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• Snapshot agent obliterates conflicts

  - by mwolfe02

  We are using merge replication in SQL Server 2000. We have a snapshot agent that runs every night that updates the publication snapshot. About six months ago we updated from SQL Server 7.0 to 2000 (that's not a typo). We noticed a sharp decline in conflicts at that time but could not track down the reason. We finally found that the daily snapshot agent is recreating the conflict tables every night. This seems to be a change in functionality from SQL Server 7.0. We were running the snapshot agent before and the conflicts would accumulate. Is there some way to prevent the data in the conflict tables from being lost when the snapshot runs? Can anyone confirm a change in behavior between 7.0 and 2000? Our current plan is to simply stop automatically updating the publication snapshot. Is that a reasonable workaround? Here is the line from the script that is adding the snapshot: exec sp_addpublication_snapshot @publication = N'MyPub' , @frequency_type = 4 , @frequency_interval = 1 , @frequency_relative_interval = 1 , @frequency_recurrence_factor = 0 , @frequency_subday = 1 , @frequency_subday_interval = 5 , @active_start_date = 0 , @active_end_date = 0 , @active_start_time_of_day = 500 , @active_end_time_of_day = 235959 Here is the step that runs in the agent job: Step Name: Run agent. Type: Replication Snapshot Command: -Publisher [WCDBS02] -PublisherDB [TaxDB] -Distributor [WCDBS02] -Publication [TaxDB] -ReplicationType 2 -DistributorSecurityMode 1 This appears to be running the Replication Snapshot Agent Utility. There is no mention on that link about dropping and recreating system conflict tables, nor is there any flag that can be set to alter this behavior.

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• extract out text in each line and put it in seperate variables with javascript

  - by user357034

  I have the following address which is in a paragraph with no great way to select the individual text areas within. I do not have access to this code. I want to extract out each line and put the text values in a variable for each type. Not sure what would be the best way to do it. Use .split('<br>') ? then use .split('&nbsp;') to separate the state from the zip same with city and state I am a little lost here. Here are the variables I would like. company name, person's name, address1, city, state, country, zip code, phone, Here is the paragraph that i have. I do not need the '(Residential Address)' <p> XYZ Inc<br> John&nbsp;Smith<br> 555 Anywhere Street<br> New York, NY&nbsp;11150<br> United States<br> 212-555-1212<br> (Residential Address) </p>

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• c++ floating point precision loss: 3015/0.00025298219406977296

  - by SigTerm

  The problem. Microsoft Visual C++ 2005 compiler, 32bit windows xp sp3, amd 64 x2 cpu. Code: double a = 3015.0; double b = 0.00025298219406977296; //*((unsigned __int64*)(&a)) == 0x40a78e0000000000 //*((unsigned __int64*)(&b)) == 0x3f30945640000000 double f = a/b;//3015/0.00025298219406977296; the result of calculation (i.e. "f") is 11917835.000000000 (*((unsigned __int64*)(&f)) == 0x4166bb4160000000) although it should be 11917834.814763514 (i.e. *((unsigned __int64*)(&f)) == 0x4166bb415a128aef). I.e. fractional part is lost. Unfortunately, I need fractional part to be correct. Questions: 1) Why does this happen? 2) How can I fix the problem? Additional info: 0) The result is taken directly from "watch" window (it wasn't printed, and I didn't forget to set printing precision). I also provided hex dump of floating point variable, so I'm absolutely sure about calculation result. 1) The disassembly of f = a/b is: fld qword ptr [a] fdiv qword ptr [b] fstp qword ptr [f] 2) f = 3015/0.00025298219406977296; yields correct result (f == 11917834.814763514 , *((unsigned __int64*)(&f)) == 0x4166bb415a128aef ), but it looks like in this case result is simply calculated during compile-time: fld qword ptr [__real@4166bb415a128aef (828EA0h)] fstp qword ptr [f] So, how can I fix this problem? P.S. I've found a temporary workaround (i need only fractional part of division, so I simply use f = fmod(a/b)/b at the moment), but I still would like to know how to fix this problem properly - double precision is supposed to be 16 decimal digits, so such calculation isn't supposed to cause problems.

