Search Results

Search found 17621 results on 705 pages for 'just my correct opinion'.

Page 140/705 | < Previous Page | 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147  | Next Page >

• PHP: tips/resources/patterns for learning to implement a basic ORM

  - by BoltClock

  I've seen various MVC frameworks as well as standalone ORM frameworks for PHP, as well as other ORM questions here; however, most of the questions ask for existing frameworks to get started with, which is not what I'm looking for. (I have also read this SO question but I'm not sure what to make of it, and the answers are vague.) Instead, I figured I'd learn best by getting my hands dirty and actually writing my own ORM, even a simple one. Except I don't really know how to get started, especially since the code I see in other ORMs is so complicated. With my PHP 5.2.x (this is important) MVC framework I have a basic custom database abstraction layer, that has: Very simple methods like connect($host, $user, $pass, $base), query($sql, $binds), etc Subclasses for each DBMS that it supports A class (and respective subclasses) to represent SQL result sets But does not have: Active Record functionality, which I assume is an ORM thing (correct me if I'm wrong) I've read up a little about ORM, and from my understanding they provide a means to further abstract data models from the database itself by representing data as nothing more than PHP-based classes/objects; again, correct me if I am wrong or have missed out in any way. Still, I'd like some simple tips from anyone else who's dabbled more or less with ORM frameworks. Is there anything else I need to take note of, simple example code for me to refer to, or resources I can read? Thanks a lot in advance!

  Read the article

• How does real world login process happen in web application in Java?

  - by Nitesh Panchal

  Hello, I am very much confused regarding login process that happen in Java web application. I read many tutorials regarding jdbcRealm and JAAS. But, one thing that i don't understand is that why should i use them ? Can't i simply check directly against my database of users? and once they successfully login to the site, i store some variable in session as a flag. And probably check that session variable on all restricted pages (I mean keep a filter for restricted resources url pattern).If the flag doesn't exist simply redirect the user to login page. Is this approach correct?Does this approch sound correct? If yes, then why did all this JAAS and jdbcRealm came into existence? Secondly, I am trying to completely implement SAS(Software as service) in my web application, meaning everything is done through web services.If i use webservices, is it possible to use jdbcRealm? If not, then is it possible to use JAAS? If yes, then please show me some example which uses mySql as a database and then authenticates and authorizes. I even heard about Spring Security. But, i am confused about that too in the sense that how do i use webservice with Spring Security. Please help me. I am really very confused. I read sun's tutorials but they only keep talking about theories. For programmers to understand a simple concept, they show a 100 page theory first before they finally come to one example.

  Read the article

• Best way to check for null values in Java?

  - by Arty-fishL

  I need to check whether the function of an object returns true or false in Java, but that object may be null, so obviously then the function would throw a NullPointerException. This means I need to check if the object is null before checking the value of the function. What is the best way to go about this? I've listed some methods I considered, I just want to know the most sensible one, the one that is best programming practice for Java (opinion?). // method 1 if (foo != null) { if (foo.bar()) { etc... } } // method 2 if (foo != null ? foo.bar() : false) { etc... } // method 3 try { if (foo.bar()) { etc... } } catch (NullPointerException e) { } // method 4 // would this work all the time, would it still call foo.bar()? if (foo != null && foo.bar()) { etc... }

  Read the article

• Long running transactions with Spring and Hibernate?

  - by jimbokun

  The underlying problem I want to solve is running a task that generates several temporary tables in MySQL, which need to stay around long enough to fetch results from Java after they are created. Because of the size of the data involved, the task must be completed in batches. Each batch is a call to a stored procedure called through JDBC. The entire process can take half an hour or more for a large data set. To ensure access to the temporary tables, I run the entire task, start to finish, in a single Spring transaction with a TransactionCallbackWithoutResult. Otherwise, I could get a different connection that does not have access to the temporary tables (this would happen occasionally before I wrapped everything in a transaction). This worked fine in my development environment. However, in production I got the following exception: java.sql.SQLException: Lock wait timeout exceeded; try restarting transaction This happened when a different task tried to access some of the same tables during the execution of my long running transaction. What confuses me is that the long running transaction only inserts or updates into temporary tables. All access to non-temporary tables are selects only. From what documentation I can find, the default Spring transaction isolation level should not cause MySQL to block in this case. So my first question, is this the right approach? Can I ensure that I repeatedly get the same connection through a Hibernate template without a long running transaction? If the long running transaction approach is the correct one, what should I check in terms of isolation levels? Is my understanding correct that the default isolation level in Spring/MySQL transactions should not lock tables that are only accessed through selects? What can I do to debug which tables are causing the conflict, and prevent those tables from being locked by the transaction?

