Search Results

Search found 13635 results on 546 pages for 'domain policies'.

Page 141/546 | < Previous Page | 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148  | Next Page >

  • Many RewriteBase in one .htaccess file?

    - by Martti Laine
    Hello I have a domain and a wordpress-blog on same server. Now I have a problem (surprise). The wordpress is located on /httpdocs/blog/ and domain is pointing to /httpdocs/ and I'm trying to redirect it to /httpdocs/domain/. But, obvisiously, I have permalinks in Wordpress. Here's my current .htaccess: RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /blog/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /blog/index.php [L] RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} domain.com RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/domain RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/cgi-bin RewriteRule ^(.*)$ domain/$1 [L] But as you already propably assumed, this doesn't work. Wordpress' permalinks affects to /domain/ also, so my images and other urls go wrong. Any advice? Is it possible to use RewriteBase like this? Martti Laine

    Read the article

  • HttpWebRequest Cookie weirdness

    - by Lachman
    I'm sure I must be doing something wrong. But can't for the life of me figure out what is going on. I have a problem where it seems that the HttpWebRequest class in the framework is not correctly parsing the cookies from a web response. I'm using Fiddler to see what is going on and after making a request, the headers of the response look as such: HTTP/1.1 200 Ok Connection: close Date: Wed, 14 Jan 2009 18:20:31 GMT Server: Microsoft-IIS/6.0 P3P: policyref="/w3c/p3p.xml", CP="CAO DSP IND COR ADM CONo CUR CUSi DEV PSA PSD DELi OUR COM NAV PHY ONL PUR UNI" Set-Cookie: user=v.5,0,EX01E508801E$97$2E401000t$1BV6$A1$EC$104$A1$EC$104$A1$EC$104$21O001000$1E31!90$7CP$AE$3F$F3$D8$19o$BC$1Cd$23; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: minfo=v.4,EX019ECD28D6k$A3$CA$0C$CE$A2$D6$AD$D4!2$8A$EF$E8n$91$96$E1$D7$C8$0F$98$AA$ED$DC$40V$AB$9C$C1$9CF$C9$C1zIF$3A$93$C6$A7$DF$A1$7E$A7$A1$A8$BD$A6$94c$D5$E8$2F$F4$AF$A2$DF$80$89$BA$BBd$F6$2C$B6$A8; expires=Sunday, 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: accttype=v.2,3,1,EX017E651B09k$A3$CA$0C$DB$A2$CB$AD$D9$8A$8C$EF$E8t$91$90$E1$DC$C89$98$AA$E0$DC$40O$A8$A4$C1$9C; expires=Sunday, 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: tpid=v.1,20001; expires=Sunday, 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: MC1=GUID=541977e04a341a2a4f4cdaaf49615487; expires=Sunday, 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: linfo=v.4,EQC|0|0|255|1|0||||||||0|0|0||0|0|0|-1|-1; expires=Sunday, 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: group=v.1,0; expires=Sunday, 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Content-Type: text/html But when I look at the response.Cookies, I see far more cookies that I am expecting, with values of different cookies being split up into different cookies. Manually getting the headers seems to result in more wierdness eg: the code foreach(string cookie in response.Headers.GetValues("Set-Cookie")) { Console.WriteLine("Cookie found: " + cookie); } produces the output: Cookie found: user=v.5 Cookie found: 0 Cookie found: EX01E508801E$97$2E401000t$1BV6$A1$EC$104$A1$EC$104$A1$EC$104$21O00 1000$1E31!90$7CP$AE$3F$F3$D8$19o$BC$1Cd$23; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Cookie found: minfo=v.4 Cookie found: EX019ECD28D6k$A3$CA$0C$CE$A2$D6$AD$D4!2$8A$EF$E8n$91$96$E1$D7$C8$0 F$98$AA$ED$DC$40V$AB$9C$C1$9CF$C9$C1zIF$3A$93$C6$A7$DF$A1$7E$A7$A1$A8$BD$A6$94c$ D5$E8$2F$F4$AF$A2$DF$80$89$BA$BBd$F6$2C$B6$A8; expires=Sunday Cookie found: 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Cookie found: accttype=v.2 Cookie found: 3 Cookie found: 1 Cookie found: EX017E651B09k$A3$CA$0C$DB$A2$CB$AD$D9$8A$8C$EF$E8t$91$90$E1$DC$C89 $98$AA$E0$DC$40O$A8$A4$C1$9C; expires=Sunday Cookie found: 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Cookie found: tpid=v.1 Cookie found: 20001; expires=Sunday Cookie found: 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Cookie found: MC1=GUID=541977e04a341a2a4f4cdaaf49615487; expires=Sunday Cookie found: 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Cookie found: linfo=v.4 Cookie found: EQC|0|0|255|1|0||||||||0|0|0||0|0|0|-1|-1; expires=Sunday Cookie found: 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Cookie found: group=v.1 Cookie found: 0; expires=Sunday Cookie found: 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ as you can see - the first cookie in the list raw response: Set-Cookie: user=v.5,0,EX01E508801 is getting split into: Cookie found: user=v.5 Cookie found: 0 Cookie found: EX01E508801E$.......... So - what's going on here? Am I wrong? Is the HttpWebRequest class incorrectly parsing the http headers? Is the webserver that it spitting out the requests producing invalid http headers?