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• Cast exception being generated when using the same type of object

  - by David Tunnell

  I was previously using static variables to hold variable data that I want to save between postbacks. I was having problems and found that the data in these variables is lost when the appdomain ends. So I did some research and decided to go with ViewStates: static Dictionary<string, linkButtonObject> linkButtonDictonary; protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (ViewState["linkButtonDictonary"] != null) { linkButtonDictonary = (Dictionary<string, linkButtonObject>)ViewState["linkButtonDictonary"]; } else { linkButtonDictonary = new Dictionary<string, linkButtonObject>(); } } And here is the very simple class I use: [Serializable] public class linkButtonObject { public string storyNumber { get; set; } public string TaskName { get; set; } } I am adding to linkButtonDictionary as a gridview is databound: protected void hoursReportGridView_OnRowDataBound(Object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { if (e.Row.RowType == DataControlRowType.DataRow) { LinkButton btn = (LinkButton)e.Row.FindControl("taskLinkButton"); linkButtonObject currentRow = new linkButtonObject(); currentRow.storyNumber = e.Row.Cells[3].Text; currentRow.TaskName = e.Row.Cells[5].Text; linkButtonDictonary.Add(btn.UniqueID, currentRow); } } It appears that my previous issues are resolved however a new one has arisin. Sometime when I postback I am getting this error: [A]System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[System.String,linkButtonObject] cannot be cast to [B]System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[System.String,linkButtonObject]. Type A originates from 'mscorlib, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location 'C:\Windows\Microsoft.Net\assembly\GAC_32\mscorlib\v4.0_4.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089\mscorlib.dll'. Type B originates from 'mscorlib, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' in the context 'LoadNeither' at location 'C:\Windows\Microsoft.Net\assembly\GAC_32\mscorlib\v4.0_4.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089\mscorlib.dll'. I don't understand how there can be a casting issue when I am using the same class everywhere. What am I doing wrong and how do I fix it?

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• Login fails when recreating database with Code First

  - by Mun

  I'm using ASP.NET Entity Framework's Code First to create my database from the model, and the login seems to fail when the database needs to be recreated after the model changes. In Global.asax, I've got the following: protected void Application_Start() { Database.SetInitializer(new DropCreateDatabaseIfModelChanges<EntriesContext>()); // ... } In my controller, I've got the following: public ActionResult Index() { // This is just to force the database to be created var context = new EntriesContext(); var all = (from e in context.Entries select e).ToList(); } When the database doesn't exist, it is created with no problems. However, when I make a change to the model, rebuild and refresh, I get the following error: Login failed for user 'sa'. My connection string looks like this: <add name="EntriesContext" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL);Database=MyDB;User Id=sa;Password=password" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> The login definitely works as I can connect to the server and the database from Management Studio using these credentials. If I delete the database manually, everything works correctly and the database is recreated as expected with the schema reflecting the changes made to the model. It seems like either the password or access to the database is being lost. Is there something else I need to do to get this working?

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• Load page for validation but do not display it to user in ASP.NET

  - by Kevin

  We have a site requiring users pay $2 to view the details of a record. We occasionally get complaints because we send them to the payment page, and once they pay it turns out the record isn't valid, or it was lost, or the data couldn't be generated. So we want to add in a check to ensure the page constructs properly before the user is required to pay for it. However, we don't want the user to have access to the page until they pay for it. Is there anything in ASP.NET 3.5 or just general web design that would allow something like this? The data on the record is real time and computed on a backend server before sent to the client. Occasionally this computation fails for whatever reason. Our alternative is to call all of the loading methods and validate the data, then redirect them to the payment page. The problem is A) this will be a relatively involved process rewriting all of these methods to return validation information, and B) it still doesn't guarentee us the page will load properly. Any thoughts?

