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• Record/Playback with AudioQueue on iPhone

  - by Biranchi

  Hi, I am currently using Audio Queues on the iPhone to record and playback audio. What I would like to be able to do is to record some audio, allow the user to pause the record queue, and to seek back and forward through the audio to select a position from where they can start recording from again. I have got over the seeking issue by making the playback AudioQueueBuffer sizes small enough so that the play audio queue callback happens at a rate that allows the user to use a slider control to hear the audio as they adjust the slider back and forth. I think I can achieve the recording at a new position by setting the inStartingPacket parameter of the AudioFileWritePackets function that I call from the Audio Recording Queue callback. The trouble is this only inserts audio over the previously recorded audio. The file length obviously doesn't change so if the user were to go backwards and record less audio than before, the old audio still remains after the end of the newly recorded audio. Is there a way I can get the AudioFile to truncate at the point the user starts to insert the new audio, is there some other way I can remove the old audio starting at the insert position or is there a better way about going about this task? Thanks

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• How can i inject servletcontext in spring

  - by M.R.

  I need to write a junit test for a rather complex application which runs in a tomcat. I wrote a class which builds up my spring context. private static ApplicationContext springContext = null; springContext = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext( new String[] {"beans"....}); In the application there is a call: public class myClass implements ServletContextAware { .... final String folder = servletContext.getRealPath("/example"); ... } which breaks everything, because the ServletContext is null. I have started to build a mock object: static ServletConfig servletConfigMock = createMock(ServletConfig.class); static ServletContext servletContextMock = createMock(ServletContext.class); @BeforeClass public static void setUpBeforeClass() throws Exception { expect(servletConfigMock.getServletContext()).andReturn(servletContextMock).anyTimes(); expect(servletContextMock.getRealPath("/example")).andReturn("...fulllpath").anyTimes(); replay(servletConfigMock); replay(servletContextMock); } Is there a simple methode to inject the ServletContext or to start the tomcat with a deployment descriptor at the runtime of the junit test? I am using: spring, maven, tomcat 6 and easymock for the mock objects.

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• Picasa access in android: PicasaUploadActivity

  - by Glyptodon

  I am new to Android, and I'm struggling to figure out exactly what tools are available to me. I am developing for android 2.0.1 for now, just because that is what my device runs. Specifically, I am writing an app that I would like to upload images to a picasa album. I am almost sure this is supported; for example, the built in (google?) photo viewer has a 'share' button with a picasa option, and even a small bit of sample code, including the snippet [borrowed code! apologies if this is against the rules..] temp.setComponent(new ComponentName ("com.google.android.apps.uploader", "com.google.android.apps.uploader.picasa.PicasaUploadActivity")); startActivityForResult(temp, PICASA_INTENT) which looks like exactly what I want. But I can find no documentation anywhere. I am in fact quite unclear how to use this type of resource. From within eclipse, do I need to include another project, com.google.android.apps.uploader? If so, how do I get it? How do I include it? Is there any working sample code provided for me to peer at?

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• .NET EventHandlers - Generic or no?

  - by Chris Marasti-Georg

  Every time I start in deep in a C# project, I end up with lots of events that really just need to pass a single item. I stick with the EventHandler/EventArgs practice, but what I like to do is have something like: public delegate void EventHandler<T>(object src, EventArgs<T> args); public class EventArgs<T>: EventArgs { private T item; public EventArgs(T item) { this.item = item; } public T Item { get { return item; } } } Later, I can have my public event EventHandler<Foo> FooChanged; public event EventHandler<Bar> BarChanged; However, it seems that the standard for .NET is to create a new delegate and EventArgs subclass for each type of event. Is there something wrong with my generic approach? EDIT: The reason for this post is that I just re-created this in a new project, and wanted to make sure it was ok. Actually, I was re-creating it as I posted. I found that there is a generic EventHandler<TEventArgs, so you don't need to create the generic delegate, but you still need the generic EventArgs<T class, because TEventArgs: EventArgs. Another EDIT: One downside (to me) of the built-in solution is the extra verbosity: public event EventHandler<EventArgs<Foo>> FooChanged; vs. public event EventHandler<Foo> FooChanged; It can be a pain for clients to register for your events though, because the System namespace is imported by default, so they have to manually seek out your namespace, even with a fancy tool like Resharper... Anyone have any ideas pertaining to that?

