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  • Jquery gradient behavior applies to all but first URL

    - by Dustin
    I've got a page that shows my photography portfolio. I'm trying to do a jquery gradient on the text, and it's working on all but the first link. Here's the html: <h1><a href="portfolio/engagements"><span></span>engagements</a> | </h1><br> <h1><a href="portfolio/weddings"><span></span>weddings</a> | </h1> <br> <h1><a href="portfolio/bridals"><span></span>bridals</a> | </h1> <br> <h1><a href="portfolio/families"><span></span>families</a> | </h1> <br> <h1><a href="portfolio/seniors"><span></span>seniors</a> </h1> <br> And here's the jquery call: $(".jquery h1").prepend("<span></span>"); And here's the css for it: .gradient4 span { background: url(images/gradient-dark.png) repeat-x; position: absolute; bottom: -0.1em; display: inline; width: 100%; height: 29px; } The problem I'm having is that all urls but the first link (currently 'engagements'), have the gradient effect. Any ideas why the first link isn't working?

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  • URL path changes between dev and published version

    - by Bob Horn
    I just got Scott Hanselman's chat app with SignalR working with ASP.NET MVC 4. After hours of configuration, trial and error, and getting different versions of Windows to talk to each other on my home network, it's all working except that I'm left with one issue that I'm not sure how to handle. This line of javascript has to change, depending on if I'm running the app through Visual Studio or the published (IIS) version: Works when running within VS: var connection = $.connection('echo'); Works with published version: var connection = $.connection('ChatWithSignalR/echo'); When I run within VS, the URL is: http://localhost:9145/ And the published version is: http://localhost/ChatWithSignalR If I don't change that line of code, and try to run the app within VS, using the javascript that has ChatWithSignalR in it, I get an error like this: Failed to load resource: the server responded with a status of 404 (Not Found) http://localhost:9145/ChatWithSignalR/echo/negotiate?_=1347809290826 What can I do so that I can use the same javascript code and have it work in both scenarios? var connection = $.connection('??????'); Note, this is in my Global.asax.cs: RouteTable.Routes.MapConnection<MyConnection>("echo", "echo/{*operation}");

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  • .NET CF 2.0: Stream implements IDisposable ... kind of?

    - by mvanbem
    I've run into something odd in a .NET CF 2.0 project for Pocket PC 2003 (Visual Studio 2005). I was dealing with a System.IO.Stream object and found that the IDE wouldn't auto-complete the Dispose() method. I typed it in manually and received: 'System.IO.Stream.Dispose(bool)' is inaccessible due to its protection level The error is referring to the protected Dispose(bool) method. Dispose() is either private or not present. Question 1: How is this possible? Stream implements IDisposable: public abstract class Stream : MarshalByRefObject, IDisposable ... and IDisposable requires a Dispose() method: public interface IDisposable { void Dispose(); } I know the compiler won't let me get away with that in my code. Question 2: Will I cause problems by working around and disposing my streams directly? IDisposable idisp = someStream; idisp.Dispose(); The implicit cast is accepted by the compiler.

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  • Server Unable to Capture the POST Data sent from another server by Redirecting the URL

    - by user1749092
    Recently i started working on the Payment Gateway( further spelled as 'PG') process for my site. And for the process we have to send the Post data by form to PG server by redirecting to there page and by response from the PG about the Transaction they are sending POST data by redirecting the URL to our server page, the problem arises here, as my server unable to retrieve the POST Data sent from PG server. As i am coding in PHP, i tried to print all the response coming from PG by print_r($_POST); and even tried with print_r($_REQUEST);. I didn't found any data printing except the PHPSESSID and some other data array. As for the confirmation I checked wether they sending the Data or not by the IE addon as "TamperIE" where it is showing the all the POST Data sending from there server. But it is not at all coming to our server. And I tried this process on some other Server, there i able to get the POST response but not with currently working server. So please can you suggest me what might be the problem. Thanks!