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• Rails Functional Test Failing Due to Association

  - by Koby

  I have an accounts model that holds some basic account info (account name, website, etc). I then have a user model that has the following in the app/models/user.rb belongs_to :account I also have the following in my routes.rb map.resources :account, :has_many => [:users, :othermodel] the problem I'm facing is that the following test is failing: test "should create user" do assert_difference('User.count') do post :create, :user => { } #this is the line it's actually failing on end assert_redirected_to user_path(assigns(:user)) #it doesn't get here yet end The error it gives is "Can't find Account without ID" so I kind of understand WHY it's failing, because of the fact that it doesn't have the account object (or account_id as it were) to know under what account to create the user. I have tried variations of the following but I am completely lost: post :create, :user => { accounts(:one) } #I have the 'fixtures :accounts' syntax at the top of the test class post :create, [accounts(:one), :user] => { } post :create, :user => { accounts(:one), #other params for :user } and like I said, just about every variation I could think of. I can't find much documentation on doing this and this might be why people have moved to Factories for doing test data, but I want to understand things that come standard in Rails before moving onto other things. Can anyone help me get this working?

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• NHibernate - Retrieving Lots of Data Becomes Exponentially Slow

  - by nfplee

  Hi, I have an issue when I retrieve lots of data in NHibernate (such as when producing a report) the page becomes exponentially slower the more data it has to retrieve. I found the following article: http://nhforge.org/blogs/nhibernate/archive/2008/10/30/bulk-data-operations-with-nhibernate-s-stateless-sessions.aspx It explains how doing bulk data operations in NHibernate is slow since the first level cache grows too large and how you should use the IStatelessSession instead. The trouble I have is that I don't wish to tie my application to NHibernate so I've added a wrapper around ISession. I then use Linq as my query mechanism but IStatelessSession does not support Linq (it may do in NHibernate 3 but the Linq provider is not stable as it stands at the moment). I then read that you could do a clear after so many iterations to clear out the first level cache. The problem now is that you can't use lazy loading. The linq provider doesn't allow you to override the mapping defined (or eagerly fetch the additional data) so whenever I grab data which is lazy loaded after I have cleared the session an exception is thrown. I'm completely lost on what do now. I like the ease of producing reports with linq but the limitations of the inbuilt linq provider in NHibernate seem to be holding me back. I'd really appreciate it if someone could show me an alternative approach. Thanks

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• Problem with ModelAndView and ModelMap in AnnotationController, Springframework

  - by saltfactory

  I have a question that is a point difference between ModelAndView and ModelMap. I want to maintain modelAndView when requestMethod is "GET" and requestMethod is "POST". My modelAndView saved others. So I made modelAndView return type to "GET", "POST" methods. But, Request lost commandObject, form:errors..., if request return showForm on "POST" because request validation failed. example) private ModelAndView modelAndView; public ControllerTest{ this.modelAndView = new ModelAndView(); } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.GET) public ModelAndView showForm(ModelMap model) { EntityObject entityObject = new EntityObject(); CommandObject commandObject = new CommandObject(); commandObject.setEntityObject(entityObject); model.addAttribute("commandObject", commandObject); this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "GET"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("registerForm"); return this.modelAndView; } @RequestMapping(method = RequestMethod.POST) public ModelAndView submit(@ModelAttribute("commandObject") CommandObject commandObject, BindingResult result, SessionStatus status) { this.commandValidator.validate(commandObject, result); if (result.hasErrors()) { this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "POST"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("registerForm"); return this.modelAndView; } else { this.modelAndView.addObject("id", "after POST"); this.modelAndView.setViewName("success"); } status.setComplete(); return this.modelAndView; }

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• Overlay an image over video using OpenGL ES shaders