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• JPA ManyToMany referencing issue

  - by dharga

  I have three tables. AvailableOptions and PlanTypeRef with a ManyToMany association table called AvailOptionPlanTypeAssoc. The trimmed down schemas look like this CREATE TABLE [dbo].[AvailableOptions]( [SourceApplication] [char](8) NOT NULL, [OptionId] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, ... ) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[AvailOptionPlanTypeAssoc]( [SourceApplication] [char](8) NOT NULL, [OptionId] [int] NOT NULL, [PlanTypeCd] [char](2) NOT NULL, ) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[PlanTypeRef]( [PlanTypeCd] [char](2) NOT NULL, [PlanTypeDesc] [varchar](32) NOT NULL, ) And the Java code looks like this. //AvailableOption.java @ManyToMany(cascade={CascadeType.ALL}, fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable( name = "AvailOptionPlanTypeAssoc", joinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "OptionId"), @JoinColumn(name="SourceApplication")}, inverseJoinColumns=@JoinColumn(name="PlanTypeCd")) List<PlanType> planTypes = new ArrayList<PlanType>(); //PlanType.java @ManyToMany @JoinTable( name = "AvailOptionPlanTypeAssoc", joinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "PlanTypeCd")}, inverseJoinColumns={@JoinColumn(name="OptionId"), @JoinColumn(name="SourceApplication")}) List<AvailableOption> options = new ArrayList<AvailableOption>(); The problem arises when making a select on AvailableOptions it joins back onto itself. Note the following SQL code from the backtrace. The second inner join should be on PlanTypeRef. SELECT t0.OptionId, t0.SourceApplication, t2.PlanTypeCd, t2.EffectiveDate, t2.PlanTypeDesc, t2.SysLstTrxDtm, t2.SysLstUpdtUserId, t2.TermDate FROM dbo.AvailableOptions t0 INNER JOIN dbo.AvailOptionPlanTypeAssoc t1 ON t0.OptionId = t1.OptionId AND t0.SourceApplication = t1.SourceApplication INNER JOIN dbo.AvailableOptions t2 ON t1.PlanTypeCd = t2.PlanTypeCd WHERE (t0.SourceApplication = ? AND t0.OptionType = ?) ORDER BY t0.OptionId ASC, t0.SourceApplication ASC [params=(String) testApp, (String) junit0]}

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• IE9 selectAllChildren on an out-of-view element

  - by MrSlayer

  I am trying to replicate a service that is provided by Tynt.com that appends some text to a user's selection when copying. I understand that users don't particularly like this, but it is a client's request to append the URL and copyright notice whenever a user copies something from their website. In current browsers, I am able to do this by creating a DOM element, adding the selected text, appending the copyright text and then selecting the new node: var newSelection = document.createElement( 'div' ); newSelection.style.cssText = "height: 1px; width: 1px; overflow: hidden;"; if( window.getSelection ) { var selection = window.getSelection( ); if( selection.getRangeAt ) { var range = selection.getRangeAt( 0 ); newSelection.appendChild( range.cloneContents( ) ); appendCopyright( ); document.body.appendChild( newSelection ); selection.selectAllChildren( newSelection ); // ... remove element, return selection } } In IE9, this errors out on the selection.selectAllChildren( newSelection ) statement and I was able to figure out that this is because newSelection was effectively "hidden" from the viewport due to the styles applied in the second line above. Commenting that out works, but obviously the new node is shown to the end user. It appears that this was resolved in later versions of IE, but I am having trouble coming up with a workaround that is sufficient for IE9, a browser that I need to support. I've tried a variety of alternatives, like setting visibility: hidden;, positioning it off-screen, and trying some alternative selection functions, but they each present different problems. The error thrown by IE is: SCRIPT16389: Unspecified error.

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• acts_as_solr isn't updating associated models in Rails

  - by Trey Bean

  I'm using acts_as_solr for searching in a project. Unfortunately, the index doesn't seem to be updated for the associated models when a model is saved. Example: I have three models: class Merchant < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_solr :fields => [:name, :domain, :description], :include => [:coupons, :tags] ... end class Coupon < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_solr :fields => [:store_name, :url, :code, :description] ... end class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_solr :fields => [:name] ... end I use the following line to perform a search: Merchant.paginate_by_solr(params[:q], :per_page => PER_PAGE, :page => [(params[:page] || 1).to_i, 1].max) For some reason though, after I add a coupon that contains the word 'shoes' in the description, a query for 'shoes' doesn't return the merchant associated with the coupon. The association all work and if I run rake solr:reindex, the search then returns the new coupon. Do I need to update the index for Merchant each time a new coupon is created? Do I have to update the index for the whole class or can I just update the associated merchant? Shouldn't this be done automatically? Thanks for any input.