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  • Adding an integer at the end of an input's name to get a specific url

    - by Gadgetster
    I am trying to get a url where I can retrieve the selected values from. For example, if I put a check mark on a and b then sumbit, I will get: index.php?category=1&&category=2 I want to get this instead: index.php?category0=1&&category1=2 So that I can later get this specific value with $_GET['category0'] Is there a way to add a counter for the selected checkboxes and add 0,1,2,3.. at the end of the name of its input? <form action="" method="get"> <!-- this will be a php loop instead of hardcored which will retrieve data from the db --> <label><input type="checkbox" name="category" value="1">a</label> <label><input type="checkbox" name="category" value="2">b</label> <label><input type="checkbox" name="category" value="3">c</label> <label><input type="checkbox" name="category" value="4">d</label> <label><input type="checkbox" name="category" value="5">e</label> <input type="submit"> </form>

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  • Apache mod_rewrite : How to REWRITE (or whatever) child directories to parent?

    - by ????
    Actually i am trying to make a PHP MVC like application. A basic one. The current milestone i am reaching already includes: Basic RESTful Routing Means, if i type: www.example.com/items/book/8888 .. it properly just stays there as it is and i can already slice out the URL by slashes / and loads the responsible Controllers .... etc from the top single index.php file. I mean, so it is OK for the backend PHP. But the only problem is, it still CAN NOT process the REWRITES properly. For example, the CSS & JS are BROKEN as if i VIEW PAGE SOURCE of the page www.example.com/items/book/8888, the asset files are being called as: www.example.com/items/book/8888/css/main.css www.example.com/items/book/8888/js/jquery.js .. which really are PROBLEMS because in the code is like: <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" media="all" href="css/main.css"> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.js"></script> So the question is: How can i use Apache REWRITE (or whatever approach) to make sure every ASSET FILES to be correctly being called from the DOCROOT. For example, if i am in the URL: www.example.com/items/book/8888 My ASSET FILES should still be called as: www.example.com/css/main.css www.example.com/js/jquery.js Or is there any other methods i need to follow? Please kindly help suggest. Thank you.

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  • Set-Cookie Headers getting stripped in ASP.NET HttpHandlers

