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• Date Picker Control Not Displaying Proper Date (Access 2003)

  - by JPM

  Hi everyone, I just have a quick question. I am maintaining an app for my summer co-op position, and a new requirement came down today where the user requested to have a date control added to a form to mark the date of when an employee is "laid off". This control is enabled/disabled by a toggle button, and has its control source bound to a field that I added in the database. All the functionality has been added and tested, but.... The issue I am having is that the date picker is on a tab control (the 2nd page) and I am having problems trying to get the control to display the date that is stored in the field I created. I know the control is storing any changes made using it, but since the user asked to move the control over to the 2nd tab (it was on the first), it just shows today's date, not the date entered using the control. To make things a little more strange, if I place the control anywhere except the tab control, it seems to be working fine. I've even placed a textbox on the tab and set its control source to the database field, and it displays just fine. What gives? And I have registered the .ocx with Access, and as I mentioned before, the actual database is storing the data. Just not displaying it. Any ideas as to what I am doing wrong?

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• Sync Framework Considerations for Smart Client app

  - by DarkwingDuck

  Microsoft Sync Framework with SQL 2005? Is it possible? It seems to hint that the OOTB providers use SQL2008 functionality. I'm looking for some quick wins in relation to a sync project. The client app will be offline for a number of days. There will be a central server that MUST be SQL Server 2005. I can use .net 3.5. Basically the client app could go offline for a week. When it comes back online it needs to sync its data. But the good thing is that the data only needs to push to the server. The stuff that syncs back to the client will just be lookup data which the client never changes. So this means I don't care about sync collisions. To simplify the scenario for you, this smart client goes offline and the user surveys data about some observations. They enter the data into the system. When the laptop is reconnected to the network, it syncs back all that data to the server. There will be other clients doing the same thing too, but no one ever touches each other's data. Then there are some reports on the server for viewing the data that has been pushed to the server. This also needs to use ClickOnce. My biggest concern is that there is an interim release while a client is offline. This release might require a new field in the database, and a new field to fill in on the survey. Obviously that new field will be nullable because we can't update old data, that's fine to set as an assumption. But when the client connects up and its local data schema and the server schema don't match, will sync framework be able to handle this? After the data is pushed to the server it is discarded locally. Hope my problem makes sense.

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• Trying to work with a multi-value array in LotusScript and sort of stuck

  - by rrumaner

  I have to find a way to store a series of variables - MonthYear (the key) and a counter. The purpose of this is to track the number of documents processed by Month & Year. I was thinking of a list but I am not sure how to save the data so that it is readable and able to be shown in a table at a later date. I thought about using a multi-dimensional array - someArray(1,0 to 1) and ReDim'ing it each time I start a new MonthYear and then save it back to a field on the document but am not sure how that is going to play out. Does anyone have an idea of how I can accomplish this? The first dimension will be the MonthYear (key) and the second will be a counter that is updated every time a new document is processed. The key will be based on a field on the document being processed. How can I make sure I am updating the right key/counter combination? How can I retrieve the existing counter from the field on the document, update the counter and then replace the value? I thought about just adding a new element (ReDim) every time a document is processed and than somehow adding up all the counters for each key and storing that in an array, but that just seems real messy. There has to be a good way to do this. Any and all ideas will be greatly appreciated

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• PHP 5.2 Function needed for GENERIC sorting FOLLOWUP