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• Detecting duplicate values in a column of a Datatable while traversing through It

  - by Ashish Gupta

  I have a Datatable with Id(guid) and Name(string) columns. I traverse through the data table and run a validation criteria on the Name (say, It should contain only letters and numbers) and then adding the corresponding Id to a List If name passes the validation. Something like below:- List<Guid> validIds=new List<Guid>(); foreach(DataRow row in DataTable1.Rows) { if(IsValid(row["Name"]) { validIds.Add((Guid)row["Id"]); } } In addition to this validation I should also check If the name is not repeating in the whole datatable (even for the case-sensitiveness), If It is repeating, I should not add the corresponding Id in the List. Things I am thinking/have thought about:- 1) I can have another List, check for the "Name" in the same, If It exists, will add the corresponding Guild 2) I cannot use HashSet as that would treat "Test" and "test" as different strings and not duplicates. 3) Take the DataTable to another one where I have the disctict names (this I havent tried and the code might be incorrect, please correct me whereever possible) DataTable dataTableWithDistinctName = new DataTable(); dataTableWithDistinctName.CaseSensitive=true CopiedDataTable=DataTable1.DefaultView.ToTable(true,"Name"); I would loop through the original datatable and check the existence of the "Name" in the CopiedDataTable, If It exists, I wont add the Id to the List. Are there any better and optimum way to achieve the same? I need to always think of performance. Although there are many related questions in SO, I didnt find a problem similar to this. If you could point me to a question similar to this, It would be helpful. Thanks

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• What's are the best readings to start using WPF instead of WinForms?

  - by Ivan

  Keeping in mind what CannibalSmith once said - "All the answers are saying "WPF is different". That's a huge understatement. You not only have to learn lots of new stuff - you must forget everything you've learned from Forms. It's a completely new way of doing UI." .. and having many years of experience with visual Windows desktop applications development (VB6, Borland C++ Builder VCL, WinForms) (which is hard to forget), how do I quickly move to developing to say well-formed WPF applications with Visual Studio? I don't need boozy-woozy graphics to give my app look and feel of a Hollywood blockbuster or a million dollar pyjamas. I always loved tidiness of standard Windows common controls and UI design guidelines, end even more I enjoyed them under Vista Glass Aero Graphite sauce. I am perfectly satisfied with WinForms but I want to my applications to be built of the most efficient and up-to-date standard technologies and architectured according to the most efficient and flexible patterns of today and tomorrow, leveraging interface-based integration and functionality reuse and to take all advantages of modern hardware and APIs to maximize performance, usability, reliability, maintainability, extensibility, etc. I very much like the idea of separating view, logic and data, letting a view to take all advantages of the platform (may it run as a web browser applet on a thin client or as a desktop application on a PC with a latest GPU), letting logic be reused, parallelized and seamlessly evolve, storing data in a well structured format in a right place. But... while moving from VB6 to Borland C++ Builder was very easy (no books/tutorials needed to turn it on and start working) (assuming I already knew C++), moving from BCB to WinForms was the same seamless, it does not seem any obvious to me how to do with WPF. So how do I best convert myself from a WinForms developer into a right-way thinking and doing WPF developer?

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• Can I trigger PHP garbage collection to happen automatically if I have circular references?

  - by Beau Simensen

  I seem to recall a way to setup the __destruct for a class in such a way that it would ensure that circular references would be cleaned up as soon as the outside object falls out of scope. However, the simple test I built seems to indicate that this is not behaving as I had expected/hoped. Is there a way to setup my classes in such a way that PHP would clean them up correctly when the outermost object falls out of scope? I am not looking for alternate ways to write this code, I am looking for whether or not this can be done, and if so, how? I generally try to avoid these types of circular references where possible. class Bar { private $foo; public function __construct($foo) { $this->foo = $foo; } public function __destruct() { print "[destroying bar]\n"; unset($this->foo); } } class Foo { private $bar; public function __construct() { $this->bar = new Bar($this); } public function __destruct() { print "[destroying foo]\n"; unset($this->bar); } } function testGarbageCollection() { $foo = new Foo(); } for ( $i = 0; $i < 25; $i++ ) { echo memory_get_usage() . "\n"; testGarbageCollection(); } The output looks like this: 60440 61504 62036 62564 63092 63620 [ destroying foo ] [ destroying bar ] [ destroying foo ] [ destroying bar ] [ destroying foo ] [ destroying bar ] [ destroying foo ] [ destroying bar ] [ destroying foo ] [ destroying bar ] What I had hoped for: 60440 [ destorying foo ] [ destorying bar ] 60440 [ destorying foo ] [ destorying bar ] 60440 [ destorying foo ] [ destorying bar ] 60440 [ destorying foo ] [ destorying bar ] 60440 [ destorying foo ] [ destorying bar ] 60440 [ destorying foo ] [ destorying bar ]