  - by BlueVoodoo

  I am trying to understand the basic concepts of OpenGL. A week into it, I am still far from there. Once I am in glsl, I know what to do but I find getting there is the tricky bit. I am currently able to pass in video pixels which I manipulate and present. I have then been trying to add still image as an overlay. This is where I get lost. My end goal is to end up in the same fragment shader with pixel data from both my video and my still image. I imagine this means I need two textures and pass on two pixel buffers. I am currently passing the video pixels like this: glGenTextures(1, &textures[0]); //target, texture glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, textures[0]); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, width, height, 0, GL_BGRA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, buffer); Would I then repeat this process on textures[1] with the second buffer from the image? If so, do I then bind both GL_TEXTURE0 and GL_TEXTURE1? ...and would my shader look something like this? uniform sampler2D videoData; uniform sampler2D imageData; once I am in the shader? It seems no matter what combination I try, image and video always ends up being just video data in both these. Sorry for the many questions merged in here, just want to clear my many assumptions and move on. To clarify the question a bit, what do I need to do to add pixels from a still image in the process described? ("easy to understand" sample code or any types of hints would be appreciated).

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• AngularJS: Using Shared Service(with $resource) to share data between controllers, but how to define callback functions?

  - by shaunlim

  Note: I also posted this question on the AngularJS mailing list here: https://groups.google.com/forum/#!topic/angular/UC8_pZsdn2U Hi All, I'm building my first AngularJS app and am not very familiar with Javascript to begin with so any guidance will be much appreciated :) My App has two controllers, ClientController and CountryController. In CountryController, I'm retrieving a list of countries from a CountryService that uses the $resource object. This works fine, but I want to be able to share the list of countries with the ClientController. After some research, I read that I should use the CountryService to store the data and inject that service into both controllers. This was the code I had before: CountryService: services.factory('CountryService', function($resource) { return $resource('http://localhost:port/restwrapper/client.json', {port: ':8080'}); }); CountryController: //Get list of countries //inherently async query using deferred promise $scope.countries = CountryService.query(function(result){ //preselected first entry as default $scope.selected.country = $scope.countries[0]; }); And after my changes, they look like this: CountryService: services.factory('CountryService', function($resource) { var countryService = {}; var data; var resource = $resource('http://localhost:port/restwrapper/country.json', {port: ':8080'}); var countries = function() { data = resource.query(); return data; } return { getCountries: function() { if(data) { console.log("returning cached data"); return data; } else { console.log("getting countries from server"); return countries(); } } }; }); CountryController: $scope.countries = CountryService.getCountries(function(result){ console.log("i need a callback function here..."); }); The problem is that I used to be able to use the callback function in $resource.query() to preselect a default selection, but now that I've moved the query() call to within my CountryService, I seemed to have lost what. What's the best way to go about solving this problem? Thanks for your help, Shaun

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• How to get drag working properly in silverlight when mouse is not pressed ?

  - by Mrt

  Hello, I have the following code xaml <Canvas x:Name="LayoutRoot" > <Rectangle Canvas.Left="40" Canvas.Top="40" Width="20" Height="20" Name="rec" Fill="Red" MouseLeftButtonDown="rec_MouseLeftButtonDown" MouseMove="rec_MouseMove" /> </Canvas> code behind public partial class MainPage : UserControl { public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); } public Point LastDragPosition { get; set; } private bool isDragging; private void rec_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if(!isDragging) { return; } var position = e.GetPosition(rec as UIElement); var newPosition = new Point( Canvas.GetLeft(rec) + position.X - LastDragPosition.X, Canvas.GetTop(rec) + position.Y - LastDragPosition.Y); Canvas.SetLeft(rec, newPosition.X); Canvas.SetTop(rec, newPosition.Y); LastDragPosition = e.GetPosition(rec as UIElement); } private void rec_MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { isDragging = true; LastDragPosition = e.GetPosition(sender as UIElement); rec.CaptureMouse(); } } This issue is the rectangle follows the mouse if the mouse left button is down, but I would like the rectangle to move even when the mouse left button isn't down. It works, but if you move the mouse very slowly. If you move the mouse to quickly the rectangle stops moving (is the mouse capture lost ?) Cheers,

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• How to post only a specific ASCX partial instead of the whole page

  - by Hallaghan

  I've got an ASPX page rendering a search ascx page which in turn will fill a grid on the main ASPX page. Aside that, I've also got an ascx page which uploads files, like this: <form method="post" action="<%= Url.Action("UploadFile") %>" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <fieldset> <input type="file" name="file" id="file" /> <%=Html.ButtonSubmit("Upload") %> </fieldset></form> Here's the problem: imagine I have searched for a single entry to be displayed on the grid. The grid displays this single entry and after wards, I upload a file and press the button "Upload". The whole page gets posted and the content in the grid is lost, now displaying all the results available. What could I do to prevent this from happening, maintaining the grid state (we're not using ViewState) or otherwise not posting back the whole page but only the ascx with the file upload? Note: I'm new to MVC.