    Read the article

  • Sync clock on Windows XP machine to external (non-domain, non-workgroup) Windows Server 2008 R2 machine

    - by Eric
    I have two machines and I'd like their clocks to be in sync for various reasons. Machine 1 is an XP machine located in the office. Machine 2 is a VPS hosted by a third party running Windows Server 2008 R2. These machines are not in any kind of workgroup or on a domain together. They are completely separate machines. Machine 2 is currently syncing once a week to time.windows.com. The clock on Machine 2 does seem to wander a bit within that week interval. What I would like to do is have Machine 1 set its clock based on the clock of Machine 2. I have tried configuring w32tm on the XP machine. This is what I used for configuration: w32tm /config /syncfromflags:manual /manualpeerlist:"<ip address of machine 2>" However, whenever I issue the /resync command I get "The computer did not resync because no time data was available". I have made sure to start the windows time service on machine 2, and I have added firewall exceptions for UDP port 123. Is there something I need to configure on Machine 2 (other than just starting the time service) in order to get it to respond? Edit: I have also run w32tm /config /reliable:YES /update on Machine 2. I am still getting "The computer did not resync because no time data was available". Is there something else I'm missing?

    Read the article

  • Why can't I copy .zip files from a server to a server in a different domain?

    - by Kyralessa
    At work, we're using a Windows Server 2008 R2 VM as our build server. At the end of the build process for any of our projects, we copy the packaged deployment files to a folder on the server where they'll be deployed. (This is done in a batch command by a service account.) For most of our projects, which deploy to a Windows Server 2008 R2 VM, this step goes swimmingly. But for one project, which deploys to a Windows Server 2003 R2 VM which resides in a different domain on our network, the .zip files return "Access is denied" and don't copy, though all of the other files copy correctly. Our sysadmins say they haven't prevented this in group policy or by other means. If I'm logged in the build server as myself and run the copy in the command window, I can't copy the .zip files over either, so it's not just a matter of the service account's permissions. If I log into the 2003 server and then copy from the build server to the 2003 server, using the command window, it works, whether I run as myself or as our service account. Only .zip files cause the "Access is denied" problem. Even a (fake) .exe file copies correctly. All of our other projects have .zip files, and they copy to their 2008 R2 server correctly. Is there a way I can get the Windows Server 2003 R2 VM to accept .zip files copied from our build server?

    Read the article

  • added ip-based virtual host to sites-available and created symlink to sites-enabled...but new domain

    - by lililili
    I added ip-based virtual host to sites-availble and created symlink to sites-enabled, but new domain times out. When i navigate to mynewdomain.com it says connection timed out. NameVirtualHost 12.12.12.12 <VirtualHost 12.12.12.12> ServerAdmin webmaster@localhost ServerName newdomain.com DocumentRoot /var/www/newdomain.com <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None </Directory> <Directory /var/www/> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews AllowOverride None Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> ScriptAlias /cgi-bin/ /usr/lib/cgi-bin/ <Directory "/usr/lib/cgi-bin"> AllowOverride None Options +ExecCGI -MultiViews +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/error.log # Possible values include: debug, info, notice, warn, error, crit, # alert, emerg. LogLevel warn CustomLog /var/log/apache2/access.log combined ServerSignature On Alias /doc/ "/usr/share/doc/" <Directory "/usr/share/doc/"> Options Indexes MultiViews FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order deny,allow Deny from all Allow from 127.0.0.0/255.0.0.0 ::1/128 </Directory> </VirtualHost>

    Read the article

  • How can you connect to a SQL Server not on your domain?

    - by scotty2012
    I have a test machine that's not allowed on our domain because we are testing corporately unsupported applications (SQL 2008 and Server 2008). I want to use management studio to connect to the SQL2008 server but can't get it working. I have authentication set to mixed-mode, I've checked 'allow remote connections to this server', but when I try to access it, I get the error A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 53) Since it says the provider is Named Pipes, I enabled Named Pipes on the server, but still no dice. I've tried connecting to the system name, the IP, the system name\instance and IP\instance, all to no avail. Is what I'm trying to do not possible? Edit: Well, through some basic troubleshooting, I've found that I can't ping the server from my client computer, but I can ping the client computer from the server? They are both plugged into the same switch, and are sitting next to each other. The windows firewall on the server is turned on, is there some specific settings I need to enable? DAH! So it was the firewall blocking me. How can I enable the firewall and still connect?

    Read the article

  • How to replace the domain name in a Wordpress database?

    - by Cristian
    I have a Wordpress database which was installed in a development environment... thus, all references to the site itself have a fixed IP address (say 192.168.16.2). Now, I have to migrate that database to a new Wordpress installation on a hosting. The problem is that the SQL dump contains a lot of references to the IP address, and I have to replace it with: my_domain.com. I could use sed or some other command to change the that from the command line, the problem is that there are a lot of configuration data which uses JSON. So what? Well, as you know, JSON arrays uses things like: s:4: to know how many chars an element has, and thus, if I just replace the IP with the domain name, the configuration files will get corrupted. I used an app for Windows some years ago that allows to change values in a database and takes care of the JSON arrays. Unfortunately, I forgot the name of the app... so the question is: do you know any app that allows me to do what I want?

