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  • Compile subversion on CentOs

    - by peter
    I have downloaded, compiled and installed so far: apr-1.3.9 apr-util-1.3.9 sqlite-3.6.23 zlib-1.2.4 libtool-2.2.6b Now after downloading subversion-1.6.9, the config works fine but compiling it will end with the following error: cd subversion/svn && /bin/sh /root/subversion-1.6.9/libtool --tag=CC --silent --mode=link gcc -g -O2 -g -O2 -pthread -rpath /usr/local/lib -o svn add-cmd.o blame-cmd.o cat-cmd.o changelist-cmd.o checkout-cmd.o cleanup-cmd.o commit-cmd.o conflict-callbacks.o copy-cmd.o delete-cmd.o diff-cmd.o export-cmd.o help-cmd.o import-cmd.o info-cmd.o list-cmd.o lock-cmd.o log-cmd.o main.o merge-cmd.o mergeinfo-cmd.o mkdir-cmd.o move-cmd.o notify.o propdel-cmd.o propedit-cmd.o propget-cmd.o proplist-cmd.o props.o propset-cmd.o resolve-cmd.o resolved-cmd.o revert-cmd.o status-cmd.o status.o switch-cmd.o tree-conflicts.o unlock-cmd.o update-cmd.o util.o ../../subversion/libsvn_client/libsvn_client-1.la ../../subversion/libsvn_wc/libsvn_wc-1.la ../../subversion/libsvn_ra/libsvn_ra-1.la ../../subversion/libsvn_delta/libsvn_delta-1.la ../../subversion/libsvn_diff/libsvn_diff-1.la ../../subversion/libsvn_subr/libsvn_subr-1.la /usr/local/apr/lib/libaprutil-1.la -lexpat /usr/local/apr/lib/libapr-1.la -lrt -lcrypt -lpthread -ldl /usr/bin/ld: cannot find -lexpat collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make: * [subversion/svn/svn] Error 1 The file at /usr/local/apr/lib/libapr-1.la exists and seems to be OK (from permission perspective What could be the problem here? Thanks Peter

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  • Weird .net 4.0 exception when running unit tests

    - by vdh_ant
    Hi guys I am receiving the following exception when trying to run my unit tests using .net 4.0 under VS2010 with moq 3.1. Attempt by security transparent method 'SPPD.Backend.DataAccess.Test.Specs_for_Core.When_using_base.Can_create_mapper()' to access security critical method 'Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.UnitTesting.Assert.IsNotNull(System.Object)' failed. Assembly 'SPPD.Backend.DataAccess.Test, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' is marked with the AllowPartiallyTrustedCallersAttribute, and uses the level 2 security transparency model. Level 2 transparency causes all methods in AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers assemblies to become security transparent by default, which may be the cause of this exception. The test I am running is really straight forward and looks something like the following: [TestMethod] public void Can_create_mapper() { this.SetupTest(); var mockMapper = new Moq.Mock<IMapper>().Object; this._Resolver.Setup(x => x.Resolve<IMapper>()).Returns(mockMapper).Verifiable(); var testBaseDa = new TestBaseDa(); var result = testBaseDa.TestCreateMapper<IMapper>(); Assert.IsNotNull(result); //<<< THROWS EXCEPTION HERE Assert.AreSame(mockMapper, result); this._Resolver.Verify(); } I have no idea what this means and I have been looking around and have found very little on the topic. The closest reference I have found is this http://dotnetzip.codeplex.com/Thread/View.aspx?ThreadId=80274 but its not very clear on what they did to fix it... Anyone got any ideas?

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  • Did the Unity Team fix that "generics handling" bug back in 2008?