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• Recursively adding threads to a Java thread pool

  - by Leith

  I am working on a tutorial for my Java concurrency course. The objective is to use thread pools to compute prime numbers in parallel. The design is based on the Sieve of Eratosthenes. It has an array of n bools, where n is the largest integer you are checking, and each element in the array represents one integer. True is prime, false is non prime, and the array is initially all true. A thread pool is used with a fixed number of threads (we are supposed to experiment with the number of threads in the pool and observe the performance). A thread is given a integer multiple to process. The thread then finds the first true element in the array that is not a multiple of thread's integer. The thread then creates a new thread on the thread pool which is given the found number. After a new thread is formed, the existing thread then continues to set all multiples of it's integer in the array to false. The main program thread starts the first thread with the integer '2', and then waits for all spawned threads to finish. It then spits out the prime numbers and the time taken to compute. The issue I have is that the more threads there are in the thread pool, the slower it takes with 1 thread being the fastest. It should be getting faster not slower! All the stuff on the internet about Java thread pools create n worker threads the main thread then wait for all threads to finish. The method I use is recursive as a worker can spawn more worker threads. I would like to know what is going wrong, and if Java thread pools can be used recursively.

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• IoC and dataContext disposing in asp.net mvc 2 application

  - by zerkms

  I have the Global.asax like the code below: public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { // .... } protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(typeof(IOCControllerFactory)); } } public class IOCControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private readonly IKernel kernel; public IOCControllerFactory() { kernel = new StandardKernel(new NanocrmContainer()); } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (controllerType == null) return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); var controller = kernel.TryGet(controllerType) as IController; if (controller == null) return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); var standartController = controller as Controller; if (standartController is IIoCController) ((IIoCController)standartController).SetIoc(kernel); return standartController; } class NanocrmContainer : Ninject.Modules.NinjectModule { public override void Load() { // ... Bind<DomainModel.Entities.db>().ToSelf().InRequestScope().WithConstructorArgument("connection", "Data Source=lims;Initial Catalog=nanocrm;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=***;Password=***"); } } } In this case if somewhere it is the class, defined like: public class UserRepository : IUserRepository { private db dataContext; private IUserGroupRepository userGroupRepository; public UserRepository(db dataContext, IUserGroupRepository userGroupRepository) { this.dataContext = dataContext; this.userGroupRepository = userGroupRepository; } } then the dataContext instance is created (if no one was created in this request scope) by Ninject. So the trouble now is - where to invoke dataContext method .Dispose()?

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• Having trouble with extension methods for byte arrays

  - by Dave

  I'm working with a device that sends back an image, and when I request an image, there is some undocumented information that comes before the image data. I was only able to realize this by looking through the binary data and identifying the image header information inside. I've been able to make everything work fine by writing a method that takes a byte[] and returns another byte[] with all of this preamble "stuff" removed. However, what I really want is an extension method so I can write image_buffer.RemoveUpToByteArray(new byte[] { 0x42, 0x4D }); instead of byte[] new_buffer = RemoveUpToByteArray( image_buffer, new byte[] { 0x42, 0x4D }); I first tried to write it like everywhere else I've seen online: public static class MyExtensionMethods { public static void RemoveUpToByteArray(this byte[] buffer, byte[] header) { ... } } but then I get an error complaining that there isn't an extension method where the first parameter is a System.Array. Weird, everyone else seems to do it this way, but okay: public static class MyExtensionMethods { public static void RemoveUpToByteArray(this Array buffer, byte[] header) { ... } } Great, that takes now, but still doesn't compile. It doesn't compile because Array is an abstract class and my existing code that gets called after calling RemoveUpToByteArray used to work on byte arrays. I could rewrite my subsequent code to work with Array, but I am curious -- what am I doing wrong that prevents me from just using byte[] as the first parameter in my extension method?