  Read the article

• Website running JavaScript setInterval starts to fail after ~1day

  - by Martin Clemens Bloch

  I wish I could be more specific here, but unfortunately this might be hard. I basically hope this is some "well"-known timeout or setup issue. We have a website running an (JS/html - ASP.net project) website overview on a screen at a factory. This screen has no keyboard so it should keep refreshing the page forever - years perhaps (though 1 week might be okay). (It is used by factory workers to see incoming transports etc.) This all works perfectly; the site continuously updates itself and gets the new correct data. Then, sometimes, in the morning this "overview" screen has no data and the workers have to manually refresh the site using the simple refresh button or F5 - which fixes everything. I have tried a few things trying to reproduce the error myself including: Cutting the internet connection and MANY other ways of making it timeout (breakpoints, stopping services etc.). Setting the refresh time of setInterval to 100ms and letting the site run 3-5 minutes. (normal timer is 1 minute) setInterval SHOULD run forever according to the internet searching I have done. Checked that "JavaScript frequency" has not been turned down in power saving settings. No matter what; the site resumes correct function WITHOUT a refresh as soon as I plug in the internet cable or whatever again - I can't reproduce the error. The website is dependent on a backend WCF service and project integration, but since the workers are fixing this with a simple refresh I am assuming this has not crashed. EDIT: The browser I tried to reproduce the error in was IE/win7. I will ask about the factory tomorrow, but I am guessing IE/win? also. Is setInterval in fact really infinite or is there something else wrong here? All help much appreciated. 0.5 bitcoin reward for solving answer ;)

  Read the article

• Where in maven project's path should I put configuration files that are not considered resources

  - by Paralife

  I have a simple java maven project. One of my classes when executing needs to load an xml configuration file from the classpath. I dont want to package such xml file when producing the jar but I want to include a default xml file in a zip assemply under a conf subfolder and I also want this default xml to be available in the unit tests to test against it. As I see it there are 2 possible places of this default xml: src/main/resources/conf/default.xml src/main/conf/default.xml Both solutions demand special pom actions: In solution 1, I get the auto copy to target folder during build which means it is available in testing but I also get it in the produced jar which i dont want. In solution 2, I get the jar as I want it(free of the xml) but I manually have to copy the xml to the target folder to be available for testing. (I dont want to add src's subfolders in test classpath. I think it is bad practice). The question is what is the best solution of the two? If the correct is 2, what is the best way to copy it to target folder? Is there any other solution better and more common than those two? (I also read http://stackoverflow.com/questions/465001/where-should-i-put-application-configuration-files-for-a-maven-project but I would like to know the most "correct solution" from the "convention over configuration" point of view and this link provides some configuration type solutions but not any convention oriented. Maybe there isnt one but I ask anyway. Also the solutions provided include AntRun plugin and appAssembler plugin and I wonder if I could do it with out them.)

  Read the article

• How can I prevent/make it hard to download my flash video?

  - by Billy

  I want to at least prevent normal users to download my flash video. What's the best way to do it? Create a httphandler, add a token (e.g. timeid), set the cache control to no-cache so that only the users with correct token can view the correct video. Is that feasible? It is the requirement from client that the video should not be downloaded by users and should be watched only in the particular website. I want to know if this works: http://www.somesite.com/video.swf?time=1248319067 Server will generate a token(time in the above example) so that user can only have one request to this link. If the user wants to watch the video again, he needs to go to our website to get the token again. Is this okay to prevent novices from downloading? I can't download this flash video by the downloadHelper firefox plugin: http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/americas/8164177.stm Updated (13:49 pm 2009/07/23): The above file can be downloaded using some video download software. The video files of following Chinese sites are well protected (I can't download it using many video download software): http://programme.tvb.com/drama/abrideforaride/video/ Do you know how it is done?