  - by donbriggs

  OK, you guys gave me a great solution for sorting a recordset array last Friday. (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2884325/php-5-2-function-needed-for-generic-sorting-of-a-recordset-array) But now when I implement it, I end up with an extra element in the recordset array. I won't wast space reposting the same info, as the link is above. But the bottom line is that when I sort an array of 5 records, the resulting array has 6 records. The last element in the array is not a record array, but rather just a element containing an integer value of 1. I presume that it is somehow getting the output value of the "strnatcasecmp" function, but I have no idea how it is happening. Here is the function that you fine folks provided last week: function getSortCommand($field, $sortfunc) { return create_function('$var1, $var2', 'return '.$sortfunc.'($var1["'.$field.'"], $var2["' .$field .'"]);'); } And here is the line I am calling to sort the array: $trek[] = usort($trek, getSortCommand('name', 'strnatcasecmp')); This produces the following output, with an extra element tacked on to the end. Array ( [0] = Array ( [name] = Kirk [shirt] = Gold [assign] = Bridge ) [1] => Array ( [name] => McCoy [shirt] => Blue [assign] => Sick Bay ) [2] => Array ( [name] => Scotty [shirt] => Red [assign] => Engineering ) [3] => Array ( [name] => Spock [shirt] => Blue [assign] => Bridge ) [4] => Array ( [name] => Uhura [shirt] => Red [assign] => Bridge ) [5] => 1 )

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• In .NET, how do I prevent, or handle, tampering with form data of disabled fields before submission?

  - by David

  Hi, If a disabled drop-down list is dynamically rendered to the page, it is still possible to use Firebug, or another tool, to tamper with the submitted value, and to remove the "disabled" HTML attribute. This code: protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { var ddlTest = new DropDownList() {ID="ddlTest", Enabled = false}; ddlTest.Items.AddRange(new [] { new ListItem("Please select", ""), new ListItem("test 1", "1"), new ListItem("test 2", "2") }); Controls.Add(ddlTest); } results in this HTML being rendered: <select disabled="disabled" id="Properties_ddlTest" name="Properties$ddlTest"> <option value="" selected="selected">Please select</option> <option value="1">test 1</option> <option value="2">test 2</option> </select> The problem occurs when I use Firebug to remove the "disabled" attribute, and to change the selected option. On submission of the form, and re-creation of the field, the newly generated control has the correct value by the end of OnLoad, but by OnPreRender, it has assumed the identity of the submitted control and has been given the submitted form value. .NET seems to have no way of detecting the fact that the field was originally created in a disabled state and that the submitted value was faked. This is understandable, as there could be legitimate, client-side functionality that would allow the disabled attribute to be removed. Is there some way, other than a brute force approach, of detecting that this field's value should not have been changed? I see the brute force approach as being something crap, like saving the correct value somewhere while still in OnLoad, and restoring the value in the OnPreRender. As some fields have dependencies on others, that would be unacceptable to me.

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• KODO: how set up fetch plan for bidirectional relationships?

  - by BestPractices

  Running KODO 4.2 and having an issue inefficient queries being generated by KODO. This happens when fetching an object that contains a collection where that collection has a bidrectional relationship back to the first object. Class Classroom { List<Student> _students; } Class Student { Classroom _classroom; } If we create a fetch plan to get a list of Classrooms and their corresponding Students by setting up the following fetch plan: fetchPlan.addField(Classroom.class,”_students”); This will result in two queries (get the classrooms and then get all students that are in those classrooms), which is what we would expect. However, if we include the reference back to the classroom in our fetch plan in order for the _classroom field to get populated by doing fetchPlan.addField(Student.class, “_classroom”), this will result in X number of additional queries where X is the number of students in each classroom. Can anyone explain how to fix this? KODO already has the original Classroom objects at the point that it's executing the queries to retrieve the Classroom objects and set them in each Student object's _classroom field. So I would expect KODO to simply set those objects in the _classroom field on each Student object accordingly and not go back to the database. Once again, the documentation is sorely lacking with Kodo/JDO/OpenJPA but from what I've read it should be able to do this more efficiently. Note-- EAGER_FETCH.PARALLEL is turned on and I have tried this with caching (query and data caches) turned on and off and there is no difference in the resultant queries.

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• Zend Form - how do I create these custom form elements?