    - by rasx
    At my level of experience with Unity it might be faster to ask whether the "generics handling" bug acknowledged by ctavares back in 2008 was fixed in a public release. Here was the problem (which might be my problem today): Hi, I get an exception when using .... container.RegisterType(typeof(IDictionary<,), typeof(Dictionary<,)); The exception is... "Resolution of the dependency failed, type = \"IDictionary2\", name = \"\". Exception message is: The current build operation (build key Build Key[System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[System.String,System.String], null]) failed: The current build operation (build key Build Key[System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary2[System.String,System.String], null]) failed: The type Dictionary2 has multiple constructors of length 2. Unable to disambiguate. When I attempt... IDictionary myExampleDictionary = container.Resolve(); Here was the moderated response: There are no books that'll help, Unity is a little too new for publishers to have caught up yet. Unfortunately, you've run into a bug in our generics handling. This is currently fixed in our internal version, but it'll be a little while before we can get the bits out. In the meantime, as a workaround you could do something like this instead: public class WorkaroundDictionary : Dictionary { public WorkaroundDictionary() { } } container.RegisterType(typeof(IDictionary<,),typeof(WorkaroundDictionary<,)); The WorkaroundDictionary only has the default constructor so it'll inject no problem. Since the rest of your app is written in terms of IDictionary, when we get the fixed version done you can just replace the registration with the real Dictionary class, throw out the workaround, and everything will still just work. Sorry about the bug, it'll be fixed soon!

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  • Javascript string replace with calculations

    - by Chris
    Is there a way to resolve mathematical expressions in strings in javascript? For example, suppose I want to produce the string "Tom has 2 apples, Lucy has 3 apples. Together they have 5 apples" but I want to be able to substitute in the variables. I can do this with a string replacement: string = "Tom has X apples, Lucy has Y apples. Together they have Z apples"; string2 = string.replace(/X/, '2').replace(/Y/, '3').replace(/Z/, '5'); However, it would be better if, instead of having a variable Z, I could use X+Y. Now, I could also do a string replace for X+Y and replace it with the correct value, but that would become messy when trying to deal with all the possible in-string calculations I might want to do. I suppose I'm looking for a way to achieve this: string = "Something [X], something [Y]. Something [(X+Y^2)/5X]"; And for the [_] parts to be understood as expressions to be resolved before substituting back into the string. Thanks for your help.

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  • How do I DYNAMICALLY cast in C# and return for a property

    - by ken-forslund
    I've already read threads on the topic, but can't find a solution that fits. I'm working on a drop-down list that takes an enum and uses that to populate itself. i found a VB.NET one. During the porting process, I discovered that it uses DirectCast() to set the type as it returns the SelectedValue. See the original VB here: http://jeffhandley.com/archive/2008/01/27/enum-list-dropdown-control.aspx the gist is, the control has Type _enumType; //gets set when the datasource is set and is the type of the specific enum The SelectedValue property kind of looks like (remember, it doesn't work): public Enum SelectedValue //Shadows Property { get { // Get the value from the request to allow for disabled viewstate string RequestValue = this.Page.Request.Params[this.UniqueID]; return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; } set { base.SelectedValue = value.ToString(); } } Now this touches on a core point that I think was missed in the other discussions. In darn near every example, folks argued that DirectCast wasn't needed, because in every example, they statically defined the type. That's not the case here. As the programmer of the control, I don't know the type. Therefore, I can't cast it. Additionally, the following examples of lines won't compile because c# casting doesn't accept a variable. Whereas VB's CType and DirectCast can accept Type T as a function parameter: return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true); or return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; or return (_enumType)Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) ; or return Convert.ChangeType(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true), _enumType); or return CastTo<_enumType>(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true)); So, any ideas on a solution? What's the .NET 3.5 best way to resolve this?

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  • Maven test dependency in multi module project

    - by user209947
    I use maven to build a multi module project. My module 2 depends on Module 1 src at compile scope and module 1 tests in test scope. Module 2 - <dependency> <groupId>blah</groupId> <artifactId>MODULE1</artifactId> <version>blah</version> <classifier>tests</classifier> <scope>test</scope> </dependency> This works fine. Say my module 3 depends on Module1 src and tests at compile time. Module 3 - <dependency> <groupId>blah</groupId> <artifactId>MODULE1</artifactId> <version>blah</version> <classifier>tests</classifier> <scope>complie</scope> </dependency> When I run mvn clean install, my build runs till module 3, fails at module 3 as it couldnt resolve the module 1 test dependency. Then I do a mvn install on module 3 alone, go back and run mvn install on my parent pom to make it build. How can i fix this?