  Read the article

• iphone - moving from one view to another

  - by codemonkey

  Hi there, I am getting started with iphone development and am trying to move from one view to another. I have a main view (NearestPhotosViewController) which basically acts as a menu for my app. I then have a second view (DisplayNearestPhotos). I come from a web (html) background so what i'm trying to do here in web terms is click a button (link) on the NearestPhotosViewController view to then display the DisplayNearestPhotos view. I have been looking around for some code to do this (I don't think it's as simple as doing the equivelent in html). The following code is hooked up to a button on my menu view. -(IBAction)ButtonPressed:(id)sender { DisplayNearestPhotos *views = [[DisplayNearestPhotos alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; [self presentModalViewController:views animated:YES]; views.release; } The above code works (it displays the second view) but what i'd like to know is, is that the correct way to do it? If not, what is the correct way to move from one view to another? Thank you in advance

  Read the article

• Atomic swap in GNU C++

  - by Steve

  I want to verify that my understanding is correct. This kind of thing is tricky so I'm almost sure I am missing something. I have a program consisting of a real-time thread and a non-real-time thread. I want the non-RT thread to be able to swap a pointer to memory that is used by the RT thread. From the docs, my understanding is that this can be accomplished in g++ with: // global Data *rt_data; Data *swap_data(Data *new_data) { #ifdef __GNUC__ // Atomic pointer swap. Data *old_d = __sync_lock_test_and_set(&rt_data, new_data); #else // Non-atomic, cross your fingers. Data *old_d = rt_data; rt_data = new_data; #endif return old_d; } This is the only place in the program (other than initial setup) where rt_data is modified. When rt_data is used in the real-time context, it is copied to a local pointer. For old_d, later on when it is sure that the old memory is not used, it will be freed in the non-RT thread. Is this correct? Do I need volatile anywhere? Are there other synchronization primitives I should be calling? By the way I am doing this in C++, although I'm interested in whether the answer differs for C. Thanks ahead of time.

  Read the article

• Oracle Date Format Convert Hour-Minute to Interval and Disregard Year-Month-Day

  - by dlite922

  I need to compare an event's half-way midpoint between a start and stop time of day. Right now i'm converting the dates you see on the right, to HH:MM and the comparison works until midnight. the query says: WHERE half BETWEEN pStart and pStop. As you can see below, pStart and pStap have January 1st 2000 dates, this is because the year month day are not important to me... Valid Data: +-------+--------+-------+---------------------+---------------------+---------------------+ | half | pStart | pStop | half2 | pStart2 | pStop2 | +-------+--------+-------+---------------------+---------------------+---------------------+ | 19:00 | 19:00 | 23:00 | 2012-11-04 19:00:00 | 2000-01-01 19:00:00 | 2000-01-01 23:00:00 | | 20:00 | 19:00 | 23:00 | 2012-11-04 20:00:00 | 2000-01-01 19:00:00 | 2000-01-01 23:00:00 | | 21:00 | 19:00 | 23:00 | 2012-11-04 21:00:00 | 2000-01-01 19:00:00 | 2000-01-01 23:00:00 | | 23:00 | 20:00 | 23:00 | 2012-11-05 23:00:00 | 2000-01-01 20:00:00 | 2000-01-01 23:00:00 | +-------+--------+-------+---------------------+---------------------+---------------------+ Now observe what happens when pStop is midnight or later... Valid Data that breaks it: +-------+--------+-------+---------------------+---------------------+---------------------+ | half | pStart | pStop | half2 | pStart2 | pStop2 | +-------+--------+-------+---------------------+---------------------+---------------------+ | 23:00 | 22:00 | 00:00 | 2012-11-04 23:00:00 | 2000-01-01 22:00:00 | 2000-01-01 00:00:00 | | 23:30 | 23:00 | 02:00 | 2012-11-05 23:30:00 | 2000-01-01 23:00:00 | 2000-01-01 02:00:00 | +-------+--------+-------+---------------------+---------------------+---------------------+ Thus my where clause translates to: WHERE 19:00 BETWEEN 22:00 AND 00:00 ...which returns false and I miss those two correct rows above. Question: Is there a way to show those dates as integer interval so that saying half BETWEEN pStart and pStop are correct? I thought about adding 24 when pStop is less than pStart to make 00:00 into 24:00 but don't know an easy way to do that without long string concatenations and number conversions. This would solve the problem because pStart pStop difference will never be longer than 6 hours. Note: (The Query is much more complex. It has other irrelevant date calculations, but the result are show above. DATE_FORMAT(%H:%i) is applied to the first three columns and no formatting to the last three) Thanks for your help:

  Read the article

• PHP Thumbnail image generator works, but consistently awaits 90% of its loadtime! Why?