    - by Rick Strahl
    Yikes, I ran into a real bummer of an edge case yesterday in one of my older low level handler implementations (for West Wind Web Connection in this case). Basically this handler is a connector for a backend Web framework that creates self contained HTTP output. An ASP.NET Handler captures the full output, and then shoves the result down the ASP.NET Response object pipeline writing out the content into the Response.OutputStream and seperately sending the HttpHeaders in the Response.Headers collection. The headers turned out to be the problem and specifically Http Cookies, which for some reason ended up getting stripped out in some scenarios. My handler works like this: Basically the HTTP response from the backend app would return a full set of HTTP headers plus the content. The ASP.NET handler would read the headers one at a time and then dump them out via Response.AppendHeader(). But I found that in some situations Set-Cookie headers sent along were simply stripped inside of the Http Handler. After a bunch of back and forth with some folks from Microsoft (thanks Damien and Levi!) I managed to pin this down to a very narrow edge scenario. It's easiest to demonstrate the problem with a simple example HttpHandler implementation. The following simulates the very much simplified output generation process that fails in my handler. Specifically I have a couple of headers including a Set-Cookie header and some output that gets written into the Response object.using System.Web; namespace wwThreads { public class Handler : IHttpHandler { /* NOTE: * * Run as a web.config set handler (see entry below) * * Best way is to look at the HTTP Headers in Fiddler * or Chrome/FireBug/IE tools and look for the * WWHTREADSID cookie in the outgoing Response headers * ( If the cookie is not there you see the problem! ) */ public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { HttpRequest request = context.Request; HttpResponse response = context.Response; // If ClearHeaders is used Set-Cookie header gets removed! // if commented header is sent... response.ClearHeaders(); response.ClearContent(); // Demonstrate that other headers make it response.AppendHeader("RequestId", "asdasdasd"); // This cookie gets removed when ClearHeaders above is called // When ClearHEaders is omitted above the cookie renders response.AppendHeader("Set-Cookie", "WWTHREADSID=ThisIsThEValue; path=/"); // *** This always works, even when explicit // Set-Cookie above fails and ClearHeaders is called //response.Cookies.Add(new HttpCookie("WWTHREADSID", "ThisIsTheValue")); response.Write(@"Output was created.<hr/> Check output with Fiddler or HTTP Proxy to see whether cookie was sent."); } public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } } } In order to see the problem behavior this code has to be inside of an HttpHandler, and specifically in a handler defined in web.config with: <add name=".ck_handler" path="handler.ck" verb="*" type="wwThreads.Handler" preCondition="integratedMode" /> Note: Oddly enough this problem manifests only when configured through web.config, not in an ASHX handler, nor if you paste that same code into an ASPX page or MVC controller. What's the problem exactly? The code above simulates the more complex code in my live handler that picks up the HTTP response from the backend application and then peels out the headers and sends them one at a time via Response.AppendHeader. One of the headers in my app can be one or more Set-Cookie. I found that the Set-Cookie headers were not making it into the Response headers output. Here's the Chrome Http Inspector trace: Notice, no Set-Cookie header in the Response headers! Now, running the very same request after removing the call to Response.ClearHeaders() command, the cookie header shows up just fine: As you might expect it took a while to track this down. At first I thought my backend was not sending the headers but after closer checks I found that indeed the headers were set in the backend HTTP response, and they were indeed getting set via Response.AppendHeader() in the handler code. Yet, no cookie in the output. In the simulated example the problem is this line:response.AppendHeader("Set-Cookie", "WWTHREADSID=ThisIsThEValue; path=/"); which in my live code is more dynamic ( ie. AppendHeader(token[0],token[1[]) )as it parses through the headers. Bizzaro Land: Response.ClearHeaders() causes Cookie to get stripped Now, here is where it really gets bizarre: The problem occurs only if: Response.ClearHeaders() was called before headers are added It only occurs in Http Handlers declared in web.config Clearly this is an edge of an edge case but of course - knowing my relationship with Mr. Murphy - I ended up running smack into this problem. So in the code above if you remove the call to ClearHeaders(), the cookie gets set!  Add it back in and the cookie is not there. If I run the above code in an ASHX handler it works. If I paste the same code (with a Response.End()) into an ASPX page, or MVC controller it all works. Only in the HttpHandler configured through Web.config does it fail! Cue the Twilight Zone Music. Workarounds As is often the case the fix for this once you know the problem is not too difficult. The difficulty lies in tracking inconsistencies like this down. Luckily there are a few simple workarounds for the Cookie issue. Don't use AppendHeader for Cookies The easiest and obvious solution to this problem is simply not use Response.AppendHeader() to set Cookies. Duh! Under normal circumstances in application level code there's rarely a reason to write out a cookie like this:response.AppendHeader("Set-Cookie", "WWTHREADSID=ThisIsThEValue; path=/"); but rather create the cookie using the Response.Cookies collection:response.Cookies.Add(new HttpCookie("WWTHREADSID", "ThisIsTheValue")); Unfortunately, in my case where I dynamically read headers from the original output and then dynamically  write header key value pairs back  programmatically into the Response.Headers collection, I actually don't look at each header specifically so in my case the cookie is just another header. My first thought was to simply trap for the Set-Cookie header and then parse out the cookie and create a Cookie object instead. But given that cookies can have a lot of different options this is not exactly trivial, plus I don't really want to fuck around with cookie values which can be notoriously brittle. Don't use Response.ClearHeaders() The real mystery in all this is why calling Response.ClearHeaders() prevents a cookie value later written with Response.AppendHeader() to fail. I fired up Reflector and took a quick look at System.Web and HttpResponse.ClearHeaders. There's all sorts of resetting going on but nothing that seems to indicate that headers should be removed later on in the request. The code in ClearHeaders() does access the HttpWorkerRequest, which is the low level interface directly into IIS, and so I suspect it's actually IIS that's stripping the headers and not ASP.NET, but it's hard to know. Somebody from Microsoft and the IIS team would have to comment on that. In my application it's probably safe to simply skip ClearHeaders() in my handler. The ClearHeaders/ClearContent was mainly for safety but after reviewing my code there really should never be a reason that headers would be set prior to this method firing. However, if for whatever reason headers do need to be cleared, it's easy enough to manually clear the headers out:private void RemoveHeaders(HttpResponse response) { List<string> headers = new List<string>(); foreach (string header in response.Headers) { headers.Add(header); } foreach (string header in headers) { response.Headers.Remove(header); } response.Cookies.Clear(); } Now I can replace the call the Response.ClearHeaders() and I don't get the funky side-effects from Response.ClearHeaders(). Summary I realize this is a total edge case as this occurs only in HttpHandlers that are manually configured. It looks like you'll never run into this in any of the higher level ASP.NET frameworks or even in ASHX handlers - only web.config defined handlers - which is really, really odd. After all those frameworks use the same underlying ASP.NET architecture. Hopefully somebody from Microsoft has an idea what crazy dependency was triggered here to make this fail. IAC, there are workarounds to this should you run into it, although I bet when you do run into it, it'll likely take a bit of time to find the problem or even this post in a search because it's not easily to correlate the problem to the solution. It's quite possible that more than cookies are affected by this behavior. Searching for a solution I read a few other accounts where headers like Referer were mysteriously disappearing, and it's possible that something similar is happening in those cases. Again, extreme edge case, but I'm writing this up here as documentation for myself and possibly some others that might have run into this. © Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2012Posted in ASP.NET   IIS7   Tweet !function(d,s,id){var js,fjs=d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0];if(!d.getElementById(id)){js=d.createElement(s);js.id=id;js.src="//platform.twitter.com/widgets.js";fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js,fjs);}}(document,"script","twitter-wjs"); (function() { var po = document.createElement('script'); po.type = 'text/javascript'; po.async = true; po.src = 'https://apis.google.com/js/plusone.js'; var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(po, s); })();