  - by Jeremy Hicks

  This is a very specific instance where I'm having difficulty getting Zend Form to produce the correct output and supply the correct validation. I may have to go create a composite element but thought I'd ask here first. Here is the HTML I'm trying to get Zend Form to produce. I'd like this to be able to work where if the validation doesn't pass that the error messages still show up inline with the field that produced the error. <tr> <td>Budget</td> <td> <input type="radio" name="budget" value="unlimited" /> unlimited <br /> <input type="radio" name="budget" value="limited" /> $ <input type="text" name="budget_amount" /> every <select name="budget_period"> <option value="day">day</option> <option value="week">week</option> <option value="month">month</option> <option value="year">year</option> </select> </td> </tr> <tr> <td></td> <td><input type="checkbox" name="include_weekends" value="yes" /> include weekends?</td> </tr> The user can choose either unlimited or limited for the budget value, however, if they choose limited, then they are required to enter a value for the budget amount field and choose a value from the select for the budget period field.

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• Varchar columns: Nullable or not.

  - by NYSystemsAnalyst

  The database development standards in our organization state the varchar fields should not allow null values. They should have a default value of an empty string (""). I know this makes querying and concatenation easier, but today, one of my coworkers questioned me about why that standard only existed for varchar types an not other datatypes (int, datetime, etc). I would like to know if others consider this to be a valid, defensible standard, or if varchar should be treated the same as fields of other data types? I believe this standard is valid for the following reason: I believe that an empty string and null values, though technically different, are conceptually the same. An empty, zero length string is a string that does not exist. It has no value. However, a numeric value of 0 is not the same as NULL. For example, if a field called OutstandingBalance has a value of 0, it means there are $0.00 remaining. However, if the same field is NULL, that means the value is unknown. On the other hand, a field called CustomerName with a value of "" is basically the same as a value of NULL because both represent the non-existence of the name. I read somewhere that an analogy for an empty string vs. NULL is that of a blank CD vs. no CD. However, I believe this to be a false analogy because a blank CD still phyically exists and still has physical data space that does not have any meaningful data written to it. Basically, I believe a blank CD is the equivalent of a string of blank spaces (" "), not an empty string. Therefore, I believe a string of blank spaces to be an actual value separate from NULL, but an empty string to be the absense of value conceptually equivalent to NULL. Please let me know if my beliefs regarding variable length strings are valid, or please enlighten me if they are not. I have read several blogs / arguments regarding this subject, but still do not see a true conceptual difference between NULLs and empty strings.

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• Skip HTML escape in custom label_tag helper in Rail 3

  - by tricote

  Hi, I have this nice class ErrorFormBuilder that allows me to add the error description near the corresponding field in the form view : class ErrorFormBuilder < ActionView::Helpers::FormBuilder #Adds error message directly inline to a form label #Accepts all the options normall passed to form.label as well as: # :hide_errors - true if you don't want errors displayed on this label # :additional_text - Will add additional text after the error message or after the label if no errors def label(method, text = nil, options = {}) #Check to see if text for this label has been supplied and humanize the field name if not. text = text || method.to_s.humanize #Get a reference to the model object object = @template.instance_variable_get("@#{@object_name}") #Make sure we have an object and we're not told to hide errors for this label unless object.nil? || options[:hide_errors] #Check if there are any errors for this field in the model errors = object.errors.on(method.to_sym) if errors #Generate the label using the text as well as the error message wrapped in a span with error class text += " <br/><span class=\"error\">#{errors.is_a?(Array) ? errors.first : errors}</span>" end end #Add any additional text that might be needed on the label text += " #{options[:additional_text]}" if options[:additional_text] #Finally hand off to super to deal with the display of the label super(method, text, options) end end But the HTML : text += " <br/><span class=\"error\">#{errors.is_a?(Array) ? errors.first : errors}</span>" is escaped by default in the view... I tried to add the {:escape = false} option : super(method, text, options.merge({:escape => false})) without success Is there any way to bypass this behavior ? Thanks

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• How can I update a record using a correlated subquery?

