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  • JQuery: animate() doesn't work as expected in IE...

    - by swalkner
    Hi, I'm getting crazy with this IE 7... == hhttp://neu.emergent-innovation.com/ Why does following function not work in IE 7, but perfectly with Firefox? Is there a bug in the animate-function? function accordion_starting_page(){ // hide all elements except the first one $('#FCE-Inhalt02-ContentWrapper .FCE-Fade:not(:first)').css("height", "0").hide(); $('#FCE-Inhalt02-ContentWrapper .FCE-Fade:first').addClass("isVisible"); $('div.FCE-Title').click(function(){ // if user clicks on an already opened element => do nothing if (parseFloat($(this).next('.FCE-Fade').css("height")) > 0) { return false; } var toHide = $(this).siblings('.FCE-Fade.isVisible'); toHide.removeClass("isVisible"); // close all opened siblings toHide.animate({"height": "0", "display": "none"}, 1000); $(this).next('.FCE-Fade').addClass("isVisible").animate({"height" : "200"}, 1000); return false; }); } Thank you very much for your help...

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  • Postgresql sequences

    - by Dylan
    When I delete all records from a Postgresql table and then try to reset the sequence to start a new record with number 1 when it is inserted, i get different results : SELECT setval('tblname_id_seq', (SELECT COALESCE(MAX(id),1) FROM tblname)); This sets the current value of the sequence to 1, but the NEXT record (actually the first because there are no records yet) gets number 2! And I can't set it to 0, because the minimum value in the sequence is 1! When I use : ALTER SEQUENCE tblname_id_seq RESTART WITH 1; the first record that is inserted actually gets number 1 ! But the above code doesn't accept a SELECT as a value instead of 1. I wish to reset the sequence to number 1 when there are no records, and the first record then should start with 1. But when there ARE already records in the table, I want to reset the sequence so that the next record that is inserted will get {highest}+1 Does anyone have a clear solution for this?

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  • Data replication between two web nodes

    - by HTF
    I have Wordpress installation running on two web servers (Nginx). There is unidirectional synchronization from server A to server B and I'm using lsyncd for this purpose. with his configuration I have to add blog posts from the first web server so the data is replicated to the second one - how I can force access to Wordpress back-end only from the first web server? Please note that both servers have the same domain for Wordpress. Regards

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  • Searching within Gmail's nested labels [closed]

    - by Penang
    Consider this setup in my gmail inbox I have 3 lists mailing-lists/first-list mailing-lists/second-list mailing-lists/third-list if I want to search for all unread messages in any sublabel of mailing-lists, is there a better way to search than "is:unread label:mailing-list/first-list OR label:mailing-list/second-list OR label:mailing-list/third-list" something like "is:unread label:mailing-list/*" is what I'm looking for

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  • Adding relative week number column to MySQl results

    - by Anthony
    I have a table with 3 columns: user, value, and date. The main query returns the values for a specific user based on a date range: SELECT date, value FROM values WHERE user = '$user' AND date BETWEEN $start AND $end What I would like is for the results to also have a column indicating the week number relative to the date range. So if the date range is 1/1/2010 - 1/20/2010, then any results from the first Sun - Sat of that range are week 1, the next Sun - Sat are week 2, etc. If the date range starts on a Saturday, then only results from that one day would be week 1. If the date range starts on Thursday but the first result is on the following Monday, it would be week 2, and there are no week 1 results. Is this something fairly simple to add to the query? The only ideas I can come up with would be based on the week number for the year or the week number based on the results themselves (where in that second example above, the first result always gets week 1).

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  • GridView and multiple postbacks problem

    - by Jonn
    I have a grid view containing checkboxes and a great deal of problems surrounding it. First of all the page on_load and on_init gets called twice. The first call says it's a postback and the second isn't. If I check for postbacks, during the second call the change of state (i.e. A button_click event that was supposed to refresh the data in the grid) that triggered during the first call does not register. If I don't check for postbacks, checkboxes in the GridView do not retain its state by the second call to OnLoad/OnInit.