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  • getting autodiscover URL from Exchange email address

    - by Anthony
    I'm starting with an address for an Exchange 2007 server: [email protected] And I attempted to send an autodiscover request, as documented at MSDN. I attempted to use the generic autodiscover address documented at the TechNet White Paper. So, using curl on PHP, I sent the following request: <Autodiscover xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/exchange/autodiscover/outlook/requestschema/2006"> <Request> <EMailAddress>[email protected]</EMailAddress> <AcceptableResponseSchema> http://schemas.microsoft.com/exchange/autodiscover/outlook/responseschema/2006a </AcceptableResponseSchema> </Request> </Autodiscover> to the following URL: https://domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml But got no response, just an eventual timeout. I also tried: https://autodiscover.domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml With the same result. Now, since my larger goal is to use Autodiscover with Exchange Web Services, and since all of the EWS URLs start with the same sub-domain as the Outlook Web Access address, I thought I'd give that a try: OWA: https://wmail.domain.exchangeserver.org So I tried: https://wmail.domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml And sure enough, I got back the expected response. However, I only knew the OWA sub-domain because it's the server I have access to and that I'm using to test everything. I would not know it for sure or be able to guess it if this were a live app and the user was entering in their own Exchange email. I know that whatever generic autodiscover settings must be turned on, because I can enter: [email protected] into Apple Mail on Snow Leopard and it finds everything without trouble. So the question is... Should https://domain.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml have worked, and I just missed a step when trying to connect to it? Or, Is there some trick (maybe involving pinging the email address?) that Apple Mail and other clients use to resolve the address to the OWA subdomain before sending the autodiscover request? Thanks to anyone who knows or can take a wild guess.

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  • imagick showing script url instead of image