    Read the article

  • Can I use a Windows Server 2003 Domain Controller but my home router for DNS?

    - by NetworkingWannabie
    Hi All Probably easiest to start with a description of my current setup, which works (oh, and this is a home setup not an office or anything): I have an ADSL modem with a static IP address (192.168.128.1), and its DHCP capability is disabled. I have a permanently powered up Windows Server 2003 machine with a fixed IP (192.168.128.2) which provides my domain controller, dhcp, and dns. The default gateway for everything is my ADSL modem everything is setup to use the WS2003 machine as the primary DNS with the ADSL modem as Secondary DNS just in case the server goes down (everything includes the server itself). Lastly, just in case it's relevant, I have my DHCP leases set to infinite (or whatever the right term is). Everything is pretty hunky dory. Except, that is, for the fact that my server is ALWAYS on, and it isn't always used, so I'm burning juice that I don't need to - my server burns around 120W which isn't immense but isn't irrelevant either, so I'd like to put it into a stand-by state when it isn't being used (the more standby the better) and then get the clients to wake it up. Am I correct in assuming that this won't work at the moment - A given client would need an IP address to wake the machine up, and it needs to machine to be awake to get an IP - catch 22? Assuming I'm correct, can I move to using my router (which is always on) for DHCP? What impact will this have on DC and DNS? Alternatively, does anyone have a better way for me to achieve this? Can I get the server to wake up when it sees clients look for a DHCP server, etc? Wow, that came out longer than expected! Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • SQL Server 2008: Getting Login failed for user "Domain\User". Failed to open the explicitly specified database [CLIENT: IP.ADD.RR.ESS]

    - by GodEater
    This is a very similar issue to " SQL Server 2008 login problem with ASP.NET application: Failed to open the explicitly specified database " which unfortunately seems to have gone unsolved. My issue here is subtly different. Firstly the account failing login is not 'NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE' - it's an actual domain account. Secondly, there are two machines involved - I gathered from the first question it was a single machine running both the IIS and SQL instances. The application which is trying to connect to the database is an ASP.NET one running on another server (if that makes any different, I'm not sure it does.) The ConnectionString being used in the web.config for the application is : data source=MySQLServer;initial catalog=MyDatabase;integrated security=sspi; And the Application Pool is set to NetworkService for Identity. So - in the web app, I get the following error : Cannot open database "MyDatabase" requested by the login. The login failed. Login failed for user 'MyDomain\WebServerMachineName$' In the SQL Server logs I see : Login failed for user 'MyDomain\WebServerMachineName$'. Reason: Failed to open the explicitly specified database. [CLIENT: Web.Server.IP.Address] Running this bit of SQL against the database in question : USE [MyDatabase] GO SELECT SDP.name AS [User Name], SDP.type_desc AS [User Type], UPPER(SDPS.name) AS [Database Role] FROM sys.database_principals SDP INNER JOIN sys.database_role_members SDRM ON SDP.principal_id=SDRM.member_principal_id INNER JOIN sys.database_principals SDPS ON SDRM.role_principal_id = SDPS.principal_id Gets me this result : MyDomain\WebServerMachineName$ WINDOWS_USER DB_DDLADMIN MyDomain\WebServerMachineName$ WINDOWS_USER DB_DATAREADER MyDomain\WebServerMachineName$ WINDOWS_USER DB_DATAWRITER Which appears to me to indicate I've got the permissions right. Anyone have any idea why it's not working, or how I can narrow the issue down some more?

    Read the article

  • How to set up virtual hosts properly on a windows machine using Zend Community CE ?

    - by Scott F
    I have set up Zend Server CE on a windows machine and am having the hardest time setting up virtual hosts. No matter what I do, links on my local machine are showing "localhost" in the path causing all images and links to not work properly. I have the following in my vhosts file and while the site loads up, most links show "local host in them". Please help. NameVirtualHost *:80 DocumentRoot D:\zend_server_ce\Apache2\htdocs\domain.dev ServerName www.domain.dev ServerAlias www.domain.dev *.domain.dev domain.dev UseCanonicalName Off #CustomLog D:\zend_server_ce\Apache2\htdocs\domain.dev\logs\access.log # ErrorLog D:\zend_server_ce\Apache2\htdocs\domain.dev\logs\error.log Options Indexes FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all

    Read the article

  • Host couldn't be reached by domain name, only by IP: Apache's fault?