  - by froadie

  I have a function that accepts one parameter and returns a table/resultset. I want to set a field in a table to the first result of that recordset, passing in one of the table's other fields as the parameter. If that's too complicated in words, the query looks something like this: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(myOtherField) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' In this example, myField and myOtherField are fields in myTable, and myFunctionField is a field return by fn_doSomething. This seems logical to me, but I'm getting the following strange error: 'myOtherField' is not a recognized OPTIMIZER LOCK HINTS option. Any idea what I'm doing wrong, and how I can accomplish this? *UPDATE: * Based on Anil Soman's answer, I realized that the function is expecting a string parameter and the field being passed is an integer. I'm not sure if this should be a problem as an explicit call to the function using an integer value works - e.g. fn_doSomething(12345) seems to automatically cast the number to an string. However, I tried to do an explicit cast: UPDATE myTable SET myField = (SELECT TOP 1 myFunctionField FROM fn_doSomething(CAST(myOtherField AS varchar(1000))) WHERE someCondition = 'something') WHERE someOtherCondition = 'somethingElse' Now I'm getting the following error: Line 5: Incorrect syntax near '('.

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• How use unobtrusive validation without a model

  - by Ross Cyrus

  i have simple a form wich made by htmlHelper(mvc3) then inside of it i have 2 input field 1:type=text 2:type=submit to submit the form. there is no model behind.so i need to perfom a clientside validation on the textfield before submit it to the server.but i dont know how. i tried this puting manualy the 'data-* artibute , but does not work : @using( Html.BeginForm()) { <label for="UserName" >User Name</label> <div class="editor-field"> <input type="text" data-val="true" data-val-requierd="You must provide an user Name" id="userName" name="userName" placeholder="Enter Your User Name" /> </div> <input type="submit" value="Recover" /> } the "jquery.validate.min.js" and jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js and jquery.validate.min.js and jquery.validate.unobtrusive.min.js are loaded to the page. It doesnt let me to answer my self ,so i put it here : I solve it my self,just made an other view wich has its own model and Required on its propertyis and then just copy the renderd html to my own,and i got this and works : <input data-val="true" data-val-required="You must provide an user Name" id="UserName" name="UserName" type="text" value="" placeholder="Enter your User Name"/> <span class="field-validation-valid" data-valmsg-for="UserName" data-valmsg-replace="true"></span> And there is no type="Required".any way thank you guys.

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• Need Help finding an appropriate task asignment algoritm for a collage project involving coordinatin

  - by Trif Mircea

  Hello. I am a long time lurker here and have found over time many answers regarding jquery and web development topics so I decided to ask a question of my own. This time I have to create a c++ project for collage which should help manage the workflow of a company providing all kinds of services through in the field teams. The ideas I have so far are: client-server application; the server is a dispatcher where all the orders from clients get and the clients are mobile devices (PDAs) each team in the field having one a order from a client is a task. Each task is made up of a series of subtasks. You have a database with estimations on how long a task should take to complete you also know what tasks or subtasks each team on the field can perform based on what kind of specialists made up the team (not going to complicate the problem by adding needed materials, it is considered that if a member of a team can perform a subtask he has the stuff needed) Now knowing these factors, what would a good task assignment algorithm be? The criteria is: how many tasks can a team do, how many tasks they have in the queue, it could also be location, how far away are they from the place but I don't think I can implement that.. It needs to be efficient and also to adapt quickly is the human dispatcher manually assigns a task. Any help or leads would be really appreciated. Also I'm not 100% sure in the idea so if you have another way you would go about creating such an application please share, even if it just a quick outline. I have to write a theoretical part too so even if the ideas are far more complex that what i outlined that would be ok ; I'd write those and implement what I can.

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• How to join results from two different sets in LINQ?