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  • Python/YACC: Resolving a shift/reduce conflict

    - by Rosarch
    I'm using PLY. Here is one of my states from parser.out: state 3 (5) course_data -> course . (6) course_data -> course . course_list_tail (3) or_phrase -> course . OR_CONJ COURSE_NUMBER (7) course_list_tail -> . , COURSE_NUMBER (8) course_list_tail -> . , COURSE_NUMBER course_list_tail ! shift/reduce conflict for OR_CONJ resolved as shift $end reduce using rule 5 (course_data -> course .) OR_CONJ shift and go to state 7 , shift and go to state 8 ! OR_CONJ [ reduce using rule 5 (course_data -> course .) ] course_list_tail shift and go to state 9 I want to resolve this as: if OR_CONJ is followed by COURSE_NUMBER: shift and go to state 7 else: reduce using rule 5 (course_data -> course .) How can I fix my parser file to reflect this? Do I need to handle a syntax error by backtracking and trying a different rule?

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  • Can you have a Dynamic Data Field which consists of a list of fields?

    - by Telos
    This is a purely theoretical question (at least until I start trying to implement it) but here goes. I wrote a web form a long time ago which has a configurable section for getting information. Basically for some customers there are no fields, for other customers there are up to 20 fields. I got it working by dynamically creating the fields at just the right time in the page lifecycle and going through a lot of headaches. 2 years later, I need to make some pretty big updates to this web form and there are some nifty new technologies. I've worked with ASP.NET Dynamic Data just a bit and, well, I half-crazed plan just occurred to me: The Ticket object has a one-to-many relationship to ExtendedField, we'll call that relationship Fields for brevity. Using that, the idea would be to create a FieldTemplate that dynamically generated the list of fields and displayed it. The big questions here would probably be: 1) Can a single field template resolve to multiple web controls without breaking things? 2) Can dynamic data handle updating/inserting multiple rows in such a fashion? 3) There was a third question I had a few minutes ago, but coworkers interrupted me and I forgot. So now the third question is: what is the third question? So basically, does this sound like it could work or am I missing a better/more obvious solution?

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  • How to flush DNS cache in Windows Mobile programmatically?

    - by Bounded
    Hello, My windows mobile application (written in C# with the compact framework) needs to know if a particular machine is active or not. To achieve this goal, I thought to use a ping mechanism. I tried to use the Ping class implemented in the opennetcf framework (the System.Net.NetworkInformation.Ping class for the .NET Framework is not part of the compact framework). Because I give to the Ping.Send function a host name, it first tries to resolve this host name and to retrieve an IP address. But i observe the following problem : If the first dns resolution fails (because the network is down at this moment), and if the application tries immediately again to send the ping, it fails too, even if the network is note down anymore. I check with a famous network protocol analyzer and i saw that only the requests concerning the first dns resolution are sent. The requests concerning the dns resolution of the second ping are not sent. Why is the second dns request not sent ? Is there any dns cache mechanism on such Windows Mobile devices ? If yes, can this mechanism beeing flushed programmatically ? EDIT : I gave up finding a solution to this DNS flush. I chose to ping an IP adress instead of a name machine. The problem of pinging an hard coded adress IP is that we have to be 100% sure that this IP will not change. The gateway IP can be used because it's always reachable (if it does not, it means the network is down).

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  • Using ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping with @Controller and extending AbstractController

    - by whiskerz
    Hey there, actually I thought I was trying something really simple. ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping sounded great to produce a small spring webapp using a very lean configuration. Just annotate the Controller with @Controller, have it extend AbstractController and the configuration shouldn't need more than this <context:component-scan base-package="test.mypackage.controller" /> <bean id="urlMapping" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.support.ControllerClassNameHandlerMapping" /> to resolve my requests and map them to my controllers. I've mapped the servlet to "*.spring", and calling <approot>/hello.spring All I ever get is an error stating that no mapping was found. If however I extend the MultiActionController, and do something like <approot>/hello/hello.spring it works. Which somehow irritates me, as I would have thought that if that is working, why didn't my first try? Does anyone have any idea? The two controllers I used looked like this @Controller public class HelloController extends AbstractController { @Override protected ModelAndView handleRequestInternal(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("hello"); modelAndView.addObject("message", "Hello World!"); return modelAndView; } } and @Controller public class HelloController extends MultiActionController { public ModelAndView hello(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws Exception { ModelAndView modelAndView = new ModelAndView("hello"); modelAndView.addObject("message", "Hello World!"); return modelAndView; } }

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  • int considered harmful?