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• How do I add dynamic htmlAttributes to htmlhelper ActionLinks?

  - by camainc

  In my master page I have a top-level menu that is created using ActionLinks: <ul id="topNav"> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Home", "Index", "Home")%></li> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("News", "Index", "News")%></li> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Projects", "Index", "Projects")%></li> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("About", "About", "Home")%></li> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Contact", "Contact", "Home")%></li> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Photos", "Photos", "Photos")%></li> </ul> I want to dynamically add a class named "current" to the link that the site is currently pointing to. So, for example, when the site is sitting at the home page, the menu link would render like this: <li><a class="current" href="/">Home</a></li> Do I have to overload the ActionLink method to do this, or create an entirely new HtmlHelper, or is there a better way? I'm fairly new to MVC, so I'm not sure what is the correct way to go about this. Thanks in advance.

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• XMLBeans - xsi:type stripped using Axis2 and Tomcat?

  - by Matthew Gamble

  I’m new to XMLBeans and have been trying to use it to create an XML document as part of an axis2 web service. When I run my code as a standard Java application or as a standard servlet, the XML is correctly generated: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <c:BroadsoftDocument protocol="OCI" xmlns:c="C"> <sessionId>000000001</sessionId> <command xsi:type="AuthenticationRequest" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <userId>admin</userId></command> </c:BroadsoftDocument> However, when the exact same code is run under Axis2 & Tomcat in a servlet I get: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <c:BroadsoftDocument protocol="OCI" xmlns:c="C"> <sessionId>000000001</sessionId> <command> <userId>admin</userId></command> </c:BroadsoftDocument> This of course isn’t valid – the xsi:type of the “command” element is stripped when the code is run under Tomcat. Does anyone have any suggestions of what I could be doing wrong that would cause this type of issue only when running under Axis2? At first I thought it was a Tomcat issue, but after creating a generic servlet and running the exact same code I don't have any issues. I've tried playing with the XMLOptions for XMLBeans, but couldn't seem to resolve the problem. The options I'm currently using are: xmlOptions = new XmlOptions(); xmlOptions.setCharacterEncoding("UTF-8"); xmlOptions.setUseDefaultNamespace(); xmlOptions.setSaveAggressiveNamespaces(); xmlOptions.setSavePrettyPrint();

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• C# COM objects with VB6/asp error

  - by Ken

  I'm trying to expose a C# class library via COM so that I can use it in a classic asp web site. I've used sn - k, regasm and gacutil. About all I can do now though is echo back strings. Methods which take Class variables as input are not working for me. ie my test method EchoPerson(Person p) which returns a string of the first and last name doesn't work. I get a runtime error 5 - Invalid procedure call or argument. Please let me know what I am missing. Also I have no intellisence in VB. What do I need to do to get the intellisence working. Below is my C# test code namespace MrdcToFastCom { public class Person : MrdcToFastCom.IPerson { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } } public class ComTester : MrdcToFastCom.IComTester { public string EchoString(string s) { return ("Echo: " + s); } public string Hello() { return "Hello"; } public string EchoPerson(ref Person p) { return string.Format("{0} {1}", p.FirstName, p.LastName); } } } and VB6 call Private Sub btnClickMe_Click() Dim ct Set ct = New MrdcToFastCom.ComTester Dim p Set p = New MrdcToFastCom.Person p.FirstName = "Joe" p.LastName = "Test" Dim s s = ct.EchoPerson(p) 'Error on this line tbx1.Text = s End Sub

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• Entity Framework lazy loading doesn't work from other thread

  - by Thomas Levesque

  Hi, I just found out that lazy loading in Entity Framework only works from the thread that created the ObjectContext. To illustrate the problem, I did a simple test, with a simple model containing just 2 entities : Person and Address. Here's the code : private static void TestSingleThread() { using (var context = new TestDBContext()) { foreach (var p in context.Person) { Console.WriteLine("{0} lives in {1}.", p.Name, p.Address.City); } } } private static void TestMultiThread() { using (var context = new TestDBContext()) { foreach (var p in context.Person) { Person p2 = p; // to avoid capturing the loop variable ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem( arg => { Console.WriteLine("{0} lives in {1}.", p2.Name, p2.Address.City); }); } } } The TestSingleThread method works fine, the Address property is lazily loaded. But in TestMultiThread, I get a NullReferenceException on p2.Address.City, because p2.Address is null. It that a bug ? Is this the way it's supposed to work ? If so, is there any documentation mentioning it ? I couldn't find anything on the subject on MSDN or Google... And more importantly, is there a workaround ? (other than explicitly calling LoadProperty from the worker thread...) Any help would be very appreciated PS: I'm using VS2010, so it's EF 4.0. I don't know if it was the same in the previous version of EF...