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  • Sinatra not passing header with redirect

    - by emson
    Hi All I have a simple Sinatra proxy, which when an endpoint is called, will redirect to another endpoint on the same Sinatra proxy. When I make a request with a header, the proxy doesn't seem to pass this header through to the second endpoint when the request redirects in the first. This is my code: get '/first' do # get the header from the request username = env['HTTP_USERNAME'] # set the header for the response response['username'] = username redirect '/second' end get '/second' do # This doesn't exist when redirected from /first puts env['HTTP_USERNAME'] # Here is a list of all headers env.each_key do |key| puts "KEY: #{key} VALUE: #{env[key]}" unless key.nil? end "DONE" end Any tips would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • vb.net session variable passing "space" from one page to another

    - by iuret
    i have 2 aspx webpages with vb.net code. On the first page, I have a text box, on first page that says "Enter Hobby", but its not a required textbox. So if the user clicks submit, it'll load up the second page. Now in the second page i have textbox "hobby" which has maxlength = 10. and in the vb.net code i have hobby.text = session("hobby"). if the user doesnt fill up hobby in first page, the session comes with 10 "spaces" since maxlength is 10. I tried hobby.text = TRIM(session("hobby"), but nothing happens. Any idea how i can lose the spaces if nothing is inputted?

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  • How cast in XML for aggregate functions

    - by renegm
    In SQL Server 2008. I need execute a query like that: DECLARE @x AS xml SET @x=N'<r><c>First Text</c></r><r><c>Other Text</c></r>' SELECT @x.query('fn:max(r/c)') But return nothing (apparently because convert xdt:untypedAtomic to numeric) How to "cast" r/c to varchar? Something like SELECT @x.query('fn:max(«CAST(r/c «AS varchar(20))»)') Edit: Using Nodes the function MAX is from T-SQL no fn:max function In this code: DECLARE @x xml; SET @x = ''; SELECT @x.query('fn:max((1, 2))'); SELECT @x.query('fn:max(("First Text", "Other Text"))'); both query return expected: 2 and "Other Text" fn:max can evaluate string expression ad hoc. But the first query dont work. How to force string arguments to fn:max?

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  • Opening a new screen from xml file text.

    - by Clozecall
    Hey all I'm looking to edit my app so that when a text within an xml file is selected, a new window opens. I've found various ways of making a new screen open via a class, but I need it done from a xml file. My program as a tablayout, and here is some of the stuff displayed within my first tab: <LinearLayout android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> android:id="@+id/ScrollView01" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_width="fill_parent" <TextView android:textColor="#FFFFFF" android:text="First Header here" android:textStyle="bold" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> <TextView android:textColor="#FFFFFF" android:text="First body text here" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> So basically I need it so that when a text is selected, a new screen pops up. As said the reason this specifically has to be done in xml is because this is all apart of a tab layout, It would be great if the next within each tab could open a a new screen. Thanks.

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  • ASP.NET: How to specify which button should defaultly react for an Enter press?

    - by agnieszka
    I have a webpage where there are two buttons and a textbox. When the page loads and user presses enter, the first button is clicked - and that is ok. I would like to assure that if user enters the textBox and types anything there and THEN presses enter, the second button is clicked. When I enter the textBox I can tell that the first button will be used when I press enter, because it is a bit dark-blue-bordered then. I tried javascript's if (event && event.keyCode == 13) document.getElementById("Button2").click(); but it somehow doesn't work. So my second thought was that there must be a possibility to tell the browser which button should defaultly react for an enter press when I'm in a specific textBox (the dark-blue-bordered button). Edit: it might matter that first button is input and the second one is asp:Button

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  • GetMessage with a timeout

    - by qdii
    I have an application which second thread calls GetMessage() in a loop. At some point the first thread realizes that the user wants to quit the application and notifies the second thread that he should terminate. As the first thread is stuck on GetMessage(), the program never quits. Is there a way to wait for messages with a timeout? I’m open to other ideas too. EDIT: (additional explanations) The second thread runs that snippet of code: while ( !m_quit && GetMessage( &msg, NULL, 0, 0 ) ) { TranslateMessage( &msg ); DispatchMessage( &msg ); } The first thread sets m_quit to true.

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  • C++: retrieve map values and insert into second map

    - by donalmg
    Hi, I have one map within one header file class: class One { // code typedef map<string, int> MapStrToInt inline MapStrToInt& GetDetails(unsigned long index) { return pData[index]; } // populate pData.... private: MapStrToInt *pData; }; And a second class which implements another map and wants to get the first 10 details from the class One's map. class Two { // code One::MapStrToInt pDataTen; int function1() { for (int i =0; i < 10; i ++) { One::MapStrToInt * pMap = &(One::GetDetails(i)); pDataTen.insert(pair<string, int>(pMap->first,pMap->second)); } } When I compile this, it states that pMap: has no member named 'first' has no member named 'second' Any suggestions? Thanks..