    - by Chris Becke
    Working on code meant to be portable between Win32 and Win64 and Cocoa, I am really struggling to get to grips with what the @#$% the various standards committees involved over the past decades were thinking when they first came up with, and then perpetuated, the crime against humanity that is the C native typeset - char, short, int and long. On the one hand, as a old-school c++ programmer, there are few statements that were as elegant and/or as simple as for(int i=0; i<some_max; i++) but now, it seems that, in the general case, this code can never be correct. Oh sure, given a particular version of MSVC or GCC, with specific targets, the size of 'int' can be safely assumed. But, in the case of writing very generic c/c++ code that might one day be used on 16 bit hardware, or 128, or just be exposed to a particularly weirdly setup 32/64 bit compiler, how does use int in c++ code in a way that the resulting program would have predictable behavior in any and all possible c++ compilers that implemented c++ according to spec. To resolve these unpredictabilities, C99 and C++98 introduced size_t, uintptr_t, ptrdiff_t, int8_t, int16_t, int32_t, int16_t and so on. Which leaves me thinking that a raw int, anywhere in pure c++ code, should really be considered harmful, as there is some (completely c++xx conforming) compiler, thats going to produce an unexpected or incorrect result with it. (and probably be a attack vector as well)

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  • Jquery animate bottom problem

    - by andrea
    It's strange. I have an animation that start when i .hover on a DIV. Into this div i have another in position absolute that i want to move up until the mouse stay on main div and go down in your position when i go out of main div. A simple hover effect. I have write down this function that work well apart a strange bug. var inside = $('.inside') inside.hover(function() { $(this).children(".coll_base").stop().animate({ bottom:'+=30px' },"slow") }, function() { $(this).children(".coll_base").stop().animate({ bottom:'-=30px' },"slow"); }); i need +=30 and -=30 because i have to apply this function to a range of div with different bottom. The problem is that if i hover on and out of div the DIV animate right but when go down he decrease the value of bottom every animation. If i go up and down from the main div i see that the animated div go down even beyond the main div. I think that i miss something to resolve this bug. Thanks for any help

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  • Ignoring build number when referencing dll

    - by brickner
    I have one solution with a .NET 4.0 project (C#) that produces a delayed signed dll, that I dotfuscate and sign. EDIT: This is how I version the dll: [assembly: AssemblyVersion("0.7.0.*")] [assembly: AssemblyFileVersion("0.7.0.0")] I have another solution with a .NET 4.0 project (C++/CLI) that references the signed dll and produces a signed dll (actually, delayed signed and signed in a post build because of a flaw in the C++ build system). The problem is that the reference to the dll contains a specific version number, which includes even the build number (I want to have a build number). Every time I build the referenced dll, I have to change the project settings file (.vcxproj) so it reference the new version dll. Since I work with source control, this is very inconvenient (different computers might have different build numbers since each computer build its own referenced dll - the referenced dll is not in the source control). If I don't change the reference, I get a warning: warning MSB3245: Could not resolve this reference. Could not locate the assembly... And many errors like this: error C3083: 'Foo': the symbol to the left of a '::' must be a type These are resolved once I change the reference. How do I make the reference ignore the build number or even the entire version number?

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  • zend framework controller not found ?