  - by Sam

  Hi folks, This is the follow-up question from this general page load speed question. This question which will focus only, entirely and specifically on the thumbnail generator PHP code with the question: What's causing the 97% delays on these tiny thumbnails? Measuring only 3 ~ 5 kb each, this is strange indeed! Even after 7 orso bounty-rounds and 100 upvotes, the images are still doing nothing for over 97% of the time. It works allright, but it could be so much faster! ZAM, my pet robot, was so annoyed by not knowing why, he just pulled out some cords! Silly metal box... (I have asked permission from the original author, to put temporarily segments of the code online that I think could be the problem, after which I will remove all code, except the several lines that were the direct cause of this issue here to match the answer. This will be the free opportunity to perfect/speedup his otherwise already to my opinion vert versatile and userfriendly thumbnail generator.)

  Read the article

• Efficiency of Java code with primitive types

  - by super89

  Hello! I want to ask which piece of code is more efficient in Java? Code 1: void f() { for(int i = 0 ; i < 99999;i++) { for(int j = 0 ; j < 99999;j++) { //Some operations } } } Code 2: void f() { int i,j; for(i = 0 ; i < 99999;i++) { for(j = 0 ; j < 99999;j++) { //Some operations } } } My teacher said that second is better, but I can't agree that opinion.

  Read the article

• symfony doctrine build-sql error

  - by user313571

  I have some big problems with symfony and doctrine at the beginning of a new project. I have created database diagram with mysql workbench, inserted the sql into phpmyadmin and then I've tried symfony doctrine:build-schema to generate the YAML schema. It generates a wrong schema (relations don't have on delete/on update) and after this I've tried symfony doctrine:build --sql and symfony doctrine:insert-sql The insert-sql statement generates error (can't create table ... failing query alter table add constraint ....), so I've decided to take a look over the generated sql and I've found out some differences between the sql generated from mysql workbench (which works perfect, including relations) and the sql generated by doctrine. I'll be short from now: I have to tables, EVENT and FORM and a 1 to n relation (each event may have multiple forms) so the correct constraint (generated with workbench) is ALTER TABLE `form` ADD CONSTRAINT `fk_form_event1` FOREIGN KEY (`event_id`) REFERENCES `event` (`id`) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE; doctrine generated statement is: ALTER TABLE event ADD CONSTRAINT event_id_form_event_id FOREIGN KEY (id) REFERENCES form(event_id); It's totally reversed and I am sure here is the error. What should I do? It's also correct like this?

  Read the article

• Are frameworks using byte-code generation creating leaky abstractions?

  - by Gabriel Šcerbák

  My point is, if you don't understand the abstraction of a framework, you can still decompile it and understand it, because you know the language e.g. Java. However, when byte-code generation happens, you have to understand even a lower level - JVM level byte-codes. I am really affraid of using any of such frameworks, which are many. Most of the time I think the reason for byte-code generation is simply lack of language features such as metaprogramming. Do you agree? What is your opinion and argument? How do you take over the problem with leaky abstractions in those frameworks?

  Read the article

• Twitter xAuth vs open source

  - by Yorirou

  Hi I am developing an open source desktop twitter client. I would like to take advantage on the new xAuth authentication method, however my app is open source which means that if I put the keys directly into the source file, it may be a vulnerability (am I correct? The twitter support guy told me). On the other hand, putting the key directly into a binary also doesn't make sense. I am writing my application in python, so if I just supply the pyc files, it is one more seconds to get the keys, thanks to the excellent reflection capatibilities of Python. If I create a small .so file with the keys, it is also trivial to obtain the key by looking at the raw binary (keys has fixed length and character set). What is your opinion? Is it really a secutiry hole to expose the API keys?

  Read the article

• With a browser, how do I know which decimal separator does the client use?

  - by Quassnoi

  I'm developing a web application. I need to display some decimal data correctly so that it can be copied and pasted into a certain GUI application that is not under my control. The GUI application is locale sensitive and it accepts only the correct decimal separator which is set in the system. I can guess the decimal separator from Accept-Language and the guess will be correct in 95% cases, but sometimes it fails. Is there any way to do it on server side (preferably, so that I can collect statistics), or on client side? Update: The whole point of the task is doing it automatically. In fact, this webapp is a kind of online interface to a legacy GUI which helps to fill the forms correctly. The kind of users that use it mostly have no idea on what a decimal separator is. The Accept-Language solution is implemented and works, but I'd like to improve it. Update2: I need to retrive a very specific setting: decimal separator set in Control Panel / Regional and Language Options / Regional Options / Customize. I deal with four kinds of operating systems: Russian Windows with a comma as a DS (80%). English Windows with a period as a DS (15%). Russian Windows with a period as a DS to make poorly written English applications work (4%). English Windows with a comma as a DS to make poorly written Russian applications work (1%). All 100% of clients are in Russia and the legacy application deals with Russian goverment-issued forms, so asking for a country will yield 100% of Russian Federation, and GeoIP will yield 80% of Russian Federation and 20% of other, incorrect answers.