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  • Different behavior for REF CURSOR between Oracle 10g and 11g when unique index present?

    - by wweicker
    Description I have an Oracle stored procedure that has been running for 7 or so years both locally on development instances and on multiple client test and production instances running Oracle 8, then 9, then 10, and recently 11. It has worked consistently until the upgrade to Oracle 11g. Basically, the procedure opens a reference cursor, updates a table then completes. In 10g the cursor will contain the expected results but in 11g the cursor will be empty. No DML or DDL changed after the upgrade to 11g. This behavior is consistent on every 10g or 11g instance I've tried (10.2.0.3, 10.2.0.4, 11.1.0.7, 11.2.0.1 - all running on Windows). The specific code is much more complicated but to explain the issue in somewhat realistic overview: I have some data in a header table and a bunch of child tables that will be output to PDF. The header table has a boolean (NUMBER(1) where 0 is false and 1 is true) column indicating whether that data has been processed yet. The view is limited to only show rows in that have not been processed (the view also joins on some other tables, makes some inline queries and function calls, etc). So at the time when the cursor is opened, the view shows one or more rows, then after the cursor is opened an update statement runs to flip the flag in the header table, a commit is issued, then the procedure completes. On 10g, the cursor opens, it contains the row, then the update statement flips the flag and running the procedure a second time would yield no data. On 11g, the cursor never contains the row, it's as if the cursor does not open until after the update statement runs. I'm concerned that something may have changed in 11g (hopefully a setting that can be configured) that might affect other procedures and other applications. What I'd like to know is whether anyone knows why the behavior is different between the two database versions and whether the issue can be resolved without code changes. Update 1: I managed to track the issue down to a unique constraint. It seems that when the unique constraint is present in 11g the issue is reproducible 100% of the time regardless of whether I'm running the real world code against the actual objects or the following simple example. Update 2: I was able to completely eliminate the view from the equation. I have updated the simple example to show the problem exists even when querying directly against the table. Simple Example CREATE TABLE tbl1 ( col1 VARCHAR2(10), col2 NUMBER(1) ); INSERT INTO tbl1 (col1, col2) VALUES ('TEST1', 0); /* View is no longer required to demonstrate the problem CREATE OR REPLACE VIEW vw1 (col1, col2) AS SELECT col1, col2 FROM tbl1 WHERE col2 = 0; */ CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE pkg1 AS TYPE refWEB_CURSOR IS REF CURSOR; PROCEDURE proc1 (crs OUT refWEB_CURSOR); END pkg1; CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE BODY pkg1 IS PROCEDURE proc1 (crs OUT refWEB_CURSOR) IS BEGIN OPEN crs FOR SELECT col1 FROM tbl1 WHERE col1 = 'TEST1' AND col2 = 0; UPDATE tbl1 SET col2 = 1 WHERE col1 = 'TEST1'; COMMIT; END proc1; END pkg1; Anonymous Block Demo DECLARE crs1 pkg1.refWEB_CURSOR; TYPE rectype1 IS RECORD ( col1 vw1.col1%TYPE ); rec1 rectype1; BEGIN pkg1.proc1 ( crs1 ); DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE('begin first test'); LOOP FETCH crs1 INTO rec1; EXIT WHEN crs1%NOTFOUND; DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(rec1.col1); END LOOP; DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE('end first test'); END; /* After creating this index, the problem is seen */ CREATE UNIQUE INDEX unique_col1 ON tbl1 (col1); /* Reset data to initial values */ TRUNCATE TABLE tbl1; INSERT INTO tbl1 (col1, col2) VALUES ('TEST1', 0); DECLARE crs1 pkg1.refWEB_CURSOR; TYPE rectype1 IS RECORD ( col1 vw1.col1%TYPE ); rec1 rectype1; BEGIN pkg1.proc1 ( crs1 ); DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE('begin second test'); LOOP FETCH crs1 INTO rec1; EXIT WHEN crs1%NOTFOUND; DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE(rec1.col1); END LOOP; DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE('end second test'); END; Example of what the output on 10g would be:   begin first test   TEST1   end first test   begin second test   TEST1   end second test Example of what the output on 11g would be:   begin first test   TEST1   end first test   begin second test   end second test Clarification I can't remove the COMMIT because in the real world scenario the procedure is called from a web application. When the data provider on the front end calls the procedure it will issue an implicit COMMIT when disconnecting from the database anyways. So if I remove the COMMIT in the procedure then yes, the anonymous block demo would work but the real world scenario would not because the COMMIT would still happen. Question Why is 11g behaving differently? Is there anything I can do other than re-write the code?