    - by user284503
    I downloaded the latest version of Zend framework, added a controller and I can not get it to load.. Here is what I did: C:\zend\Apache2\htdocs>zf create project myproject Creating project at C:/zend/Apache2/htdocs/myproject Note: This command created a web project, for more information setting up your V HOST, please see docs/README C:\zend\Apache2\htdocs>cd myproject C:\zend\Apache2\htdocs\myproject>zf create controller mycontroller Note: The canonical controller name that is used with other providers is "Mycont roller"; not "mycontroller" as supplied Creating a controller at C:\zend\Apache2\htdocs\myproject/application/controller s/MycontrollerController.php Creating an index action method in controller Mycontroller Creating a view script for the index action method at C:\zend\Apache2\htdocs\myp roject/application/views/scripts/mycontroller/index.phtml Creating a controller test file at C:\zend\Apache2\htdocs\myproject/tests/applic ation/controllers/MycontrollerControllerTest.php Updating project profile 'C:\zend\Apache2\htdocs\myproject/.zfproject.xml' C:\zend\Apache2\htdocs\myproject> Then I tried to hit the controller from the browser.. http://localhost/myproject/public/mycontroller/ and I get the error: Not Found The requested URL /myproject/public/mycontroller/ was not found on this server. I have no idea how to resolve this, and I'm sort of shocked I'm having problems with the Zend Server.

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  • ClassLoader exceptions being memoized

    - by Jim
    Hello, I am writing a classloader for a long-running server instance. If a user has not yet uploaded a class definition, I through a ClassNotFoundException; seems reasonable. The problem is this: There are three classes (C1, C2, and C3). C1 depends on C2, C2 depends on C3. C1 and C2 are resolvable, C3 isn't (yet). C1 is loaded. C1 subsequently performs an action that requires C2, so C2 is loaded. C2 subsequently performs an action that requires C3, so the classloader attempts to load C3, but can't resolve it, and an exception is thrown. Now C3 is added to the classpath, and the process is restarted (starting from the originally-loaded C1). The issue is, C2 seems to remember that C3 couldn't be loaded, and doesn't bother asking the classloader to find the class... it just re-throws the memoized exception. Clearly I can't reload C1 or C2 because other classes may have linked to them (as C1 has already linked to C2). I tried throwing different types of errors, hoping the class might not memoize them. Unfortunately, no such luck. Is there a way to prevent the loaded class from binding to the exception? That is, I want the classloader to be allowed to keep trying if it didn't succeed the first time. Thanks!

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  • function objects versus function pointers

    - by kumar_m_kiran
    Hi All, I have two questions related to function objects and function pointers, Question : 1 When I read the different uses sort algorithm of STL, I see that the third parameter can be a function objects, below is an example class State { public: //... int population() const; float aveTempF() const; //... }; struct PopLess : public std::binary_function<State,State,bool> { bool operator ()( const State &a, const State &b ) const { return popLess( a, b ); } }; sort( union, union+50, PopLess() ); Question : Now, How does the statement, sort(union, union+50,PopLess()) work? PopLess() must be resolved into something like PopLess tempObject.operator() which would be same as executing the operator () function on a temporary object. I see this as, passing the return value of overloaded operation i.e bool (as in my example) to sort algorithm. So then, How does sort function resolve the third parameter in this case? Question : 2 Question Do we derive any particular advantage of using function objects versus function pointer? If we use below function pointer will it derive any disavantage? inline bool popLess( const State &a, const State &b ) { return a.population() < b.population(); } std::sort( union, union+50, popLess ); // sort by population PS : Both the above references(including example) are from book "C++ Common Knowledge: Essential Intermediate Programming" by "Stephen C. Dewhurst". I was unable to decode the topic content, thus have posted for help. Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • How to get resultset with stored procedure calls over two linked servers?