    - by MaxArt
    I have this Windows Server 2003 R2 32 bit machine running Apache 2.4.2 with OpenSSL 1.0.1c and PHP 5.4.5 via mod_fcgid 2.3.7. This config worked just fine for some hours, but then the site couldn't be reached with its domain name, say www.example.com, but it could be still reached by its IP address. In particular, while https://www.example.com/ yielded a connection error, http://123.1.2.3/ worked just fine. Yes, first https then http. Error and access logs were clean, i.e. they showed no signs of problems. Just the usual messages, that were interrupted while the site couldn't be reached. After some investigation, a simple restart of Apache solved the problem. Unfortunately, I didn't have the chance to test if https://123.1.2.3/ worked as well, or if http://www.example.com/ was still redirected to https as usual. So, has anyone have any idea of what happened? Before I get tired of Apache and ditch it in favor of Nginx? Edit: Some log informations. The last line of sslerror.log is from 90 minutes before the problem occurred, so I guess it's not important. ssl_request.log shows nothing interesting, too: these are the last two lines before the problem: [28/Aug/2012:17:47:54 +0200] x.x.x.x TLSv1.1 ECDHE-RSA-AES256-SHA "GET /login HTTP/1.1" 1183 [28/Aug/2012:17:47:45 +0200] y.y.y.y TLSv1 ECDHE-RSA-AES256-SHA "POST /upf HTTP/1.1" 73 The previous lines are all the same and don't seem interesting, except 4 lines like these 30-40 seconds before the problem: [28/Aug/2012:17:47:14 +0200] z.z.z.z TLSv1 ECDHE-RSA-AES256-SHA "-" - These are the corrisponding lines from sslaccess.log: z.z.z.z - - [28/Aug/2012:17:47:14 +0200] "-" 408 - ... x.x.x.x - - [28/Aug/2012:17:47:54 +0200] "GET /login HTTP/1.1" 200 1183 y.y.y.y - - [28/Aug/2012:17:47:45 +0200] "POST /upf HTTP/1.1" 200 73

    Read the article

  • Using a nat rule to translate 80/443 traffic to web server, but internal users cannot access it using external ip/domain name

    - by Josh
    I am using Cisco ASDM for ASA I have my internal network called soa. My outside interface is called outside. Let's say my outside IP given to me by my ISP isp is y.y.y.y I have a web server inside my network with a static ip of x.x.x.110. I have configured 2 static nat rules (one for http the other for https). Source is x.x.x.110. Interface is outside, service (http or https). Maybe I am doing this wrong, but when I run the packet tracer, I choose outside interface and for the source IP I used 8.8.8.8 and the destination ip is my outside IP address, y.y.y.y When I run that, it shows the packet traversing successfully, using 9 steps. For my other test, I switch to the soa interface, input an ip on that network, and leave the destination the same. This test comes up with 2 steps and then fails on my access list. When I see the rule that fails, it is my catch all which is source: any desitnation: any, service: ip action: deny. What rule do I need to make to allow my soa network access to go out and come back in by my external IP addess (using a domain name attached to that ip in my dns, of course)?

    Read the article

  • How to change the mail domain server so it's not displaying IP? Changing [email protected] to [email protected]

    - by Pavel
    Hi guys. I'm kinda a noob as a server admin so please bear with me. I've installed postfix mail server and everything is working fine but the 'from' box is displaying [email protected]. I want to set it up so it displays domainname.com instead of IP. I just hope you know what I mean. My main.cf in postfix folder looks like this: # See /usr/share/postfix/main.cf.dist for a commented, more complete version # Debian specific: Specifying a file name will cause the first # line of that file to be used as the name. The Debian default # is /etc/mailname. myorigin = /etc/mailname smtpd_banner = $myhostname ESMTP $mail_name (Ubuntu) biff = no # appending .domain is the MUA's job. append_dot_mydomain = no # Uncomment the next line to generate "delayed mail" warnings #delay_warning_time = 4h readme_directory = no # TLS parameters smtpd_tls_cert_file=/etc/ssl/certs/ssl-cert-snakeoil.pem smtpd_tls_key_file=/etc/ssl/private/ssl-cert-snakeoil.key smtpd_use_tls=yes smtpd_tls_session_cache_database = btree:${data_directory}/smtpd_scache smtp_tls_session_cache_database = btree:${data_directory}/smtp_scache # See /usr/share/doc/postfix/TLS_README.gz in the postfix-doc package for # information on enabling SSL in the smtp client. myhostname = mail.thevinylfactory alias_maps = hash:/etc/aliases alias_database = hash:/etc/aliases myorigin = /etc/mailname mydestination = mail.thevinylfactory.com, thevinylfactory, localhost.localdomain, localhost relayhost = mynetworks = 127.0.0.0/8 [::ffff:127.0.0.0]/104 [::1]/128 mailbox_size_limit = 0 recipient_delimiter = + inet_interfaces = all Can anyone help me with this one? If you need any more details please let me know. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Why domain.com appears as theplant.com when hosted on hostgator?

    - by silow
    I have a script that's supposed to detect the url of its caller website. If the caller is another website, it should give something like http://callersite.com. I'm using this line of php code (though I suspect this won't matter for sysadmins) gethostbyaddr($_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']) I'm testing with a caller site that's hosted on hostgator. What I'm noticing though is that I don't get callersite.com, I get something like 1a.12.12ab.static.theplanet.com. I don't know what theplanet.com is and why I'm not getting caller site.com. Also what do I need to do to really get the domain of the site making a call to my script? -- Thanks for the explanation. Some have advised I use $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] but it's not what I'm after. My script acts as an API. Another website makes a curl request to it and gets an output and later on presents it to the user. So http referrer gives false since the caller site.com is making a direct call to me. So any hope?

    Read the article

  • What are possible results/side effects if replication between DC's in a Windows domain is unable to occur?