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  • Touch and Drag from one view to another

    - by jollyCocoa
    Hi all! I've search for some clues on this problem without much success. Hope someone can kick me in the right direction. I am prototyping a couple of apps where I need to design my own GUI. The GUI is made up by two separated UIViews where one of them contains a small thumb of an image. I want to be able to drag this thumb from the first view to the other. Simple as that! But I haven't figured out how this is done. Here is the exact flow I am looking for: touch the thumb animate a small enlargement of the thumb drag the thumb to the other UIView drop the thumb animate a shrink of the thumb Not particularly strange, but the thumb remains related to the first view all the time. I've tried to move the thumb via the first views superview and then back to the second view, but with no luck.

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  • How to access this server?

    - by George Edison
    I have a server that I cannot access. At first I thought it was just some temporary failure with the server, but checking from other IP addresses reveals that it is working just fine. It's only my IP address that's failing. So here is what I've tried: nslookup - resolves correctly ping - 100% packet loss using the IP address or domain traceroute - first few hops work, but from about 6 and on, I just get stars Edit: I am using OpenDNS for DNS resolution, and as mentioned above, the problem is not DNS resolution anyway.

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  • Multi-threaded downloader in C# question

    - by blez
    Currently I have multi-threaded downloader class that uses HttpWebRequest/Response. All works fine, it's super fast, BUT.. the problem is that the data needs to be streamed while it's downloading to another app. That means that it must be streamed in the right order, the first chunk first, and then the next in the queue. Currently my downloader class is sync and Download() returns byte[]. In my async multi-threaded class I make for example, list with 4 empty elements (for slots) and I pass each index of the slot to each thread using the Download() function. That simulates synchronization, but that's not what I need. How should I do the queue thing, to make sure the data is streamed as soon as the first chunk start downloading.

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  • Update Windows XP to SP3 without internet

    - by Alexander
    I've been asked to update some computers running Windows XP (without any service packs) to Windows XP SP3. The computers don't have an internet connection (only a small intranet) and have never been updated since first install. Do I need to install SP1a first, then SP2, then SP3, or can I install SP3 immediately? And where do I find the right files, that don't require an internet connection during installation? All help is welcome. Thanks!

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  • How to figure out disks performance in Xen?

    - by cpt.Buggy
    So, I have a Dell R710 with PERC 6/i Integrated and 6 450Gb Seagate 15k SAS disks in RAID10, I have 30 Xen vps working on it. Now I need to deploy second server with same hardware for same tasks and I want to figure out maybe it's a good idea to use RAID5 instead of RAID10 because we have a lot of "free" memory on first server and not so much "free space". How do I find out disks performance on first server and find out could I move it to RAID5 without slowing down of whole system?

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  • Load balancers, multiple data centers and url based routing

    - by kunkunur
    There is one data center - dc1. There is a business need to setup another data center - dc2 in another geography and there might be more in the future say dc3. Within the data center dc1: There are two web servers say WS1 and WS2. These two webservers do not share anything currently. There isnt any necessity foreseen to have more webservers within each dc. dc1 also has a local load balancer which has been setup with session stickiness. So if a user say u1 lands on dc1 and if the load balancer decides to route his first request to WS1 then from there on all u1's requests will get routed to WS1. Local load balancer and webservers are invisible to the user. Local load balancer listens to the traffic on a virtual ip which is assigned to the virtual cluster of webservers ws1 and ws2. Virtual ip is the ip to which the host name is resolved to in the DNS. There are no client specific subdomains as of now instead there is a client specific url(context). ex: www.example.com/client1 and www.example.com/client2. Given above when dc2 is onboarded I want to route the traffic between dc1 and dc2 based on the client. The options that I have found so far are. Have client specific subdomains e.g. client1.example.com and client2.example.com and assign each of them with the virtual ip of the data center to which I want to route them. or Assign www.example.com and www1.example.com to first dc i.e. dc1 and assign www2.example.com to dc2. All requests will first get routed to dc1 where WS1 and WS2 will redirect the user to www1.example.com or www2.example.com based on whether the url ends with /client1 or /client2. I need help in the following If I setup a global load balancer between dc1 and dc2 do I have any alternative solutions. That is, can a global load balancer route the traffic based on the url ? Are there drawbacks to subdomain based solutions compared to www1 solution? With www1 solution I am worried that it creates a dependency on dc1 atleast for the first request and the user will see that he is getting redirected to a different url.