    - by Raz
    Hi, currently i'm trying to use imagick to generate some images without saving them on the server and then outputting to the browser, my method of choice was image magic with the imagick extension for php. I read the documentation, and i'm sure the package is installed on my machine (windows xp, with xampp). the class is installed imagick module enabled imagick module version 2.0.0-alpha imagick classes Imagick, ImagickDraw, ImagickPixel, ImagickPixelIterator ImageMagick version ImageMagick 6.3.3 04/21/07 Q16 http://www.imagemagick.org ImageMagick release date 04/21/07 ImageMagick Number of supported formats: 164 ImageMagick Supported formats A, ART, AVI, AVS, B, BIE, BMP, BMP2, BMP3, C, CACHE, CAPTION, CIN, CIP, CLIP, CLIPBOARD, CMYK, CMYKA, CUR, CUT, DCM, DCX, DFONT, DPS, DPX, EMF, EPDF, EPI, EPS, EPS2, EPS3, EPSF, EPSI, EPT, EPT2, EPT3, FAX, FITS, FRACTAL, FTS, G, G3, GIF, GIF87, GRADIENT, GRAY, HISTOGRAM, HTM, HTML, ICB, ICO, ICON, INFO, JBG, JBIG, JNG, JP2, JPC, JPEG, JPG, JPX, K, LABEL, M, M2V, MAP, MAT, MATTE, MIFF, MNG, MONO, MPC, MPEG, MPG, MSL, MSVG, MTV, MVG, NULL, O, OTB, OTF, PAL, PALM, PAM, PATTERN, PBM, PCD, PCDS, PCL, PCT, PCX, PDB, PDF, PFA, PFB, PGM, PGX, PICON, PICT, PIX, PJPEG, PLASMA, PNG, PNG24, PNG32, PNG8, PNM, PPM, PREVIEW, PS, PS2, PS3, PSD, PTIF, PWP, R, RAS, RGB, RGBA, RGBO, RLA, RLE, SCR, SCT, SFW, SGI, SHTML, STEGANO, SUN, SVG, SVGZ, TEXT, TGA, THUMBNAIL, TIFF, TILE, TIM, TTC, TTF, TXT, UIL, UYVY, VDA, VICAR, VID, VIFF, VST, WBMP, WMF, WMFWIN32, WMZ, WPG, X, XBM, XC, XCF, XPM, XV, XWD, Y, YCbCr, YCbCrA, YUV this is from the phpinfo so i know i have it installed, the thing is when i try to generate an image and save it, it works flawlessly, but when i try to output the image directly, i get the script url as an image $draw = new ImagickDraw(); $draw->setFont('AnkeCalligraph.TTF'); $draw->setFontSize(52); $draw->annotation(110, 110, "Hello World!"); $draw->annotation(50, 220, "Hello World!"); $canvas = new Imagick('./pictures/test_live.PNG'); $canvas->drawImage($draw); $canvas->setImageFormat('png'); header("Content-Type: image/png"); echo $canvas; this is the code used. if i use writeimage, then the file on the server is created with no problems. does anyone have any ideas what i'm doing wrong ?

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  • Rewrite Url with apache2

    - by dhalsim
    Hi, I'm experimenting with CodeIgniter PHP framework, this framework works like: http://localhost:7777/~dhalsim/ci/index.php/blog So, I tried to remove index.php part from there. So far I do these: make $config['index_page'] = "index.php"; to $config['index_page'] = ""; make $config['uri_protocol'] = "REQUEST_URI"; from $config['uri_protocol'] = "AUTO"; enable apache mod_rewrite by "a2enmod rewrite" put a .htaccess file to /ci directory: RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^system.* RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php/$1 [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?/$1 [L] And of course restart apache server Here is my apache logs with these configurations: 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (3) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] strip per-dir prefix: /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/blog -> blog 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (3) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] applying pattern '^(.*)$' to uri 'blog' 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (4) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] RewriteCond: input='/~dhalsim/ci/blog' pattern='^system.*' => not-matched 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (3) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] strip per-dir prefix: /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/blog -> blog 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (3) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] applying pattern '^(.*)$' to uri 'blog' 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (4) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] RewriteCond: input='/home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/blog' pattern='!-f' => matched 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (4) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] RewriteCond: input='/home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/blog' pattern='!-d' => matched 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (2) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] rewrite 'blog' -> 'index.php?/blog' 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (3) split uri=index.php?/blog -> uri=index.php, args=/blog 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (3) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] add per-dir prefix: index.php -> /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/index.php 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (2) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] trying to replace prefix /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/ with / 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (5) strip matching prefix: /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/index.php -> index.php 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (4) add subst prefix: index.php -> /index.php 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Jul/2009:02:21:41 +0300] [localhost/sid#7f48e8ad2968][rid#7f48e8e634c8/initial] (1) [perdir /home/dhalsim/public_html/ci/] internal redirect with /index.php [INTERNAL REDIRECT] Here is the result in Firefox: 404 Not Found: The requested URL /index.php was not found on this server. So, what should I do (or where am I wrong) to get work these URLs? http://localhost:7777/~dhalsim/ci/blog/ instead of http://localhost:7777/~dhalsim/ci/index.php/blog/

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 and 4.0 seem to treat the root url differently in Forms Authentication