  - by Inez

  Hi, I get some data about customers in my database with this method: public List<KlientViewModel> GetListOfKlientViewModel() { List<KlientViewModel> list = _klientRepository.List().Select(k => new KlientViewModel { Id = k.Id, Imie = k.Imie, Nazwisko = k.Nazwisko, Nazwa = k.Nazwa, SposobPlatnosci = k.SposobPlatnosci, }).ToList(); return list; } but also I have another method which counts value for extra field in KlientViewModel - field called 'Naleznosci'. I have another method which counts value for this field based on customers ids, it looks like this: public Dictionary<int, decimal> GetNaleznosc(List<int> klientIds) { return klientIds.ToDictionary(klientId => klientId, klientId => (from z in _zdarzenieRepository.List() from c in z.Klient.Cennik where z.TypZdarzenia == (int) TypyZdarzen.Sprzedaz && z.IdTowar == c.IdTowar && z.Sprzedaz.Data >= c.Od && (z.Sprzedaz.Data < c.Do || c.Do == null) && z.Klient.Id == klientId select z.Ilosc*(z.Kwota > 0 ? z.Kwota : c.Cena)).Sum() ?? 0); } So what I want to do is to join data from method GetNaleznosc with data generated in method GetListOfKlientViewModel. I call GetNaleznosc like this: GetNaleznosc(list.Select(k => k.Id).ToList()) but don't know what to do next.

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• When combo box is selected then display Combo Box and then when any Item in Combo Box is selected then make JTextField visible

  - by Gugz_Singh

  I am having trouble with my code. What i'm trying to do is: 1. Create a Check Box, make it visible 2. When Check Box is selected display Combo Box, which will have few items for example ("1","2") 3. When 1 is selected from Combo Box then make 1 Text Field visible 4. When 2 is selected from Combo Box then make 2 Text Field's visible What I am able to do is when Check Box is clicked, it displays the Combo Box with the items. I am not able provide functionality to the items in the Combo Box, such as when Item1 is clicked then make 1 Text Field visible. Please help needed. My Code: public void replacement_used(){ no_of_part_used_label.setVisible(false); no_part_used_list.setVisible(false); part_no_one_label.setVisible(false); part_no_one_field.setVisible(false); part_no_two_label.setVisible(false); part_no_two_field.setVisible(false); part_no_three_label.setVisible(false); part_no_three_field.setVisible(false); part_no_four_label.setVisible(false); part_no_four_field.setVisible(false); part_no_five_label.setVisible(false); part_no_five_field.setVisible(false); HandlerClass handler = new HandlerClass(); replacement_part_check_box.addItemListener(handler); } private class HandlerClass implements ItemListener{ public void itemStateChanged(ItemEvent event){ if (replacement_part_check_box.isSelected()){ no_of_part_used_label.setVisible(true); no_part_used_list.setVisible(true); } x(); } } public void x(){ System.out.println("Start of x fucntion"); if( no_part_used_list.getSelectedItem().equals("1") ){ System.out.println("It is 1"); part_no_one_label.setVisible(true); part_no_one_field.setVisible(true); } }

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• What is the best way to identify which form has been submitted?

  - by Rupert

  Currently, when I design my forms, I like to keep the name of the submit button equal to the id of the form. Then, in my php, I just do if(isset($_POST['submitName'])) in order to check if a form has been submitted and which form has been submitted. Firstly, are there any security problems or design flaws with this method? One problem I have encountered is when I wish to overlay my forms with javascript in order to provide faster validation to the user. For example, whilst I obviously need to retain server side validation, it is more convenient for the user if an error message is displayed inline, upon blurring an input. Additionally, it would be good to provide entire form validation, upon clicking the submit button. Therefore, when the user clicks on the form's submit button, I am stopping the default action, doing my validation, and then attempting to renable the traditional submit functionality, if the validation passes. In order to do this, I am using the form.submit() method but, unfortunately, this doesn't send the submit button variable (as it should be as form.submit() can be called without any button being clicked). This means my PHP script fails to detect that the form has been submitted. What is the correct way to work around this? It seems like the standard solution is to add a hidden field into the form, upon passing validation, which has the name of form's id. Then when form.submit() is called, this is passed along in place of the submit button. However, this solution seems very ungraceful to me and so I am wondering whether I should: a) Use an alternative method to detect which form has been submitted which doesn't rely rely on passing the submit button. If so what alternative is there? Obviously, just having an extra hidden field from the start isn't any better. b) Use an alternative Javascript solution which allows me to retain my non-Javascript design. For example, is there an alternative to form.submit() which allows me to pass in extra data? c) Suck it up and just insert a hidden field using Javascript.