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• How to use Castle Windsor with ASP.Net web forms?

  - by Xian

  I am trying to wire up dependency injection with Windsor to standard asp.net web forms. I think I have achieved this using a HttpModule and a CustomAttribute (code shown below), although the solution seems a little clunky and was wondering if there is a better supported solution out of the box with Windsor? There are several files all shown together here // index.aspx.cs public partial class IndexPage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Logger.Write("page loading"); } [Inject] public ILogger Logger { get; set; } } // WindsorHttpModule.cs public class WindsorHttpModule : IHttpModule { private HttpApplication _application; private IoCProvider _iocProvider; public void Init(HttpApplication context) { _application = context; _iocProvider = context as IoCProvider; if(_iocProvider == null) { throw new InvalidOperationException("Application must implement IoCProvider"); } _application.PreRequestHandlerExecute += InitiateWindsor; } private void InitiateWindsor(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { Page currentPage = _application.Context.CurrentHandler as Page; if(currentPage != null) { InjectPropertiesOn(currentPage); currentPage.InitComplete += delegate { InjectUserControls(currentPage); }; } } private void InjectUserControls(Control parent) { if(parent.Controls != null) { foreach (Control control in parent.Controls) { if(control is UserControl) { InjectPropertiesOn(control); } InjectUserControls(control); } } } private void InjectPropertiesOn(object currentPage) { PropertyInfo[] properties = currentPage.GetType().GetProperties(); foreach(PropertyInfo property in properties) { object[] attributes = property.GetCustomAttributes(typeof (InjectAttribute), false); if(attributes != null && attributes.Length > 0) { object valueToInject = _iocProvider.Container.Resolve(property.PropertyType); property.SetValue(currentPage, valueToInject, null); } } } } // Global.asax.cs public class Global : System.Web.HttpApplication, IoCProvider { private IWindsorContainer _container; public override void Init() { base.Init(); InitializeIoC(); } private void InitializeIoC() { _container = new WindsorContainer(); _container.AddComponent<ILogger, Logger>(); } public IWindsorContainer Container { get { return _container; } } } public interface IoCProvider { IWindsorContainer Container { get; } }

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• C# Win Forms Access Violation Exception

  - by Goober

  I keep getting the following error: System.AccessViolationException was unhandled Message="Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt." Source="FEDivaNET" StackTrace: at Diva.Handles.FEDivaObject.dropReference() at Diva.Handles.FEDivaObject.!FEDivaObject() at Diva.Handles.FEDivaObject.Dispose(Boolean ) at Diva.Handles.FEDivaObject.Finalize() InnerException: Any ideas what the issue could be? - I'm using a library that is written in C++ and isn't designed for multithreading, yet I'm hammering it about 3000 times with requests every 6 minutes. CODE delegate void SetTextCallback(string mxID, string text); public void UpdateLog(string mxID, string text) { //lock (thisLock) //{ if (listBoxProcessLog.InvokeRequired) { SetTextCallback d = new SetTextCallback(UpdateLog); this.BeginInvoke(d, new object[] { mxID, text }); } else { //Get a reference to the datatable assigned as the datasource. //DataTable logDT = (DataTable)listBoxProcessLog.DataSource; //logDT.Rows.Add(DateTime.Now + " - " + mxID + ": " + text); if (text.Contains("COMPLETE") || (text.Contains("FAILED"))) { if (progressBar1.Value <= progressBar1.MaxValue) { progressBar1.Value += 1; } } } //} } Baring in mind that even when the Lock and the DataTable weren't commented out, the error still occurred!

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• SqlBulkCopy causes Deadlock on SQL Server 2000.