    - by Kev
    If have the following web.config: <configuration> <system.web> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="MembershipCookie" loginUrl="Login.aspx" protection="All" timeout="525600" slidingExpiration="true" enableCrossAppRedirects="true" path="/" /> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> <location path="Default.aspx"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> </configuration> The application is an ASP.NET 2.0 application running on Windows 2008R2/IIS7.5. If the site's application pool is configured to run ASP.NET 2.0 and I browse to http://example.com then Default.aspx is rendered as you'd expect from the rules above. However if the application pool is set to run ASP.NET 4.0 I am redirected to the login page. If I explicitly specify http://example.com/default.aspx then all is good and default.aspx renders. I've tried rewriting / -> /default.aspx (using IIS UrlRewriter 2.0) but the result is still the same, I get kicked to the login page. I've also tried this with an ASP.NET 4.0 application with the same result (which is where the problem initially arose). The reason I tried this with a 2.0 application was to see if there was a change in behaviour, and it seems that / is handled differently in 4.0. So to summarise, using the configuration above the following is observed: ASP.NET Version Url Behaviour ------------------------------------------------------------------------- 2.0 http://example.com Renders Default.aspx 2.0 http://example.com/Default.aspx Renders Default.aspx 4.0 http://example.com Redirects to Login.aspx 4.0 http://example.com/Default.aspx Renders Default.aspx Is this a bug/breaking change or have I missed something glaringly obvious?

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  • .htaccess mod_rewrite URL query

    - by 1001001
    I was hoping someone could help me out. I'm building a CRM application and need help modifying the .htaccess file to clean up the URLs. I've read every post regarding .htaccess and mod_rewrite and I've even tried using http://www.generateit.net/mod-rewrite/ to obtain the results with no success. Here is what I am attempting to do. Let's call the base URL www.domain.com We are using php with a mysql back-end and some jQuery and javascript In that "root" folder is my .htaccess file. I'm not sure if I need a .htaccess file in each subdirectory or if one in the root is enough. We have several actual directories of files including "crm", "sales", "finance", etc. First off we want to strip off all the ".php" extensions which I am able to do myself thanks to these posts. However, the querying of the company and contact IDs are where I am stuck. Right now if I load www.domain.com/crm/companies.php it displays all the companies in a list. If I click on one of the companies it uses javascript to call a "goto_company(x)" jQuery script that writes a form and submit that form based on the ID (x) of the company. This works fine and keeps the links clean as all the end user sees is www.domain.com/crm/company.php. However you can't navigate directly to a company. So we added a few lines in PHP to see if the POST is null and try a GET instead allowing us to do www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 which displays company #40 out of the database. I need to rewrite this link, and all other associated links to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 I've tried everything and nothing seems to work. Keep in mind that I need to do this for "contacts" and also on the sales portion of the app will need to do something for "deals". To summarize here's what I am looking to do: Change www.domain.com/crm/dash.php to www.domain.com/crm/dash Change www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 to www.domain.com/crm/company/40 Change www.domain.com/crm/contact.php?contactID=27 to www.domain.com/crm/contact/27 Change www.domain.com/sales/dash.php to www.domain.com/sales/dash Change www.domain.com/sales/deal.php?dealID=6 to www.domain.com/sales/deal/6 (40, 27, and 6 are just arbitrary numbers as examples) Just for reference, when I used the generateit.net/mod-rewrite site using www.domain.com/crm/company.php?companyID=40 as an example, here is what it told me to put in my .htaccess file: Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^crm/company/([^/]*)$ /crm/company.php?companyID=$1 [L] Needless to say that didn't work.

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  • Creating Google sitemap.xml , is it okay for the images to be wrapped in url tags?

    - by AzizAG
    I'm using a tool to generate the sitemap.xml file for me, it started to crawl my website, got the pages and all images, but when exporting it, I review the xml(to make sure nothing is wrong) and I noticed that the images in my website are wrapped in url tags(I think it should be in image tags). See this: <url><loc>http://mywebsite.com/images/12.jpg</loc><lastmod>2012-05-23T13:39:02+00:00</lastmod><changefreq>weekly</changefreq><priority>0.50</priority></url> Shouldn't it be wrapped in image tag?(just like videos wrapped in video tag) Thanks.

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  • Best way to redirect users back to the pretty URL who land on the _escaped_fragment_ one?