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• [Apache] Creating rewrite rules for multiple urls in the same folder

  - by DavidYell

  I have been asked by our client to convert a site we created into SEO friendly url format. I've managed to crack a small way into this, but have hit a problem with having the same urls in the same folder. I am trying to rewrite the following urls, /review/index.php?cid=intercasino /review/submit.php?cid=intercasino /review/index.php?cid=intercasino&page=2#reviews I would like to get them to, /review/intercasino /submit-review/intercasino /review/intercasino/2#reviews I've almost got it working using the following rule, RewriteRule (submit-review)/(.*)$ review/submit.php?cid=$2 [L] RewriteRule (^review)/(.*) review/index.php?cid=$2 The problem, you may already see, is that /submit-review rewrites to /review, which in turn gets rewritten to index.php, thus my review submission page is lost in place of my index page. I figured that putting [L] would prevent the second rule being called, but it seems that it rewrites both urls in two seperate passes. I've also tried [QSE], and [S=1] I would rather not have to move my files into different folders to get the rewriting to work, as that just seems too much like bad practise. If anyone could give me some pointers on how to differentiate between these similar urls that would be great! Thanks (Ref: http://httpd.apache.org/docs/2.0/mod/mod_rewrite.html)

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• POST method getting converted to GET in IE-9

  - by Sri127

  I have this line of code in my JSP. (I'm using struts 1.3) <html:form action="screening/mine.do" method="post"> . . . </html:form When the action corresponding to mine.do is invoked (using struts-config.xml), the page is getting submitted as GET instead of POST. All the request parameters including the required ones are getting lost due to this. This issue occcurs only in IE-9. The response remains as POST when I use other versions of IE or any other browsers. How do I make the response to remain as POST in IE-9 ? EDIT : I observed one more issue in this. Whenever the page is rendered in a new window, this issue occurs. Other places, the POST works fine in IE-9. Also, this issue occurs in Win7/IE-8, but works absolutely fine in XP/IE-8. Is there something to do with the OS as well??? Any solutions would be useful. Thanks!!

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• Why is textbox.focus throwing the lostfocus event?

  - by cost

  I've seen a few similar questions on SO but nothing that seems to actually address the issue. Here's a simplified version of the function. Private Sub Check_Quantity(sender As System.Object, e As System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs) _ Handles textbox_quantity.LostFocus Dim worked As Boolean = Integer.TryParse(textbox_quantity.Text, quantity) If Not worked Then MsgBox("Enter a valid number for the quantity") textbox_quantity.Focus() textbox_quantity.SelectAll() quantity = 0 End If End Sub It's important to note that this is WPF. What I want to do is very simple. When someone finishes with the textbox the program checks that what they entered is a number. If it does it sticks this in an integer. If not, it tells them to fix it and keeps the focus on the textbox. The issue is a few things, but what it comes down to is this function runs in an infinite loop. This same function works fine in WinForms, but not in WPF. On some other questions people have said that the messagebox appearing causes focus to be lost, but in testing this isn't true. It still loops regardless of if the messagebox is called or not. The problem is the call to textbox_quantity.Focus(). Without that it works fine. Regardless of whether it's there or not though, focus is not set to the textbox, though textbox_quantity.Focus() still returns a value of true. Any thought of what's going on and maybe how I could fix it?

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• Are TestContext.Properties usable ?