    - by räph
    I have problems filling a temporary table with the resultset from a procedure call on a linked server, in which again a procedure on another server is called. I have a Stored Procedure sproc1 with the following code, which calls another procedure sproc2 on a linked server. SET @sqlCommand = 'INSERT INTO #tblTemp ( ModuleID, ParamID) ' + '( SELECT * FROM OPENQUERY(' + @targetServer + ', ' + '''SET FMTONLY OFF; EXEC ' + @targetDB + '.usr.sproc2 ' + @param + ''' ) )' exec ( @sqlCommand ) Now in the called sproc2 I again call a third procedure sproc3 on another linked server, which returns my resultset. SET @sqlCommand = 'EXEC ' + @targetServer +'.database.usr.sproc3 ' + @param exec ( @sqlCommand ) The whole thing doen't work, as I get an SQL error 7391 The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "%ls" for linked server "%ls" was unable to begin a distributed transaction. I already checked the hints at this microsoft article, but without success. But maybe, I can change the code in sproc1. Would there be some alternative to the temp table and the open query? Just calling stored procedures from server A to B to C and returning the resultset is working (I do this often in the application). But this special case with the temp table and openquery doesn't work! Or is it just not possible what I am trying to do? The microsft article states: Check the object you refer on the destination server. If it is a view or a stored procedure, or causes an execution of a trigger, check whether it implicitly references another server. If so, the third server is the source of the problem. Run the query directly on the third server. If you cannot run the query directly on the third server, the problem is not actually with the linked server query. Resolve the underlying problem first. Is this my case? PS: I can't avoid the architecture with the three servers.

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  • Unexplained crashs with coregraphic

    - by Ziggy
    Hello there, i'm on this bug for a week now, and i can't solve it. I have some crash with coregraphic calls, it happen randomly (sometimes after 2 mn, or just at the start), but often at the same places in the code. I have a class that just wrap a CGContext, it have a CGContextRef as member. This Object is re-created each time DrawRect() is called, so the CGContextRef is always up-to-date. The draw calls came from the main thread, only After looking for this kind of error, it appear that it should be object Release related. Here is an example of an error : #0 0x90d8a7a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x90d8a8b2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x90d0d0b6 in CFRetain #3 0x95e54a5d in CGColorRetain #4 0x95e5491d in CGGStateCreateCopy #5 0x95e5486d in CGGStackSave #6 0x95e54846 in CGContextSaveGState #7 0x00073500 in CAutoContextState::CAutoContextState at Context.cpp:47 the AutoContextSave() class look like this : class CAutoContextState { private: CGContextRef m_Hdc; public: CAutoContextState(const CGContextRef& Hdc) { m_Hdc = Hdc; CGContextSaveGState(m_Hdc); } virtual ~CAutoContextState() { CGContextRestoreGState(m_Hdc); } }; It crash at CGContextSaveGState(m_Hdc). Here is what i see into GDB: * -[Not A Type retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x16a148b0. When i type malloc-history on the address, i have this : 0: 0x954cf10c in malloc_zone_malloc 1: 0x90d0d201 in _CFRuntimeCreateInstance 2: 0x95e3fe88 in CGTypeCreateInstanceWithAllocator 3: 0x95e44297 in CGTypeCreateInstance 4: 0x95e58f57 in CGColorCreate 5: 0x71fdd in _ZN4Flux4Draw8CContext10DrawStringERKNS_7CStringEPKNS0_5CFontEPKNS0_6CBrushERKNS_5CRectENS0_12tagAlignmentESE_NS0_17tagStringTrimmingEfiPKf at /Volumes/Sources Mac/Flux/Sources/DotFlux/Projects/../Draw/CoreGraphic/Context.cpp:1029 Which point me at this line of code : f32 components[] = {pSolidBrush->GetColor().GetfRed(), pSolidBrush->GetColor().GetfGreen(), pSolidBrush->GetColor().GetfBlue(), pSolidBrush->GetColor().GetfAlpha()}; //{ 1.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.8 }; CGColorRef TextColor = CGColorCreate(rgbColorSpace, components); Point this func : CGColorCreate(); Any help would be appreciated, i need to finish this task very soon, but i don't know how to resolve this :( Thanks.