    - by hydroparadise
    There's plenty of administration literature out there how to properly manage Windows servers. But in dealing with real life, things don't always occur like you want them to. In Microsoft's Windows Server 2003 Administrator's Companion, out of 1400+ pages, theres only one page that I could find when it comes up setting up additional domain controlers. They make it sound seemless and don't reveal a whole lot on what happens if "peer" DC's are unable to replicate. Down to the specific issue at hand, we had a DC go down about a month ago due to a bad RAID controller. There was nothing critical that waranted imediate attention, so bringing it back up got put on the back burner. A month later, we get the DC back up and running and everyting seemed ok. The next day, nobody is able to logon complaining that the "user does not exist" or "unable to establish a trust relationship". Knowing that I had just put the downed DC back on the network, I immediately took it back off the network and had everybody restart the workstations. After that, exchange was fine, shares became available, and everybody was able to log in. After doing some event log swimming, it would appear that everything started due to replication issues on the SYSVOL. I've read where you can force replication, but that would mean putting it back on the network. I am afraid to put the DC back on the network in fear that something else could go wrong. So, what other issues could one expect to run into where two DC's are unreplicated for over a month?

    Read the article

  • Securing an ADF Application using OES11g: Part 2

    - by user12587121
    To validate the integration with OES we need a sample ADF Application that is rich enough to allow us to test securing the various ADF elements.  To achieve this we can add some items including bounded task flows to the application developed in this tutorial. A sample JDeveloper 11.1.1.6 project is available here. It depends on the Fusion Order Demo (FOD) database schema which is easily created using the FOD build scripts.In the deployment we have chosen to enable only ADF Authentication as we will delegate Authorization, mostly, to OES.The welcome page of the application with all the links exposed looks as follows: The Welcome, Browse Products, Browse Stock and System Administration links go to pages while the Supplier Registration and Update Stock are bounded task flows.  The Login link goes to a basic login page and once logged in a link is presented that goes to a logout page.  Only the Browse Products and Browse Stock pages are really connected to the database--the other pages and task flows do not really perform any operations on the database. Required Security Policies We make use of a set of test users and roles as decscribed on the welcome page of the application.  In order to exercise the different authorization possibilities we would like to enforce the following sample policies: Anonymous users can see the Login, Welcome and Supplier Registration links. They can also see the Welcome page, the Login page and follow the Supplier Registration task flow.  They can see the icon adjacent to the Login link indicating whether they have logged in or not. Authenticated users can see the Browse Product page. Only staff granted the right can see the Browse Product page cost price value returned from the database and then only if the value is below a configurable limit. Suppliers and staff can see the Browse Stock links and pages.  Customers cannot. Suppliers can see the Update Stock link but only those with the update permission are allowed to follow the task flow that it launches.  We could hide the link but leave it exposed here so we can easily demonstrate the method call activity protecting the task flow. Only staff granted the right can see the System Administration link and the System Administration page it accesses. Implementing the required policies In order to secure the application we will make use of the following techniques: EL Expressions and Java backing beans: JSF has the notion of EL expressions to reference data from backing Java classes.  We use these to control the presentation of links on the navigation page which respect the security contraints.  So a user will not see links that he is not allowed to click on into. These Java backing beans can call on to OES for an authorization decision.  Important Note: naturally we would configure the WLS domain where our ADF application is running as an OES WLS SM, which would allow us to efficiently query OES over the PEP API.  However versioning conflicts between OES 11.1.1.5 and ADF 11.1.1.6 mean that this is not possible.  Nevertheless, we can make use of the OES RESTful gateway technique from this posting in order to call into OES. You can easily create and manage backing beans in Jdeveloper as follows: Custom ADF Phase Listener: ADF extends the JSF page lifecycle flow and allows one to hook into the flow to intercept page rendering.  We use this to put a check prior to rendering any protected pages, again calling on to OES via the backing bean.  Phase listeners are configured in the adf-settings.xml file.  See the MyPageListener.java class in the project.  Here, for example,  is the code we use in the listener to check for allowed access to the sysadmin page, navigating back to the welcome page if authorization is not granted:                         if (page != null && (page.equals("/system.jspx") || page.equals("/system"))){                             System.out.println("MyPageListener: Checking Authorization for /system");                             if (getValue("#{oesBackingBean.UIAccessSysAdmin}").toString().equals("false") ){                                   System.out.println("MyPageListener: Forcing navigation away from system" +                                       "to welcome");                                 NavigationHandler nh = fc.getApplication().getNavigationHandler();                                   nh.handleNavigation(fc, null, "welcome");                               } else {                                 System.out.println("MyPageListener: access allowed");                              }                         } Method call activity: our app makes use of bounded task flows to implement the sequence of pages that update the stock or allow suppliers to self register.  ADF takes care of ensuring that a bounded task flow can be entered by only one page.  So a way to protect all those pages is to make a call to OES in the first activity and then either exit the task flow or continue depending on the authorization decision.  The method call returns a String which contains the name of the transition to effect. This is where we configure the method call activity in JDeveloper: We implement each of the policies using the above techniques as follows: Policies 1 and 2: as these policies concern the coarse grained notions of controlling access to anonymous and authenticated users we can make use of the container’s security constraints which can be defined in the web.xml file.  