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• mmap only needed pages of kernel buffer to user space

  - by axeoth

  See also this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/a/10770582/1284631 I need something similar, but without having to allocate a buffer: the buffer is large, in theory, but the user space program only needs to access some parts of it (it mocks some registers of a hardware). As I cannot allocate with vmalloc_user() such a large buffer (kernel 32 bit, in embedded environment, no swap...), I followed the same approach as in the quoted answer, trying to allocate only those pages that are really requested by the user space. So: I use a my_mmap() function for the device file (actually, is the .mmap field of a struct uio_info) to set up the fields of the vma, then, in the vm_area_struct's .fault field (also named my_fault()), I should return a page. except that: In the my_fault() method of vm_area_struct, I cannot obtain a page through: vmf->page=vmalloc_to_page(my_buf + (vmf->pgoff << PAGE_SHIFT)); since there is no allocated buffer: my_buf = vmalloc_user(MY_BUF_SIZE); fails with "allocation failed: out of vmalloc space - use vmalloc= to increase size." (and there is no room or swap to increase that vmalloc= parameter). So, I would need to get a page from the kernel and fill the vmf->page field. How to allocate a page (I assume that the offset of the page is known, as it is vm->pgoff). What base memory should I use instead of my_buf? PS: I also did set up the vma->flags |= VM_NORESERVE; (in the my_mmap()), but not sure if it helps. Is there any vmalloc_user_unreserved()-like function? (let's say, lazy allocation) Also, writing 1 to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_memory and large values (eg 500) to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_ratio before trying to my_buf=vmalloc_user(<large_size>) didn't work.

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• A GUID as the MySQL table's Primary Key or as a separate column

  - by Ben

  I have a multi-process program that performs, in a 2 hour period, 5-10 million inserts to a 34GB table within a single Master/Slave MySQL setup (plus an equal number of reads in that period). The table in question has only 5 fields and 3 (single field) indexes. The primary key is auto-incrementing. I am far from a DBA, but the database appears to be crippled during this two hour period. So, I have a couple of general questions. 1) How much bang will I get out of batching these writes into units of 10? Currently, I am writing each insert serially because, after writing, I immediately need to know, in my program, the resulting primary key of each insert. The PK is the only unique field presently and approximating the order of insertion with something like a Datetime field or a multi-column value is not acceptable. If I perform a bulk insert, I won't know these IDs, which is a problem. So, I've been thinking about turning the auto-increment primary key into a GUID and enforcing uniqueness. I've also been kicking around the idea of creating a new column just for the purposes of the GUID. I don't really see the what that achieves though, that the PK approach doesn't already offer. As far as I can tell, the big downside to making the PK a randomly generated number is that the index would take a long time to update on each insert (since insertion order would not be sequential). Is that an acceptable approach for a table that is taking this number of writes? Thanks, Ben

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• Extract data from PostgreSQL DB without using pg_dump

  - by John Horton

  There is a PostgreSQL database on which I only have limited access (e.g, I can't use pg_dump). I am trying to create a local "mirror" by exporting certain tables from the database. I do not have the permissions needed to just dump a table as SQL from within psql. Right now, I just have a Python script that iterates through my table_names, selects all fields and then exports them as a CSV: for table_name, file_name in zip(table_names, file_names): cmd = """echo "\\\copy (select * from %s)" to stdout WITH CSV HEADER | psql -d remote_db | gzip > ./%s/%s.gz"""%(table_name,dir_name,file_name) os.system(cmd) I would like to not use CSV if possible, as I lose the field types and the encoding can get messed up. First best would probably be some way of getting the generating SQL code for the table using \copy. Next best would be XML, ideally with some way of preserving the field types. If that doesn't work, I think the final option might be two queries---one to get the field data types, the other to get the actual data. Any thoughts or advice would be greatly appreciated - thanks!