  - by DBJDBJ

  Using Visual Studio generate Test Unit class. Then comment in, the class initialization method. Inside it add your property, using the testContext argument. Upon test app startup this method is indeed called by the testing infrastructure. //Use ClassInitialize to run code before running the first test in the class [ClassInitialize()] public static void MyClassInitialize(TestContext testContext) { /* * Any user defined testContext.Properties * added here will be erased after this method exits */ testContext.Properties.Add("key", 1 ) ; // place the break point here } After leaving MyClassInitialize, any properties added by user are lost. Only the 10 "official" ones are left. Actually TestContext gets overwritten, with the inital offical one, each time before each test method is called. It it not overwritten only if user has test initialization method, the changes made over there are passed to the test. //Use TestInitialize to run code before running each test [TestInitialize()]public void MyTestInitialize(){ this.TestContext.Properties.Add("this is preserved",1) ; } This effectively means TestContext.Properties is "mostly" read only, for users. Which is not clearly documented in MSDN. It seems to me this is very messy design+implementation. Why having TestContext.Properties as an collection, at all ? Users can do many other solutions to have class wide initialization. Please discuss. --DBJ

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• How do I redirect standard output to a file in Perl? [closed]

  - by rockyurock

  I want to send standard output to the file "my_output.txt" but failed. Here's the output: inside value loop ------------------------------------------------------------ Server listening on UDP port 5001 Receiving 1470 byte datagrams UDP buffer size: 108 KByte (default) ------------------------------------------------------------ [ 3] local 192.168.16.2 port 5001 connected with 192.168.16.1 port 3189 [ ID] Interval Transfer Bandwidth Jitter Lost/Total Datagrams [ 3] 0.0- 5.0 sec 2.14 MBytes 3.61 Mbits/sec 0.369 ms 0/ 1528 (0%) inside value loop3 clue1 clue2 inside value loop4 one iperf completed *************************************** When I enable the local *STDOUT; in below code then I could see the above output on command prompt display (ofcourse server is sending some data): my $file = 'my_output.txt'; use Win32::Process; print"inside value loop\n"; # redirect stdout to a file #local *STDOUT; open STDOUT, '>', $file or die "can't redirect STDOUT to <$file> $!"; Win32::Process::Create(my $ProcessObj, "D:\\IOT_AUTOMATION_UTILITY\\_SATURDAY_09-04-10\\adb_cmd.bat", "adb shell /data/app/iperf -u -s -p 5001", 0, NORMAL_PRIORITY_CLASS, ".") || die ErrorReport(); #$alarm_time = $IPERF_RUN_TIME+10; #20sec #$ProcessObj->Wait(40); #print"inside value loop2\n"; #sleep $alarm_time; sleep 40; $ProcessObj->Kill(0); sub ErrorReport{ print Win32::FormatMessage( Win32::GetLastError() ); }

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• Drupal 6 Validation for Form Callback Function

  - by Wade

  I have a simple form with a select menu on the node display page. Is there an easy way to validate the form in my callback function? By validation I don't mean anything advanced, just to check that the values actually existed in the form array. For example, without ajax, if my select menu has 3 items and I add a 4th item and try to submit the form, drupal will give an error saying something similar to "an illegal choice was made, please contact the admin." With ajax this 4th item you created would get saved into the database. So do I have to write validation like if ($select_item > 0 && $select_item <= 3) { //insert into db } Or is there an easier way that will check that the item actually existed in the form array? I'm hoping there is since without ajax, drupal will not submit the form if it was manipulated. Thanks. EDIT: So I basically need this in my callback function? $form_state = array('storage' => NULL, 'submitted' => FALSE); $form_build_id = $_POST['form_build_id']; $form = form_get_cache($form_build_id, $form_state); $args = $form['#parameters']; $form_id = array_shift($args); $form_state['post'] = $form['#post'] = $_POST; $form['#programmed'] = $form['#redirect'] = FALSE; drupal_process_form($form_id, $form, $form_state); To get $_POST['form_build_id'], I sent it as a data param, is that right? Where I use form_get_cache, looks like there is no data. Kind of lost now.