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  • [js] how combine to functions on submit?

    - by Mahmoud
    hey there, as you can see, i have to functions first to check if all forms are not empty and the second function is to verify the captcher, when i combine them together both work at the same time, i want to first to verify the first function, when that function returns true then the other function starts, here is the code that i used on form <form action="reg.php" method="post" enctype="application/x-www-form-urlencoded" onsubmit=" Checking(this); return jcap();" > As you can see both function execute at the same time so i tried this <form action="reg.php" method="post" enctype="application/x-www-form-urlencoded" onsubmit=" if(Checking(this) == true ){ return jcap();}" > is bypass both

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  • How to unmangle PDF format into a usable text or spreadsheet document?

    - by Chuck
    Upon requesting some daily/hourly sales data from a coworker who is responsible for such requests, I was given a series of PDF files. The point of sale program that is used, for some reason, answers requests for this type of information in the form of PDF files. The issue: The PDF files look to be in a format that should easily be copy and pasted into a spreadsheet. There are three columns that look to be neatly organized across two pages. When copy/pasting the first page, all three columns from the PDF's first page are dumped into a single column consisting of the Date followed by the Hours for the transactions on that day. The end of this Date/Time information is followed by all of the Total Sales values that should be attached a Date and Time of the transaction. (NOTE: There are no duplicated Dates in the Date column, ie, Multiple transactions for a day only have one yyyy/mm/dd listed for the first row but not the following rows.) While it was a huge pain, it was possible to, in about four or five steps, get the single column of data broken out into three columns that matched the PDF. The second page of the PDF file, when attempting to copy/paste into a spreadsheet, creates a single column with the first third of the cells being the Dates from the PDF, the second third of the cells being the Hours of the transactions and the final third of the cells being filled with the Total Sales. After the copy/paste there is no way to figure out which Hours belong to which Dates or Total Sales due to the lack of the duplicated Dates in the Date column as mentioned above. My PDF-fu is next to non-existent. I've just now started to work with PDF editors and some www.convertmyPDFforfree.com websites, so far, with absolutely nothing remotely coming anywhere near usable output. (Both methods have so far done nothing but product blank documents.) Before I go back and pester my co-worker into figuring out a way to create a report in some other format than PDF, is there any method by which to take the data that looks to be formatted correctly in a PDF and copy/paste it into a spreadsheet that will look the same? I appreciate any help that can be made available. The sales data isn't so sensitive that I couldn't part with a bit to let somebody actually see what it is that needs to be dealt with, just let me know. The PDF's are less than 100kb each so sending them shouldn't be a burden to any interested party.

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  • mootools 1.1.1 scrollto element with class name ... anything like jquery?

    - by dtour
    I get the impression mootools will do this, but in a roundabout way. I am working with livevalidation script. What I want to achieve is when the from runs and errors are generated then the page will scroll to the first error found. This will be outputted as: <span class=" LV_validation_message LV_invalid">Can't be empty!</span> with jquery I could do the following: $.scrollTo($('span.LV_invalid:1')); I get the feeling in mootools I have to first find the position of the first span with class LV_invalid then pass this to the scrollTo function or is there a much simpler solution?

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  • iPhone keyboard, Done button and resignFirstResponder

    - by nevan
    This is probably a dumb question, but I can't find the answer in the docs. Did the "Done" button on the pop-up keyboard always cause the keyboard to disappear? I see a lot of code around the web like this: - (BOOL)textFieldShouldReturn:(UITextField *)theTextField { [theTextField resignFirstResponder]; return YES; } When I press the "Done" button, the keyboard pops down and the UITextField resigns first responder. I'm presuming that pressing the "Done" button didn't used to cause a UITextField to resignFirstResponder, but that behavior changed at some time. I'm debugging on OS 3.0 - 3.1.3

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