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• smartgwt operationId not working

  - by dubreakkk

  Hello all: How do operationIds work when calling a smartGWT fetch operation? I have the following simple Datasource, and below it the code that calls that datasource. However, the operationId is never acknowledged, and the first fetch operation is always executed... <DataSource ID="cartDS" serverType="sql" tableName="cart"> <fields> <field name="cart_id" type="number"/> <field name="price" type="double"/> <field name="total" type="double" customSQL="true"/> </fields> <dbName></dbName> <operationBindings> <operationBinding operationType="fetch"> <values fieldName="cart_id" value="$session.id"/> </operationBinding> <operationBinding operationType="fetch" operationId="total"> <values fieldName="cart_id" value="$session.id"/> <selectClause>sum(price) AS total </selectClause> </operationBinding> final DynamicForm totalForm = new DynamicForm(); totalForm.setDataSource(cartDS); totalForm.setFetchOperation("total"); totalForm.fetchData();

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• MVC 3, View Model for user registration process. Password validation not working properly

  - by sec_goat

  I am trying to create a user registration page using MVC 3, so that I can better understand the process of how it works, what's going on behind the scenes etc. I am running into some issues when trying to use [Compare] to check to see that the user entered the same password twice. I tried adding the ComparePassword field to my user model first, and found that would not work the way I wanted as I did not have the field in the database, so the obvious answer was to create a View Model using the same information including the ComparePassword field. So I now have created a User model and a RegistrationViewModel, however it appears that the [Compare] on the password is not returning anything, for instance no matter what I put in the two boxes, when I click create it gives no error, which seems to me to mean it was successfully validated. I am not sure what I am doing or not doing to make this work properly. I have tried updating the jQuery.Validate to the newest version as there were some bugs reported in older version, this has not helped my efforts. Below is a wall of code, that is what I am working with. } public class RegistrationViewModel { [Required] [StringLength(15, MinimumLength = 3)] [Display(Name = "User Name")] [RegularExpression(@"(\S)+", ErrorMessage = " White Space is not allowed in User Names")] [ScaffoldColumn(false)] public String Username { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(15, MinimumLength = 3)] [Display(Name = "First Name")] public String firstName { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(15, MinimumLength = 3)] [Display(Name = "Last Name")] public String lastName { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Email")] public String email { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Password")] [DataType(DataType.Password)] public String password { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.Password)] [Display(Name = "Re-enter Password")] [Compare("Password", ErrorMessage = "Passwords do not match.")] public String comparePassword { get; set; } }

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• Prohibit ampersand in Rails form

  - by snlsn

  NOT a Rails 3 issue In a Contact model I have a company_name attribute. For reasons that don't matter to this question, I want to prohibit an ampersand character. We have a lot of clients with ampersands in their company name, and users forget they aren't allowed to use this character. This isn't an html sanitize issue. I don't care about whitespace or CDATA or anything. The entries in this field are plain text and I don't want an ampersand to be entered in this one field in any way, shape or form. I assume a validation on the model is the way to go. I have tried validates_exclusion_of. I have tried validates_format_of. No success. I'm unsophisticated when it comes to regex, so I might be doing things very wrong. But the bottom line is - I need to prevent a user from entering that "&" character in the company_name field. Thanks a million. Steve

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• How to check for a null object reference when validating forms in MVC

  - by quakkels

  Hello SO, I'm experimenting with validating forms in the asp.net MVC framework. I'm focusing on server side validation for the time being. I've come across an error that I'm not sure how to rectify. System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. The code that throws the error is: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create([Bind(Exclude="ID")] MembersCreate mc ) { mc.Modules = ModuleListDataContext.GetModuleList(); ViewData.Model = mc; //Validation using ModelState // // //line below errors when form field is empty // if ((string)mc.Member.Username.Trim() == "") ModelState.AddModelError("Member.Username", "Username is required."); if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(); try { // TODO: Add insert logic here return RedirectToAction("Index","Home"); } catch { return View(); } } When I put spaces in the field it performs exactly as i want, but if I leave the field blank and press submit I get the error. What's the best way to avoid this error and still validate blank form fields? Thanks all -