The allPages constraint is added automatically when we configure Authentication for the ADF application.  We have added the “anonymousss” constraint to allow access to the the required pages, task flows and icons: <security-constraint>    <web-resource-collection>      <web-resource-name>anonymousss</web-resource-name>      <url-pattern>/faces/welcome</url-pattern>      <url-pattern>/afr/*</url-pattern>      <url-pattern>/adf/*</url-pattern>      <url-pattern>/key.png</url-pattern>      <url-pattern>/faces/supplier-reg-btf/*</url-pattern>      <url-pattern>/faces/supplier_register_complete</url-pattern>    </web-resource-collection>  </security-constraint> Policy 3: we can place an EL expression on the element representing the cost price on the products.jspx page: #{oesBackingBean.dataAccessCostPrice}. This EL Expression references a method in a Java backing bean that will call on to OES for an authorization decision.  In OES we model the authorization requirement by requiring the view permission on the resource /MyADFApp/data/costprice and granting it only to the staff application role.  We recover any obligations to determine the limit.  Policy 4: is implemented by putting an EL expression on the Browse Stock link #{oesBackingBean.UIAccessBrowseStock} which checks for the view permission on the /MyADFApp/ui/stock resource. The stock.jspx page is protected by checking for the same permission in a custom phase listener—if the required permission is not satisfied then we force navigation back to the welcome page. Policy 5: the Update Stock link is protected with the same EL expression as the Browse Link: #{oesBackingBean.UIAccessBrowseStock}.  However the Update Stock link launches a bounded task flow and to protect it the first activity in the flow is a method call activity which will execute an EL expression #{oesBackingBean.isUIAccessSupplierUpdateTransition}  to check for the update permission on the /MyADFApp/ui/stock resource and either transition to the next step in the flow or terminate the flow with an authorization error. Policy 6: the System Administration link is protected with an EL Expression #{oesBackingBean.UIAccessSysAdmin} that checks for view access on the /MyADF/ui/sysadmin resource.  The system page is protected in the same way at the stock page—the custom phase listener checks for the same permission that protects the link and if not satisfied we navigate back to the welcome page. Testing the Application To test the application: deploy the OES11g Admin to a WLS domain deploy the OES gateway in a another domain configured to be a WLS SM. You must ensure that the jps-config.xml file therein is configured to allow access to the identity store, otherwise the gateway will not b eable to resolve the principals for the requested users.  To do this ensure that the following elements appear in the jps-config.xml file: <serviceProvider type="IDENTITY_STORE" name="idstore.ldap.provider" class="oracle.security.jps.internal.idstore.ldap.LdapIdentityStoreProvider">             <description>LDAP-based IdentityStore Provider</description>  </serviceProvider> <serviceInstance name="idstore.ldap" provider="idstore.ldap.provider">             <property name="idstore.config.provider" value="oracle.security.jps.wls.internal.idstore.WlsLdapIdStoreConfigProvider"/>             <property name="CONNECTION_POOL_CLASS" value="oracle.security.idm.providers.stdldap.JNDIPool"/></serviceInstance> <serviceInstanceRef ref="idstore.ldap"/> download the sample application and change the URL to the gateway in the MyADFApp OESBackingBean code to point to the OES Gateway and deploy the application to an 11.1.1.6 WLS domain that has been extended with the ADF JRF files. You will need to configure the FOD database connection to point your database which contains the FOD schema. populate the OES Admin and OES Gateway WLS LDAP stores with the sample set of users and groups.  If  you have configured the WLS domains to point to the same LDAP then it would only have to be done once.  To help with this there is a directory called ldap_scripts in the sample project with ldif files for the test users and groups. start the OES Admin console and configure the required OES authorization policies for the MyADFApp application and push them to the WLS SM containing the OES Gateway. Login to the MyADFApp as each of the users described on the login page to test that the security policy is correct. You will see informative logging from the OES Gateway and the ADF application to their respective WLS consoles. Congratulations, you may now login to the OES Admin console and change policies that will control the behaviour of your ADF application--change the limit value in the obligation for the cost price for example, or define Role Mapping policies to determine staff access to the system administration page based on user profile attributes. ADF Development Notes Some notes on ADF development which are probably typical gotchas: May need this on WLS startup in order to allow us to overwrite credentials for the database, the signal here is that there is an error trying to access the data base: -Djps.app.credential.overwrite.allowed=true Best to call Bounded Task flows via a CommandLink (as opposed to a go link) as you cannot seem to start them again from a go link, even having completed the task flow correctly with a return activity. Once a bounded task flow (BTF) is initated it must complete correctly  via a return activity—attempting to click on any other link whilst in the context of a  BTF has no effect.  See here for example: When using the ADF Authentication only security approach it seems to be awkward to allow anonymous access to the welcome and registration pages.  We can achieve anonymous access using the web.xml security constraint shown above (where no auth-constraint is specified) however it is not clear what needs to be listed in there….for example the /afr/* and /adf/* are in there by trial and error as sometimes the welcome page will not render if we omit those items.  I was not able to use the default allPages constraint with for example the anonymous-role or the everyone WLS group in order to be able to allow anonymous access to pages. The ADF security best practice advises placing all pages under the public_html/WEB-INF folder as then ADF will not allow any direct access to the .jspx pages but will only allow acces via a link of the form /faces/welcome rather than /faces/welcome.jspx.  This seems like a very good practice to follow as having multiple entry points to data is a source of confusion in a web application (particulary from a security point of view). In Authentication+Authorization mode only pages with a Page definition file are protected.  In order to add an emty one right click on the page and choose Go to Page Definition.  This will create an empty page definition and now the page will require explicit permission to be seen. It is advisable to give a unique context root via the weblogic.xml for the application, as otherwise the application will clash with any other application with the same context root and it will not deploy