    - by Ryan
    I am working on an AJAX site and have successfully implemented Google's AJAX recommendation by creating _escape_fragment_ versions of each page for it to index. Thus each page has 2 URLs: pretty: example.com#!blog ugly: example.com?_escaped_fragment_=blog However, I have noticed in my analytics that some users are arriving on the site via the "ugly" URL and am looking for a clean way to redirect them to the pretty URL without impacting Google's ability to index the site. I have considered using a 301 redirect in the head but fear that Googlebot might try to follow it and end up in an endless loop. I have also considered using a JavaScript redirect that Googlebot wouldn't execute but fear that Google may interpret this as cloaking and penalize the website. Is there a good, clean, acceptable way to redirect real users away from the ugly URL if for some reason or another they end up arriving at the site that way?

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  • Help! Requesting a change of URL on Yahoo Directory!

    - by Sei
    I submitted a couple websites on yahoo directory a month ago. For some reason, the url they listed was not the url I asked for, they listed the Japanese version instead of the submitted English version (this is a English directory so obviously it is a mistake). I requested changes and was accepted. But the reality is they promised a change but it was never really done. I contacted them again and again through the 'request a change in URL' form, but there is no answer. Is there any effective way that I can get to them? preferably a phone number or email? Thanks a lot!

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  • Asp.Net 3.5 Routing to Asmx Webservice?

    - by Maushu
    I was looking for a way to route http://www.example.com/WebService.asmx to http://www.example.com/service/ using only the ASP.NET 3.5 Routing framework without needing to configure the IIS server. Until now I have done what most tutorials told me, added a reference to the routing assembly, configured stuff in the web.config, added this to the Global.asax: protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { RouteCollection routes = RouteTable.Routes; routes.Add( "WebService", new Route("service/{*Action}", new WebServiceRouteHandler()) ); } ...created this class: public class WebServiceRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // What now? } } ...and the problem is right there, I don't know what to do. The tutorials and guides I've read use routing for pages, not webservices. Is this even possible? Ps: The route handler is working, I can visit /service/ and it throws the NotImplementedException I left in the GetHttpHandler method.

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  • In Django, what's the best way to handle optional url parameters from the template?

    - by Thierry Lam
    I have the following type of urls which are both valid: hello/ hello/1234/ My urls.py has the following: urlpatterns = patterns('hello.views', url(r'^$', 'index', name='index'), url(r'^(?P<user_id>\d+)/$', 'index', name='index'), ) In my views.py, when I pass user_id to the template, it defaults to 0 if not specified. My template looks like the following, I'm using namespace hello for my hello app: {% url hello:index user_id %} If user_id is not specified, the url defaults to hello/0/. The only way I can think of preventing the default 0 from showing in the url is by an if stmt: {% if user_id %} {% url hello:index user_id %} {% else %} {% url hello:index %} {% endif %} The above will give me hello/ if there are no user_id and hello/1234/ if it's present. Is the above solution the best way to solve this issue?

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  • ASP.NET 3.5 Routing?

    - by Maushu
    I was looking for a way to route http://www.example.com/WebService.asmx to http://www.example.com/service/ using only the ASP.NET 3.5 Routing framework without needing to configure the IIS server. Until now I have done what most tutorials told me, added a reference to the routing assembly, configured stuff in the web.config, added this to the Global.asax: protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { RouteCollection routes = RouteTable.Routes; routes.Add( "WebService", new Route("service/{*Action}", new WebServiceRouteHandler()) ); } ...created this class: public class WebServiceRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // What now? } } ...and the problem is right there, I don't know what to do. The tutorials and guides I've read use routing for pages, not webservices. Is this even possible? Ps: The route handler is working, I can visit /service/ and it throws the NotImplementedException I left in the GetHttpHandler method.

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  • Asp.Net 3.5 Routing to Webservice?

    - by Maushu
    I was looking for a way to route http://www.example.com/WebService.asmx to http://www.example.com/service/ using only the ASP.NET 3.5 Routing framework without needing to configure the IIS server. Until now I have done what most tutorials told me, added a reference to the routing assembly, configured stuff in the web.config, added this to the Global.asax: protected void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { RouteCollection routes = RouteTable.Routes; routes.Add( "WebService", new Route("service/{*Action}", new WebServiceRouteHandler()) ); } ...created this class: public class WebServiceRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // What now? } } ...and the problem is right there, I don't know what to do. The tutorials and guides I've read use routing for pages, not webservices. Is this even possible? Ps: The route handler is working, I can visit /service/ and it throws the NotImplementedException I left in the GetHttpHandler method.

