); // the hard way, avoids indirection b(new Derived()); } } } I understand all of it except this one (what looks very simple) line. b = a.Invoke; // the easy way to assign delegate using variance, adds layer of indirection though Can anyone tell me: how it is possible to call invoke without passing the param required by the static function. When is going on under the hood when you assign the return value from calling invoke What does Barry mean by extra indirection (in his comment)

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• .NET Remoting switching channels by itself.

  - by Casper

  Hi. We are having an odd problem with .NET Remoting. Basically, we have a server which registers two TcpChannels with ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(): one listens on port 50000, the other one listens on port 15000. We then have a client that registers a TcpChannel to be able to communicate with the server. We retrieve a an object from the server by calling Activator.GetObject() with the URI "tcp://serverip:50000/objectname" and this works fine, the client connects to the server on port 50000 and gets the object. However, when we start calling methods on that object, the connection to the channel on port 50000 is dropped, and a new connection is made to the channel on port 15000 automatically. This poses a real problem for us since we don't want traffic on port 15000 because that channel may not be bound to the same network adapter as the port 50000 channel on the server or that port may not be open in the firewall, which causes the remoting calls to fail naturally. This is very strange to us since the client has no knowledge in our code that there exists another channel on the server on port 15000 or what IP it listens on, yet it attempt to connect to it. Any help on this is greatly appreciated, /Casper c

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