    Read the article

  • How should I define a composite foreign key for domain constraints in the presence of surrogate keys

    - by Samuel Danielson
    I am writing a new app with Rails so I have an id column on every table. What is the best practice for enforcing domain constraints using foreign keys? I'll outline my thoughts and frustration. Here's what I would imagine as "The Rails Way". It's what I started with. Companies: id: integer, serial company_code: char, unique, not null Invoices: id: integer, serial company_id: integer, not null Products: id: integer, serial sku: char, unique, not null company_id: integer, not null LineItems: id: integer, serial invoice_id: integer, not null, references Invoices (id) product_id: integer, not null, references Products (id) The problem with this is that a product from one company might appear on an invoice for a different company. I added a (company_id: integer, not null) to LineItems, sort of like I'd do if only using natural keys and serials, then added a composite foreign key. LineItems (product_id, company_id) references Products (id, company_id) LineItems (invoice_id, company_id) references Invoices (id, company_id) This properly constrains LineItems to a single company but it seems over-engineered and wrong. company_id in LineItems is extraneous because the surrogate foreign keys are already unique in the foreign table. Postgres requires that I add a unique index for the referenced attributes so I am creating a unique index on (id, company_id) in Products and Invoices, even though id is simply unique. The following table with natural keys and a serial invoice number would not have these issues. LineItems: company_code: char, not null sku: char, not null invoice_id: integer, not null I can ignore the surrogate keys in the LineItems table but this also seems wrong. Why make the database join on char when it has an integer already there to use? Also, doing it exactly like the above would require me to add company_code, a natural foreign key, to Products and Invoices. The compromise... LineItems: company_id: integer, not null sku: integer, not null invoice_id: integer, not null does not require natural foreign keys in other tables but it is still joining on char when there is a integer available. Is there a clean way to enforce domain constraints with foreign keys like God intended, but in the presence of surrogates, without turning the schema and indexes into a complicated mess?

    Read the article

  • Can I have two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain?

    - by Hamman359
    Is it possible to setup two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain? i.e. both point to different pages within www.somesite.com. Here's some background on the application and why I'm asking. This is a brownfield application that is currently 2.0 WebForms and is full of WebFormy 'goodness' (i.e. ObjectDataSources, FormView controls, UpdatePanels, etc...) There are lost of other 'fun' things in the code base like 600+ Stored Procedures and 200+ line methods in the business layer code that get data from the DB via stored proc, do some processing on the data, build an HTML string using string concatenation and then return that string to the UI layer. What we are planning on doing is developing new features in MVC and slowly converting the existing features over to MVC one at a time. As part of this transition, we will also be re-writing the layers below the UI to clean up the mess there and to do things like replace the stored procedures with NHibernate and introduce an IOC container. I know that you can run WebForms and MVC side-by-side in the same project, however, because we will be making wholesale changes to the way we do many things throughout our entire development stack, I'd like the new stuff to be a completely separate project within the solution. This should help serve as very visual reminder that this is a different way of doing things than before and make it easier to remove the old code as it is no longer needed. What I don't know is, is this even possible? Can two separate project point to the same domain? Here's an quick example of what I'm thinking: www.somesite.com/orders.aspx?id=123 (Orders page from existing WebForms project) www.somesite.com/customer/987 (Customer page from new MVC project)

    Read the article

  • Can I create a Google calendar for a user in a hosted domain using the admin credentials

    - by user351013
    I use the admin credentials for all of my interactions with the google api and I can retrieve\create\update\delete events from and for all of my hosted domain users. However, when I go to create a calendar for a hosted domain user, the calendar is created in the admins space. In the example below the GoogleUserName does NOT match the GoogleAccount. The postUri would look similar to : http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/[email protected]/owncalendars/full and the GoogleUserName is [email protected]. The api creates a calendar but it is in the admins space. CalendarService service = new CalendarService("Test"); service.setUserCredentials(GoogleUserName, GooglePassword); CalendarEntry calendar = new CalendarEntry(); calendar.TimeZone = "America/Chicago"; calendar.Title.Text = Title; calendar.Summary.Text = Description; calendar.Color = Color; calendar.Selected = true; calendar.Hidden = false; Uri postUri = new Uri(String.Format("http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/{0}/owncalendars/full", GoogleAccount)); CalendarEntry createdCalendar = (CalendarEntry)service.Insert(postUri, calendar); The documentation does specify to use the users credentials however the documentation is not specific to hosted domains a great deal of the time and as such I am always attempting trial and error when trying interactions. That I can use all of the CRUD on the user's events themselves using the admin credentials leaves me to believe that it might be possible.