  - by megatoast

  I have a customized data import executable in .NET 3.5 which the SqlBulkCopy to basically do faster inserts on large amounts of data. The app basically takes an input file, massages the data and bulk uploads it into a SQL Server 2000. It was written by a consultant who was building it with a SQL 2008 database environment. Would that env difference be causing this? SQL 2000 does have the bcp utility which is what BulkCopy is based on. So, When we ran this, it triggered a Deadlock error. Error details: Transaction (Process ID 58) was deadlocked on lock resources with another process and has been chosen as the deadlock victim. Rerun the transaction. I've tried numerous ways to try to resolve it. like temporarily setting the connection string variable MultipleActiveResultSets=true, which wasn't ideal, but it still gives a Deadlock error. I also made sure it wasn't a connection time out problem. here's the function. Any advice? /// <summary> /// Bulks the insert. /// </summary> public void BulkInsert(string destinationTableName, DataTable dataTable) { SqlBulkCopy bulkCopy; if (this.Transaction != null) { bulkCopy = new SqlBulkCopy ( this.Connection, SqlBulkCopyOptions.TableLock, this.Transaction ); } else { bulkCopy = new SqlBulkCopy ( this.Connection.ConnectionString, SqlBulkCopyOptions.TableLock | SqlBulkCopyOptions.UseInternalTransaction ); } bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("FeeScheduleID", "FeeScheduleID"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("ProcedureID", "ProcedureID"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("AltCode", "AltCode"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("AltDescription", "AltDescription"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("Fee", "Fee"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("Discount", "Discount"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("Comment", "Comment"); bulkCopy.ColumnMappings.Add("Description", "Description"); bulkCopy.BatchSize = dataTable.Rows.Count; bulkCopy.DestinationTableName = destinationTableName; bulkCopy.WriteToServer(dataTable); bulkCopy = null; }

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• android bindservice

  - by mnish

  hi, I get null pointer exception at line mService.start() when i try to bind to an already started service. I do the same thing from different activity(where the service gets started) everythig goes right. All these activities are part of one application. What do you think I do wrong? public class RouteOnMap extends MapActivity{ private static final int NEW_LOCATION = 1; private static final int GPS_OFF = 2; private MapView mMapView; private ILocService mService; private boolean mServiceStarted; private boolean mBound; private Intent mServiceIntent; private double mLatitude, mLongitude; private ServiceConnection connection = new ServiceConnection() { public void onServiceConnected(ComponentName className, IBinder iservice) { mService = ILocService.Stub.asInterface(iservice); mBound = true; } public void onServiceDisconnected(ComponentName className) { mService = null; mBound = false; } }; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState){ super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.mapview); mMapView = (MapView) findViewById(R.id.mapview); mMapView.setBuiltInZoomControls(true); mServiceIntent = new Intent(); mLatitude = 0.0; mLongitude = 0.0; mBound = false; } @Override public void onStart(){ super.onStart(); mServiceIntent.setClass(this, LocationService.class); //startService(mServiceIntent); if(!mBound){ mBound = true; this.bindService(mServiceIntent, connection, Context.BIND_AUTO_CREATE); } } @Override public void onResume(){ super.onResume(); try { mService.start(); } catch (RemoteException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } @Override public void onPause(){ super.onPause(); if(mBound){ this.unbindService(connection); } } @Override protected boolean isRouteDisplayed() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } }

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• WPF Combobox Updates list but not the selected item

  - by JoshReedSchramm

  I have a combo box on a WPF form. On this form the user selects a record from the combo box which populates the rest of the fields on the form so the user can update that record. When they click save I am re-retrieving the combo box source which updates the combo box list. The problem is the selected item keeps the original label even though the data behind it is different. When you expand the combo box the selected item shows the right label. I am using a command binding mechanism. Here is some of the relevant code. private void SaveSalesRep() { BindFromView(); if (_salesRep.Id == 0) SalesRepRepository.AddAndSave(_salesRep); else SalesRepRepository.DataContext.SaveChanges(); int originalId = _salesRep.Id; InitSalesRepDropDown(); SalesRepSelItem = ((List<SalesRep>) SalesRepItems.SourceCollection).Find(x => x.Id == originalId); } private void InitSalesRepDropDown() { var salesRepRepository = IoC.GetRepository<ISalesRepRepository>(); IEnumerable<SalesRep> salesReps = salesRepRepository.GetAll(); _salesRepItems = new CollectionView(salesReps); NotifyPropertyChanged("SalesRepItems"); SalesRepSelItem = SalesRepItems.GetItemAt(0) as SalesRep; } The Selected Item property on the combo box is bound to SalesRepSelItem Property and the ItemsSource is bound to SalesRepItems which is backed by _salesRepItems. THe SalesRepSelItem property called NotifyPropertyChanges("SalesRepSelItem") which raises a PropertyChanged event. All told the binding of new items seems to work and the list updates, but the label on the selected item doesnt. Any ideas? Thanks all.