  Read the article

• MS CRM 4.0 Remove inactive account from another list

  - by Ekaterina

  Hi, I have the following problem, on which I can't seem to find an answer... I have a CRM 4.0 system and I want to achieve the following: When I have a contact/account that's inactive to remove it from another list, for example the Marketing list. So I already have everything, up to the removing part. I have a collection with the inactive accounts/contacts (The ID's(GUID)), I just need to remove somehow the member from the list. So there is a class RemoveMemberListRequest which looks like the correct one, the only problem is, somehow I can't get it to work. foreach (Guid currentMember in inactiveMembers) { RemoveMemberListRequest req = new RemoveMemberListRequest(); req.ListId = context.PrimaryEntityId; req.EntityId = currentMember ; RemoveMemberListResponse rmlResp = (RemoveMemberListResponse)crmService.Execute(req); } When It tries to Execute, the request it fails, with very generic error, that it was unable to execute the request. I am also not sure if that's the correct way of doing it... There is another class that seems to have a property that might be useful: QualifyMemberListRequest With property: OverrideorRemove But I don't really understand how this one works, and I couldn't find enough information. Anybody?

  Read the article

• Using Parameter Values In SQL Statement

  - by Dangerous

  I am trying to write a database script (SQL SERVER 2008) which will copy information from database tables on one server to corresponding tables in another database on a different server. I have read that the correct way to do this is to use a sql statement in a format similar to the following: INSERT INTO <linked_server>.<database>.<owner>.<table_name> SELECT * FROM <linked_server>.<database>.<owner>.<table_name> As there will be several tables being copied, I would like to declare variables at the top of the script to allow the user to specify the names of each server and database that are to be used. These could then be used throughout the script. However, I am not sure how to use the variable values in the actual SQL statements. What I want to achieve is something like the following: DECLARE @SERVER_FROM AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'ServerFrom' DECLARE @DATABASE_FROM AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'DatabaseTo' DECLARE @SERVER_TO AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'ServerTo' DECLARE @DATABASE_TO AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'DatabaseTo' INSERT INTO @SERVER_TO.@DATABASE_TO.dbo.TableName SELECT * FROM @SERVER_FROM.@DATABASE_FROM.dbo.TableName ... How should I use the @ variables in this code in order for it to work correctly? Additionally, do you think my method above is correct for what I am trying to achieve and should I be using NVARCHAR(50) as my variable type or something else? Thanks

  Read the article

• Agile Approach for WCM

  - by cameron.f.logan

  Can anyone provide me with advice, opinions, or experience with using an agile methodology to delivery an enterprise-scale Web Content Management system (e.g., Interwoven TeamSite, Tridion)? My current opinion is that to implement a CM system there is a certain--relatively high--amount of upfront work that needs to happen to make sure the system is going to be scalable and efficient for future projects for the multi-year lifespan an WCM is expected to have. This suggests a hybrid approach at best, if not a more waterfall-like approach. I'm really interested to learn what approaches others have taken. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Need to calculate rotation-vector from Sensor.TYPE_ORIENTATION data

  - by Sponge

  I need to calculate a rotation vector out of the data i get from Sensor.TYPE_ORIENTATION. The sensor data is defined like this: the values have to be recalculated to become a correct 3d position: values[0]: Azimuth, angle between the magnetic north direction and the Y axis, around the Z axis (0 to 359). 0=North, 90=East, 180=South, 270=West values[1]: Pitch, rotation around X axis (-180 to 180), with positive values when the z-axis moves toward the y-axis. values[2]: Roll, rotation around Y axis (-90 to 90), with positive values when the x-axis moves away from the z-axis I need all three values like the Z axis value (from 0 to 360 degree). I tried a lot but cant figure out how to do this :/ i also tried to use Sensor.TYPE_ACCELEROMETER and Sensor.TYPE_MAGNETIC_FIELD to calculate this 3d vector on my own. here is the code: final float[] inR = new float[16]; // load inR matrix from current sensor data: SensorManager.getRotationMatrix(inR, null, gravityValues, geomagneticValues); float[] orientation = new float[3]; SensorManager.getOrientation(inR, orientation); mapMagAndAcclDataToVector(orientation); //here i do some *360 stuff orientetionChanged(orientation); //then the correct values are passed (in theorie) But this didn't work and i think it is much to complicated. So i bet there is a simple solution how to recalc the values of ensor.TYPE_ORIENTATION to make them a 3d rotation vector, but i just dont know how to do it. If you know the answer please tell me.