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• Preprocessor #define vs. function pointer - best practice?

  - by Dustin

  I recently started a small personal project (RGB value to BGR value conversion program) in C, and I realised that a function that converts from RGB to BGR can not only perform the conversion but also the inversion. Obviously that means I don't really need two functions rgb2bgr and bgr2rgb. However, does it matter whether I use a function pointer instead of a macro? For example: int rgb2bgr (const int rgb); /* * Should I do this because it allows the compiler to issue * appropriate error messages using the proper function name, * not to mention possible debugging benefits? */ int (*bgr2rgb) (const int bgr) = rgb2bgr; /* * Or should I do this since it is merely a convenience * and they're really the same function anyway? */ #define bgr2rgb(bgr) (rgb2bgr (bgr)) I'm not necessarily looking for a change in execution efficiency as it's more of a subjective question out of curiosity. I am well aware of the fact that type safety is neither lost nor gained using either method. Would the function pointer merely be a convenience or are there more practical benefits to be gained of which I am unaware?

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• UpdatePanel reloads the whole page

  - by Emil D

  Hi.I'm building an asp.net cutom control inside which I have two dropdownlists: companyIdSelection and productFamilySelection.I populate the companyIdSelection at Page_Load and in order to populate the productFamilySelection depending on the selected item in companyIdSelection.I'm using UpdatePanels to achieve this, but for some reason every time I update companyIdSelection Page_Load is being called ( which as far as I know should happen only when the entire page is reloaded ), the list is being reloaded again and the item the user selected is lost( the selected item is always the top one ).Here's the code <asp:UpdatePanel ID="updateFamilies" runat="server" UpdateMode="Always"> <ContentTemplate> Company ID:<br> <br></br> <asp:DropDownList ID="companyIdSelection" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" OnSelectedIndexChanged="companyIdSelection_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> <br></br> Product Family: <br></br> <asp:DropDownList ID="productFamilySelection" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" onselectedindexchanged="productFamilySelection_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> <br> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.companyIdSelection.DataSource = companyIds(); //companyIds returns the object containing the initial data items this.companyIdSelection.DataBind(); } protected void companyIdSelection_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Page_Load is called again for some reason before this method is called, so it // resets the companyIdSelection EngDbService s = new EngDbService(); productFamilySelection.DataSource = s.getProductFamilies(companyIdSelection.Text); productFamilySelection.DataBind(); } Also, I tried setting the UpdateMode of the UpdatePanel to "Conditional" and adding an asyncpostback trigger but the result was the same. What am I doing wrong? PS: I fixed the updating problem, by using Page.IsPostBack in the Page_Load method, but I would still want to avoid a full postback if possible

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• Whether to put method code in a VB.Net data storage class, or put it in a separate class?

  - by Alan K

  TLDR summary: (a) Should I include (lengthy) method code in classes which may spawn multiple objects at runtime, (b) does doing so cause memory usage bloat, (c) if so should I "outsource" the code to a class that is loaded only once and have the class methods call that, or alternatively (d) does the code get loaded only once with the object definition anyway and I'm worrying about nothing? ........ I don't know whether there's a good answer to this but if there is I haven't found it yet by searching in the usual places. In my VB.Net (2010 if it matters) WinForms project I have about a dozen or so class objects in an object model. Some of these are pretty simple and do little more than act as data storage repositories. The ones further up the object model, however, have an increasing number of methods. There can be a significant number of higher level objects in use though the exact number will be runtime dependent so I can't be more precise than that. As I was writing the method code for one of the top level ones I noticed that it was starting to get quite lengthy. Memory optimisation is something of a lost art given how much memory the average PC has these days but I don't want to make my application a resource hog. So my questions for anyone who knows .Net way better than I do (of which there will be many) are: Is the code loaded into memory with each instance of the class that's created? Alternatively is it loaded only once with the definition of the class, and all derived objects just refer to that definition? (I'm not really sure how that could be possible given that, for example, event handlers can be assigned dynamically, but no harm asking.) If the answer to the first one is yes, would it be more efficient to write the code in a "utility" object which is loaded only once and called from the real class' methods? Any thoughts appreciated.