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• Flash movies in inactive browser tabs pause or don't execute in real time

  - by ZenBlender

  I'm noticing some unexpected behavior. Some time in the last few months, a change in either Firefox, the Flash player, or both, has made it so that Flash movies that are in inactive browser tabs no longer execute in real time. They appear to still execute, but only in bursts, and not in a predictable way. This is a problem because I develop a Flash-based (Actionscript 2.0, Flash CS3) multiplayer game that maintains a network connection and allows players to chat, etc. Many of our players complain about Firefox crashing while playing the game. I have noticed it too, not too frequently, but it crashes several times a week. (Firefox crashes, I do not get a message from Flash player that indicates an infinite loop or problem in my code) My theory is that this new behavior is causing crashes when there is a lot of activity in my game, leading to lots of unhandled network traffic for my game getting buffered before Firefox/Flash will give it a chance to execute. Maybe this leads to a buffer overflow or missing packets, and as a result, something crashes. At times I will switch back to the tab that is running my game and discover a display bug, which looks as though Flash has simply failed to execute something that it was supposed to. I would assume this new behavior is on purpose, for example to prevent all the Flash-based advertisements in inactive tabs from executing and therefore killing performance. In a quick test on Chrome (5.0.342.9 beta), this "pausing" of Flash seems to be there as well, but somehow it seems much less of a problem. My users have only complained about Firefox crashing, not other browsers. My machine: Windows 7 x64 Firefox 3.6.3 Flash Player 10.1.50.426 My game: triplejack.com Any ideas? Ideally I'd like to disable this behavior for my Flash game so it can execute in real time even when in an inactive tab. Thanks for any help!

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• javascript class calling XMLHttpRequest internally, then handling onreadystatechange

  - by Radu M

  this thing almost works: function myClass(url) { this.source = url; this.rq = null; this.someOtherProperty = "hello"; // open connection to the ajax server this.start = function() { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { this.rq = new XMLHttpRequest(); if (this.rq.overrideMimeType) this.rq.overrideMimeType("text/xml"); } else this.rq = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); try { this.rq.onreadystatechange = connectionEvent; this.rq.open("GET", this.source, true); this.rq.send(null); this.state = 1; } catch (err) { // some error handler here } } function connectionEvent() { alert("i'm here"); alert("this doesnt work: " + this.someOtherProperty); } } // myClass so it's nothing more than having the XMLHttpRequest object as a member of my class, instead of globally defined, and invoking it in the traditional way. however, inside my connectionEvent callback function, the meaning of "this" is lost, even though the function itself is scoped inside myClass. i also made sure that the object that i instantiate from myClass is kept alive long enough (declared global in the script). in all the examples of using javascript classes that i saw, "this" was still available inside the inner functions. for me, it is not, even if i take my function outside and make it a myClass.prototype.connectionEvent. what am i doing wrong? thank you.

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• How can I capture Rake output when invoked from with a Ruby script?

  - by Adrian O'Connor

  I am writing a web-based dev-console for Rails development. In one of my controller actions, I am calling Rake, but I am unable to capture any of the output that Rake generates. For example, here is some sample code, from the controller: require 'rake' require 'rake/rdoctask' require 'rake/testtask' require 'tasks/rails' require 'stringio' ... def show_routes @results = capture_stdout { Rake.tasks['routes'].invoke } # @results is nil -- the capture_stdout doesn't catpure anything that Rake generates end def capture_stdout s = StringIO.new $stdout = s yield s.string ensure $stdout = STDOUT end Does anybody know why I can't capture the Rake output? I've tried going through the Rake source, and I can't see where it fires a new process or anything, so I think I ought to be able to do this. Many thanks! Adrian I have since discovered the correct way to call Rake from inside Ruby that works much better: Rake.application['db:migrate:redo'].reenable Rake.application['db:migrate:redo'].invoke Strangely, some rake tasks work perfectly now (routes), some capture the output the first time the run and after that are always blank (db:migrate:redo) and some don't seem to ever capture output (test). Odd.

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