  Read the article

• WPF. How do I create many LIstViews with the same look.

  - by Erik Z

  I've defined a listview in my recent project and realized that I will be using more listviews looking exactly the same and having the same solumns. Since I'm new to WPF am I curious of teh best way to do this. Is it to create a usercontrol? Use styles? I've tried to use styles but it didnt work the way I was hoping. I tried to set the "View" property using style, like this. <Style x:Key="ListViewStyle" TargetType="{x:Type ListView}"> <Setter Property="View"> <ListView.View> <GridView> But it didnt work so I'm asking for your opinion?! Thanks.

  Read the article

• Simply doing modelType.ToString() isn't sufficient, How can i use it via Activator.CreateInstance?

  - by programmerist

  public class MyController { public object CreateByEnum(DataModelType modeltype) { string enumText = modeltype.ToString(); // will return for example "Company" Type classType = Type.GetType(enumText); // the Type for Company class object t = Activator.CreateInstance(classType); // create an instance of Company class return t; } } public class CompanyView { public static List<Personel> GetPersonel() { MyController controller = new MyController(); _Company company = controller.CreateByEnum(DataModelType.Company) as _Company; return company.GetPersonel(); } } public enum DataModelType { xyz, klm, tucyz, Company } Yes, I agree Activator.CreateInstance() is very useful. Unfortunately, I need to pass in the correct type. That means building the correct string to pass to Type.GetType(). If I trace through the call to Controller.CreatebyEnum() in the code I posted above, simply doing modelType.ToString() isn't sufficient, even for the case of DataModelType.Company. My solution'll be maintenance bottleneck. What would be better is something that takes the results of modelType.ToString() and then recursively searches through all the types found in all the assemblies loaded in the current AppDomain. According to MSDN, Type.GetType() only searches the current calling assembly, and mscorlib.dll. How can i do that? . i need best performance?

  Read the article

• Counting down to zero in contrast to counting up to length - 1

  - by Helper Method

  Is it recommended to count in small loops (where possible) down from length - 1 to zero instead of counting up to length - 1? 1.) Counting down for (int i = a.length - 1; i >= 0; i--) { if (a[i] == key) return i; } 2.) Counting up for (int i = 0; i < a.length; i++) { if (a[i] == key) return i; } The first one is slightly faster that the second one (because comparing to zero is faster) but is a little more error-prone in my opinion. Besides, the first one could maybe not be optimized by future improvements of the JVM. Any ideas on that?

  Read the article

• Is a sharepoint developer technically "equipped" to do custom app dev and vise-versa?

  - by Amir

  This may be an opinion based question, but it's something that I wanted to ask (even if it does end up getting closed or deleted). I do custom app dev (asp.net/aspMVC) and have absolutely no knowledge about sharepoint and was wondering: If you have a "rock solid" custom app dev, asp.net/aspMVC web developer can he jump into sharepoint development fairly easily? What about the other way around? Does a seasoned sharepoint developer have the "chops" to do custom app dev using asp.net/aspMVC? By no means do I want to offend any sharepoint developers or any custom app dev developers. I'm merely trying to see how much knowledge you can take with you when going from one type of development to another.

  Read the article

• Good workflow with emacs+swank+slime+clojure?

  - by grm

  I just wanted opinion on good workflow using the emacs environment with clojure+swank+slime. I often find myself doing very repetitive keycommands and wonder if there is an obvious better way. I include swank with lein and start my project using lein swank from shell. Then I connect with emacs and do the correct use commands so that I can start to use (run-tests ). Then I do some coding and then want to test. To run the test I need to change buffer in emacs to the swank-repl C-x o, then I need to go to the prompt M-, then repeat the command M-p, then enter, maybe with an exception, then back to the code buffer and continue all over again with all the emacs commands. I find it a bit repetitive. I guess the solution would be to start hack on emacs and maybe add a shortcut for doing this repetitive task, but I would love to hear some suggestions because I can't be the only one who find this tedious?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147  | Next Page >