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  • Detect the URI encoding automatically in Tomcat

    - by Roland Illig
    I have an instance of Apache Tomcat 6.x running, and I want it to interpret the character set of incoming URLs a little more intelligent than the default behavior. In particular, I want to achieve the following mapping: So%DFe => Soße So%C3%9Fe => Soße So%DF%C3%9F => (error) The bevavior I want could be described as "try to decode the byte stream as UTF-8, and if it doesn't work assume ISO-8859-1". Simply using the URIEncoding configuration doesn't work in that case. So how can I configure Tomcat to encode the request the way I want? I might have to write a Filter that takes the request (especially the query string) and re-encodes it into the parameters. Would that be the natural way?

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  • htaccess - Redirects with more than 1 slash not working

    - by barfoon
    Hey everyone, Just moved to shared hosting on GoDaddy and Im trying to get my .htaccess rules working. Heres what I have: ErrorDocument 404 /error.php Options FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.mydomain\.org$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://mydomain.org/$1 [R=301,L] RewriteRule ^view/(\w+)$ viewitem.php?itemid=$1 [R=301,L] RewriteRule ^category/(\w+)$ viewcategory.php?tag=$1 [R=301,L] RewriteRule ^faq$ faq.php RewriteRule ^about$ about.php RewriteRule ^contact$ contact.php RewriteRule ^submit$ submit.php RewriteRule ^contactmsg$ handler-contact.php All the pages @ the root of the domain seem to be working i.e mydomain.org/faq, mydomain.org/about are working. But whenever I try mydomain.org/category/somecategory, I get a 404. How can I fix my .htaccess to obey these rules that are more than 1 level deep? Thanks,

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  • Suggest encoding which removes slashes which I can use as the format for REST-style URL-paramteters

    - by Binary255
    Given a path to a REST style URL: http://site.com/rest/customer/foo/robot/bar/1 When you GET it, it returns a PDF to the foo-customer containing page 1 of the bar-URL. While foo is the name of the customer bar is an URL. The URL usually contains slashes and might look something like this: http://anothersite.com/interestingarticle.html As REST URL's separate arguments by slashes I can't just put it into the REST URL above. Which encoding should I use? I can't use Base 64 as it utilizes the slash as well. As a technical note I will encode the URL in a .NET-application and decode it in PHP.

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  • Concurrent connections in C# socket

    - by Chu Mai
    There are three apps run at the same time, 2 clients and 1 server. The whole system should function as following: The client sends an serialized object to server then server receives that object as a stream, finally the another client get that stream from server and deserialize it. This is the sender: TcpClient tcpClient = new TcpClient(); tcpClient.Connect("127.0.0.1", 8888); Stream stream = tcpClient.GetStream(); BinaryFormatter binaryFormatter = new BinaryFormatter(); binaryFormatter.Serialize(stream, event); // Event is the sending object tcpClient.Close(); Server code: TcpListener listener = new TcpListener(IPAddress.Parse("127.0.0.1"), 8888); listener.Start(); Console.WriteLine("Server is running at localhost port 8888 "); while (true) { Socket socket = listener.AcceptSocket(); try { Stream stream = new NetworkStream(socket); // Typically there should be something to write the stream // But I don't knwo exactly what should the stream write } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine("Exception: " + e.Message); Console.WriteLine("Disconnected: {0}", socket.RemoteEndPoint); } } The receiver: TcpClient client = new TcpClient(); // Connect the client to the localhost with port 8888 client.Connect("127.0.0.1", 8888); Stream stream = client.GetStream(); Console.WriteLine(stream); when I run only the sender and server, and check the server, server receives correctly the data. The problem is when I run the receiver, everything is just disconnected. So where is my problem ? Could anyone point me out ? Thanks

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  • Organize routes in Node.js

    - by NilColor
    Hello! I start to look at Node.js. Aslo I'm using Express. And I have a question - how can I organize web application routes? All examples just put all this app.get/post/put() handlers in app.js and it works just fine. This is good but if I have something more than simple HW Blog? Is it possible to do something like this: var app = express.createServer(); app.get( '/module-a/*', require('./module-a').urls ); app.get( '/module-b/*', require('./module-b').urls ); and // file: module-a.js urls.get('/:id', function(req, res){...}); // <- assuming this is handler for /module-a/1 In other words - I'd like something like Django's URLConf but in Node.js.

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