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  • Routing in Php and decorator pattern

    - by Joey Salac Hipolito
    I do not know if I am using the term 'routing' correctly, but here is the situation: I created an .htaccess file to 'process' (dunno if my term is right) the url of my application, like this : RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.+)$ index.php?url=$1 [QSA,L] Now I have this : http://appname/controller/method/parameter http://appname/$url[0]/$url[1]/$url[2] What I did is: setup a default controller, in case it is not specified in the url setup a Controller wrapper I did it like this $target = new $url[0]() $controller = new Controller($target) The problem with that one is that I can't use the methods in the object I passed in the constructor of the Controller: I resolved it like this : class Controller { protected $target; protected $view; public function __construct($target, $view) { $this->target = $target; $this->view = $view; } public function __call($method, $arguments) { if (method_exists($this->target, $method)) { return call_user_func_array(array($this->target, $method), $arguments); } } } This is working fine, the problem occurs in the index where I did the routing, here it is if(isset($url[2])){ if(method_exists($controller, $url[1])){ $controller->$url[1]($url[2]) } } else { if(method_exists($controller, $url[1])){ $controller->$url[1]() } } where $controller = new Controller($target) The problem is that the method doesn't exist, although I can use it directly without checking if method exist, how can I resolve this?

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  • what are the possibilities of displaying items in a listbox.

    - by Selase
    Ive been trying to figure out for a long time now how to create an interface that can allows users to input several rows of data and passed those entries into an sql server database all at one shot. i could not get any better ideas so i came up with this.(see picture below.) so what i envisioned is that the user enters values in the textboxes and hits "add to list" button. the values are then populated in the list box below with the heading "exhibits lists" and when add exhibit button is pressed, all values from the list box are passed into the database. Well am left wondering again if it would be possible to tie this values from the texboxes to the list box and if id be able to pass them into the database. if it were possible then id please love to know how to go about it otherwise id be glad if you can recommend a better way for me to handle the situation otherwise id have to resolve to data entry one at a time.:(... Counting on you sublime advise. thanks. I believe there is some useful information from this website that can help solve my problem but i just cant make head and tail out of the article...it seems like am almost there and it skids off...can everyone please read and help me adapt it to my situation..thanks..post below http://www.codeproject.com/KB/aspnet/ExtendedGridView.aspx

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  • Custom back button click event on pushed view controller

    - by TechFusion
    Hello, I have pushed view controller and load WebView and Custom rectangular rounded button on right down left corner into view using programmatic way. -(void)loadView { CGRect frame = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, 480, 320); WebView = [[[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:frame] autorelease]; WebView.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor]; WebView.scalesPageToFit = YES; WebView.autoresizingMask = (UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleLeftMargin | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleTopMargin); WebView.autoresizesSubviews = YES; WebView.exclusiveTouch = YES; WebView.clearsContextBeforeDrawing = YES; self.roundedButtonType = [[UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeRoundedRect] retain]; self.roundedButtonType.frame = CGRectMake(416.0, 270.0, 44, 19); [self.roundedButtonType setTitle:@"Back" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; self.roundedButtonType.backgroundColor = [UIColor grayColor]; [self.roundedButtonType addTarget:self action:@selector(back:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; self.view = WebView; [self.view addSubview: self.roundedButtonType ]; [WebView release]; } This is action that I have added as back button of navigation. -(void)back:(id)sender{ [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } -(void)viewDidUnload{ self.WebView = nil; self.roundedButtonType = nil; } -(void)dealloc{ [roundedButtonType release]; [super dealloc]; } Here, When Back button click then it is showing previous view but application got stuck in that view and GDB shows Program received signal :EXC_BAD_ACCESS message. how resolve this issue? Thanks,

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  • [Zend YouTubeAPP] failed to upgrade a token

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I was testing Zend Gdata 1.10.1 in my localhost. I downloaded Zend Gdate from this link: http://framework.zend.com/download/webservices Inside the Zend Gdata zip file, there was a folder called demos. I extracted it and used the YouTudeVideoApp to upload a sample video to Youtube. But every time after I logged into Youtube, before it redirected me to my localhost, I received a warning message like this warning message: localhost: This website is registered with Google to make authorization requests, but has not been configured to send requests securely. We recommend that you continue the process only if you trust the following destination: localhost:8080/youtube/operations.php So I googled on how to resolve the problem of getting this warning message when I saw some people suggesed changing the value of $secure to True in operation.php. Here is the script mentioned: function generateAuthSubRequestLink($nextUrl = null) { $scope = 'http://gdata.youtube.com'; $secure = true; $session = true; if (!$nextUrl) { generateUrlInformation(); $nextUrl = $_SESSION['operationsUrl']; } $url = Zend_Gdata_AuthSub::getAuthSubTokenUri($nextUrl, $scope, $secure, $session); echo '<a href="' . $url . '"><strong>Click here to authenticate with YouTube</strong></a>'; } After I altered the value of $secure to True, I found that the warning message changed to this: localhost: Registered, secure. This website is registered with Google to make authorization requests The new warning message is somehow shorter and looks better than the previous warning message. But once I pressed the Allow Access button, it turned out to be this: ERROR - Token upgrade for CI3M6_Q3EOGkxoL-___wEYjffToQQ failed : Token upgrade failed. Reason: Invalid AuthSub header. Error 401 ERROR - Unknown search type - '' I don't know why this happened. Could you help me solve the problem please?