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• What are your Programming Falacies/Myths?

  - by pms1969

  I recently started a new job and as is typical of all jobs, if you've left, you get blamed for everything. Not long after I started there was a change required for an app (web based) that we maintain, and it was quickly pointed out that the actual code for this site had been lost a long time ago, and the only changes we could make to the it were ones that required changes to mark-up [it was a pre-compiled site]. Being new, I needed a little help finding my way around the code, and enlisted the services of one of my colleagues. Made my changes, and then re-enlisted his help to deploy it. While prepping for the deployment (getting the app on the QA server) we discovered that there were actually 2 different, very similarly named, folders in our source repository. It transpired that for the last year or so, mark-up changes had been made to the site directly, and these were the only differences with the code in the slightly incorrectly named folder in source control. So we did have all the code, and can now properly support the site. This put me in mind of a trick we played on a junior programmer once in a previous job, where we told him he couldn't/shouldn't do a certain thing in code as this would likely bring the server to it's knees and cost the company thousands of pounds (a gag that last months :-). And another one in the first programming job I took on - the batch commission run was just going to crash once a month and there was nothing to be done about it, causing a call out, and call out compensation for the on-call guy (a bug I fixed as soon as I became the on-call guy - 2am call outs don't work for me). So I was wondering... What other programming fallacies/myths are out there that are worth sharing?

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• How come the Actionscript 3 ENTER_FRAME event is crazy nuts?

  - by nstory

  So, I've been toying around with Flash, browsing through the documentation, and all that, and noticed that the ENTER_FRAME event seems to defy my expectation of a deterministic universe. Take the following example: (new MovieClip()).addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME, function(ev) {trace("Test");}); Notice this anonymous MovieClip is not added to the display hierarchy, and any reference to it is immediately lost. It will actually print "Test" once a frame until it is garbage collected. How insane is that? The behavior of this is actually determined by when the garbage collector feels like coming around in all its unpredictable insanity! Is there a better way to create intermittent failures? Seriously. My two theories are that either the DisplayObject class stores weak references to all its instances for the purpose of dispatching ENTER_FRAME events, or, and much wilder, the Flash player actually scans the heap each frame looking for ENTER_FRAME listeners to pull on. Can any hardened Actionscript developer clue me in on how this works? (And maybe a why - the - f**k they thought this was a good idea?)

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• jquery form validation, and submit-on-change

  - by Bee

  I want to make all my settings forms across my site confirm that changes are saved, kinda like facebook does if you make changes in a form and then try to navigate away without saving. So I'm disabling the submit button on the forms only enabling if the values change. I then prompt the user to hit save before they leave the page in the case that they do have changes pending. var form = $('form.edit'); if(form.length > 0) { var orig_str = form.serialize(); $(':submit',form).attr('disabled','disabled'); form.on('change keyup', function(){ if(form.serialize() == orig_str) { setConfirmUnload(false); $(':submit',form).attr('disabled','disabled'); } else { setConfirmUnload(true); $(':submit',form).removeAttr('disabled') } }); $('input[type=submit]').click(function(){ setConfirmUnload(false); }); } function setConfirmUnload(on) { window.onbeforeunload = (on) ? unloadMessage : null; } function unloadMessage() { return 'If you navigate away from this page without saving your changes, they will be lost.'; } One of these forms needs some additional validation which I do using jQuery.validate library. e.g. if i wanted to ensure the user can't double submit the form on accident by double clicking on submit or somesuch (the actual validation in question is for a credit-card form and not this simple): $('form').validate({ submitHandler: function(form) { $(':submit', form).attr('disabled','disabled'); form.submit(); } }); Unfortunately both bits are trying to bind to submit button and they're interfering with each other such that the submit button remains disabled no matter what I do and it is impossible to submit the form at all. Is there some way to chain the validations together or something? Or some other way to avoid re-writing the validation code to repeat the "did you change anything in the form" business?

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