    Read the article

  • Is safe ( documented behaviour? ) to delete the domain of an iterator in execution

    - by PoorLuzer
    I wanted to know if is safe ( documented behaviour? ) to delete the domain space of an iterator in execution in Python. Consider the code: import os import sys sampleSpace = [ x*x for x in range( 7 ) ] print sampleSpace for dx in sampleSpace: print str( dx ) if dx == 1: del sampleSpace[ 1 ] del sampleSpace[ 3 ] elif dx == 25: del sampleSpace[ -1 ] print sampleSpace 'sampleSpace' is what I call 'the domain space of an iterator' ( if there is a more appropriate word/phrase, lemme know ). What I am doing is deleting values from it while the iterator 'dx' is running through it. Here is what I expect from the code : Iteration versus element being pointed to (*): 0: [*0, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36] 1: [0, *1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36] ( delete 2nd and 5th element after this iteration ) 2: [0, 4, *9, 25, 36] 3: [0, 4, 9, *25, 36] ( delete -1th element after this iteration ) 4: [0, 4, 9, 25*] ( as the iterator points to nothing/end of list, the loop terminates ) .. and here is what I get: [0, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36] 0 1 9 25 [0, 4, 9, 25] As you can see - what I expect is what I get - which is contrary to the behaviour I have had from other languages in such a scenario. Hence - I wanted to ask you if there is some rule like "the iterator becomes invalid if you mutate its space during iteration" in Python? Is it safe ( documented behaviour? ) in Python to do stuff like this?

    Read the article

  • Windows 7 Desktop/Start Menu Redirection: Server O/S: Windows Server 2003 And Server 2008

    - by Moody Tech
    Hi, I am new here so I am might be asking a question which has already been answered [however I can't see it in the suggested answers above] I manage a network which is split into a parent domain and a child domain. Recently I have been looking at when to migrate to Windows 7. The child domain users [authenticated by the 2008 based (child) domain] get the redirected Desktop [as expected] but not the Start Menu. The parent domain users [authenticated by the 2003 based (parent) domain] get neither desktop nor Start Menu redirected. Does anyone here know how to successfully redirect the properties for these users as desired? Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • Windows 7 Desktop/Start Menu Redirection: Server O/S: Windows Server 2003 And Server 2008

    - by VerGuy
    Hi, I am new here so I am might be asking a question which has already been answered [however I can't see it in the suggested answers above] I manage a network which is split into a parent domain and a child domain. Recently I have been looking at when to migrate to Windows 7. The child domain users [authenticated by the 2008 based (child) domain] get the redirected Desktop [as expected] but not the Start Menu. The parent domain users [authenticated by the 2003 based (parent) domain] get neither desktop nor Start Menu redirected. Does anyone here know how to successfully redirect the properties for these users as desired? Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • nginx folder redirect

    - by orbalon
    I'm trying redirect from an exact folder in nginx.conf Given the URL: domain.com/path1/path2/path3 Redirect to: sub.domain.com/path1/path2/path3 Here's what I have so far: location ~* ^/path1[\/?]$ { rewrite ^/(.*) http:sub.domain.com/$1 break; } I had it working with location /path1 { rewrite ^/(.*) http:sub.domain.com/$1 break; } The problem with that is it also redirects a page like domain.com/path1moretext/someotherpath to sub.domain.com/path1moretext/someotherpath Which is not what I want. (had to take out the "//" in the href code above because this is my first post, sorry).

    Read the article

  • Creating cookieless application on development machine with asp.net

    - by zaladane
    I am thinking about setting up a new domain to host static content on my website and have it cookieless just like Stackoverflow with their static domain. So before going ahead and buying the domain and setting it up I wanted to test it on my developement machine first under localhost (I have to mention that i am planning on having IIS running on my new domain for the static files). I therefore created a new application under IIS and disabled session state and forms authentication. When my main application needs resources like css, images and js , I use the path to the "static" application where they are hosted. The problem is that when I look at the request and the response for the requested files, they still have the session_id cookie defined as well as the asp.net authentication cookie. Is it at all possible to accomplish what i am trying to do on a development machine or do i have to just go ahead and purchase the new domain which hopefully with make things right? I tried to read about cookieless domain but can't figure out what i might be missing.

    Read the article

  • restricting access only through domains on nginx on virtual hosts

    - by Mo J. Mughrabi
    I have finished setting up nginx for virtual hosting, this is how my config files look like server { listen 80; server_name domain.com; access_log /home/domain.com/prod_webapp/logs/access.domain.com.log; error_log /home/domain.com/prod_webapp/logs/error.domain.com.log; location /static { root /home/domain.com/prod_webapp/mocorner/ph/; } location / { try_files $uri @uwsgi; } location @uwsgi { include uwsgi_params; uwsgi_pass unix:/tmp/domain_uwsgi.sock; }} on the same machine, I have domain1.com and domain2.com, each when i access I get its content which is great. My problem is that when i try to access the user using the IP address i get one of the sites in the virtual hosts too.. Although i disabled the default (removed the symbolic link) from sites-enabled folder but still not solved it for me. any suggestions?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148  | Next Page >