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  • Can't get correct package from Nexus? error in "mvn help:effective-settings"

    - by larry cai
    I use nexus opensource version maven 2.2.1 When I type "mvn help:effective-settings", i got the error below [INFO] Scanning for projects... [INFO] Searching repository for plugin with prefix: 'help'. [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [ERROR] BUILD ERROR [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Error building POM (may not be this project's POM). Project ID: org.apache.maven.plugins:maven-help-plugin Reason: Error getting POM for 'org.apache.maven.plugins:maven-help-plugin' from the repository: Failed to resolve artifact, possibly due to a repository list that is not appropriately equipped for this artifact's metadata. org.apache.maven.plugins:maven-help-plugin:pom:2.2-SNAPSHOT from the specified remote repositories: Nexus (http://192.168.56.191:8081/nexus/content/groups/public) for project org.apache.maven.plugins:maven-help-plugin When I check the local repository under ~.m2\repository\org\apache\maven\plugins\maven-help-plugin It has a file maven-metadata-central.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <metadata> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-help-plugin</artifactId> <versioning> <latest>2.2-SNAPSHOT</latest> <release>2.1.1</release> <versions> <version>2.0</version> <version>2.0.1</version> <version>2.0.2</version> <version>2.1</version> <version>2.1.1</version> <version>2.2-SNAPSHOT</version> </versions> <lastUpdated>20100519065440</lastUpdated> </versioning> </metadata> And I can't find any jar files under directory, what's wrong with nexus server ? I can't easily find support information from nexus. Any hints

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  • Paramaterising SQL in SSIS

    - by Anonymouslemming
    Hi all, I'm trying to paramaterize some queries in SSIS. After some reading, it sounds like my best option is to create one variable that contains my base sql, another that contains my criteria and a final variable that is evaluated as an expression that includes both of these. I want to end up with an SQL query that is effectively UPDATE mytable set something='bar' where something_else='foo' So my first two variables have the scope of my package and are as follows: Name: BaseSQL Data Type: String Value: UPDATE mytable set something = 'bar' where something_else = Name: MyVariable Data Type: String Value: foo My third variable has a scope of the data flow task where I want to use this SQL and is as follows: Name: SQLQuery Data Type: String Value: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" EvaluateAsExpression: True In the OLE DB Source, I then choose my connection and 'SQL command from variable' and select User::SQLQuery from the dropdown box. The Variable Value window then displays the following: @[User::BaseSQL] + "'" + @[User::MyVariable] + "'" This is as desired, and would provide the output I want from my DB. The variable name dropdown also contains User::BaseSQL and User::MyVariable so I believe that my namespaces are correct. However, when I then click preview, I get the following error when configuring an OLE DB Source (using SQL command from variable): TITLE: Microsoft Visual Studio Error at Set runtime in DB [Set runtime in myDb DB [1]]: SSIS Error Code DTS_E_OLEDBERROR. An OLE DB error has occurred. Error code: 0x80040E14. An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Statement(s) could not be prepared.". An OLE DB record is available. Source: "Microsoft SQL Server Native Client 10.0" Hresult: 0x80040E14 Description: "Must declare the scalar variable "@".". (Microsoft Visual Studio) Can anyone advise what I'm missing or how I can resolve this please ? Thanks in advance!

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  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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