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• db4o problem with graph of objects

  - by Staszek28

  I am a new to db4o. I have a big problem with persistance of a graph of objects. I am trying to migrate from old persistance component to new, using db4o. Before I peristed all objects its graph looked like below (Take a look at Zrodlo.Metadane.abstrakt string field with focused value) [its view from eclipse debuger] with a code: ObjectContainer db=Db4o.openFile(DB_FILE); try { db.store(encja); db.commit(); } finally{ db.close(); } After that, I tried to read it with a code: ObjectContainer db=Db4o.openFile((DB_FILE)); try{ Query q = db.query(); q.constrain(EncjaDanych.class); ObjectSet<Object> objectSet = q.execute(); logger.debug("objectSet.size" + objectSet.size()); EncjaDanych encja = (EncjaDanych) objectSet.get(0); logger.debug("ENCJA" + encja.toString()); return encja; }finally{ db.close(); } and I got it (picture below) - string field "abstrakt" is null now !!! I take a look at it using ObjectManager (picture below) and abstrakt field has not-null value there!!! The same value, that on the 1st picture. Please help me :) It is my second day with db4o. Thanks in advance! I am attaching some code with structure of persisted class: public class EncjaDanych{ Map mapaIdRepo = new HashMap(); public Map mapaNazwaRepo = new HashMap(); }

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• get the javascript variable value to Code Behind Asp.net

  - by Siddiq Baig

  i am trying to pass the javascript variable value to hidden feild from code behind by onclientclick event.. i have button that have both client and server side onclick event <asp:Button ID="btnSave" runat="server" Text="Save" class="buttonstyle" onclick="btnSave_Click" OnClientClick="otherdata()" /> i want to get the javascript value in codebehind from OnClientClick event and then want to insert that value to database table from Onclick event function otherdata() { var hv = $('input[id$=hdnOthers]').val(); var $arrT = $('#<%=gv_Others.ClientID %>').find('input:text[id$="txtEmp"]'); var count = []; for (var i = 0; i < 10; i++) { var $txt = $arrT[i]; count[i] = $($txt).val(); } hv = count; alert(hv); } i am getting the value in alert and assigning the value to hidden field but problem is that i am not getting the value in hidden field from code behind.. although i have already pass the value to hidden field from javascript so why i am not getting that value from code behind.. protected void Insert_OtherServices() { dsJobCardTableAdapters.Select_OtherServiceTableAdapter dsother = new dsJobCardTableAdapters.Select_OtherServiceTableAdapter(); string hdn = hdnOthers.Value; dsother.Insert_OtherService(hdn); }

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• Is there a JavaScript event that fires when a tab index switch is triggered? (TABINDEX does not work for inputs in IFRAME)

  - by treeface

  My specific use case is that I have a WYSIWYG editor which is basically an editable iframe. To the user, however, it looks like a standard-issue textarea. My problem is that I have inputs that sit before and after this editor in the (perceived) tab index and I'd like the user to be able to press tab (or the equivalent on his platform of choice) to get to the WYSIWYG editor when he's in the previous element and shift-tab to get to it when he's in the latter element. I know this can be faked using the key events and checking whether or not the tab key was pressed, but I'm curious if there's a better way. UPDATE. treeface clarified the actual problem in the comments. PROBLEM: In normal case, you can use "TABINDEX" attribute of the <input> element to control that, when tabbing out of "Subject" input field (in an email form), the focus lands on "Body" input field in the e-mail. This is done simply by assigning correctly ordered values to "TABINDEX" attribute of both input fields. The problem is that TABINDEX attribute only orders elements within the same frame. So, if "Body" input field is actually in an internal IFRAME, you can't tab out of "Subject" in the parent frame straight into "Body" in the IFRAME using TABINDEX order.

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