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  • Unable to set maxReceivedMessageSize through web.config

    - by Michael Mortensen
    Hello there, I have now investigated the 400 - BadRequest code for the last two hours. A lot of sugestions goes towards ensuring the bindingConfiguration attribute is set correctly, and in my case, it is. Now, I need YOUR help before destroying the building i am in :-) I run a WCF RestFull service (very lightweight, using this resource for inspiration: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/dd315413.aspx) which (for now) accepts an XmlElement (POX) provided through the POST verb. I am currently ONLY using Fiddler's request builder before implementing a true client (as this is mixed environments). When I do this for XML smaller than 65K, it works fine - larger, it throws this exception: The maximum message size quota for incoming messages (65536) has been exceeded. To increase the quota, use the MaxReceivedMessageSize property on the appropriate binding element. Here is my web.config file (which I even included the client-tag for (desperate times!)): <system.web> <httpRuntime maxRequestLength="1500000" executionTimeout="180"/> </system.web> <system.serviceModel> <diagnostics> <messageLogging logEntireMessage="true" logMalformedMessages="true" logMessagesAtServiceLevel="true" logMessagesAtTransportLevel="true" /> </diagnostics> <bindings> <webHttpBinding> <binding name="WebHttpBinding" maxReceivedMessageSize="1500000" maxBufferPoolSize="1500000" maxBufferSize="1500000" closeTimeout="00:03:00" openTimeout="00:03:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:03:00"> <readerQuotas maxStringContentLength="1500000" maxArrayLength="1500000" maxBytesPerRead="1500000" /> <security mode="None"/> </binding> </webHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WebHttpBinding" contract="Commerce.ICatalogue"/> </client> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="ServiceBehavior" name="Catalogue"> <endpoint address="" behaviorConfiguration="RestFull" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WebHttpBinding" contract="Commerce.ICatalogue" /> <!-- endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" / --> </service> </services> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="RestFull"> <webHttp/> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="ServiceBehavior"> <serviceDebug httpHelpPageEnabled="true" includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true"/> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> Thanks in advance for any help leading to succesfull call with 65K XML ;-)

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  • Using Joda DateTime as a Jersey parameter?

    - by HolySamosa
    I'd like to use Joda's DateTime for query parameters in Jersey, but this isn't supported by Jersey out-of-the-box. I'm assuming that implementing an InjectableProvider is the proper way to add DateTime support. Can someone point me to a good implementation of an InjectableProvider for DateTime? Or is there an alternative approach worth recommending? (I'm aware I can convert from Date or String in my code, but this seems like a lesser solution). Thanks. Solution: I modified Gili's answer below to use the @Context injection mechanism in JAX-RS rather than Guice. import com.sun.jersey.core.spi.component.ComponentContext; import com.sun.jersey.spi.inject.Injectable; import com.sun.jersey.spi.inject.PerRequestTypeInjectableProvider; import java.util.List; import javax.ws.rs.QueryParam; import javax.ws.rs.WebApplicationException; import javax.ws.rs.core.Context; import javax.ws.rs.core.Response; import javax.ws.rs.core.Response.Status; import javax.ws.rs.core.UriInfo; import javax.ws.rs.ext.Provider; import org.joda.time.DateTime; /** * Enables DateTime to be used as a QueryParam. * <p/> * @author Gili Tzabari */ @Provider public class DateTimeInjector extends PerRequestTypeInjectableProvider<QueryParam, DateTime> { private final UriInfo uriInfo; /** * Creates a new DateTimeInjector. * <p/> * @param uriInfo an instance of {@link UriInfo} */ public DateTimeInjector( @Context UriInfo uriInfo) { super(DateTime.class); this.uriInfo = uriInfo; } @Override public Injectable<DateTime> getInjectable(final ComponentContext cc, final QueryParam a) { return new Injectable<DateTime>() { @Override public DateTime getValue() { final List<String> values = uriInfo.getQueryParameters().get(a.value()); if( values == null || values.isEmpty()) return null; if (values.size() > 1) { throw new WebApplicationException(Response.status(Status.BAD_REQUEST). entity(a.value() + " may only contain a single value").build()); } return new DateTime(values.get(0)); } }; } }

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  • Removing expired certificates from LDS (new ver of ADAM)

    - by jonthebrewer
    Hi all. This is my situation: We are in the process of replacing a certificate store currently hosted on Sun's iPlanet with Microsoft's Lightweight Directory Services (new version of ADAM with Server 2008). These certificates have been imported into LDS into an application partition (say o=myorg, C=AU). Under this structure I have around 40,000 OU's each one representing a customer under each customers OU are one or more user (iNetOrg) objects (around 60,000 in all). In each user are one or more certificates in the UserCertificate attribute. A combination of in-house written application code and proprietory PKI code reads and publishes these certficates to validate financial transactions. As the LDAP path of the certificates is stored within the customer certificates (and within the application code) and there is zero appetite for changing any of the code, I have had to pick up the iPlanet directory as a whole and dump it in LDS in the same structure. (I will not be using or hosting a Microsoft CA, just implementing an LDAP compliant directory to host these certificates) We have fully tested the application using the data in LDS and everything works fine - here is my dilema and question (finally, phew!) There was no process put in place for removing revoked or expired certificates, consequently the vast majority of the data is completely useless, the system has been running for about 8 years! I have done a quick analysis and I estimate that at least 80% of the data is no longer valid. As I am taking on responsibility for managing the directory I would like to start with a clean directory. Does anyone have any idea how I can cleanup these expired certificates. I am not a highly experienced scripter but have some background in VB. I have been researching the use of CAPICOM and have a feeling this may be able to be used but in exactly what way I am not sure?? I would prefer to write a script that I could specify an expiration date (say any certs that expired prior to 2010) then run against the LDS paritition. This way I can reuse the script periodically to cleanup the directory (as mentioned above - I have no way to adjust the applications that are writing the certs, this is with a third party). Another, less attractive, alternative is to massage the LDIF file (2.7 million lines!) to rip the certs out prior to the import Any help and advice MUCH appreciated. Cheers Jon

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  • Pinning a Java application to the Windows 7 taskbar

    - by Paul Lammertsma
    Original question I use Launch4j as a wrapper for my Java application under Windows 7, which, to my understanding, in essence forks an instance of javaw.exe that in turn interprets the Java code. As a result, when attempting to pin my application to the task bar, Windows instead pins javaw.exe. Without the required command line, my application will then not run. As you can see, Windows also does not realize that Java is the host application: the application itself is described as "Java(TM) Platform SE binary". I have tried altering the registry key HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\Applications\javaw.exe to add the value IsHostApp. This alters the behavior by disabling pinning of my application altogether; clearly not what I want. After reading about how Windows interprets instances of a single application (and a phenomenon discussed in this question), I became interested in embedding a Application User Model ID (AppUserModelID) into my Java application. I believe that I can resolve this by passing a unique AppUserModelID to Windows. There is a shell32 method for this, SetAppID(). (Or SetCurrentProcessExplicitAppUserModelID?) Is it possible to call it via JNI? If so, would this even resolve the issue? On a side note, I was curious if any of the APIs discussed in this article could be implemented for a Java application. Edit after implementing JNA, as Gregory Pakosz suggested I've now implemented the following in an attempt to have my application recognized as a separate instance of javaw.exe: NativeLibrary lib; try { lib = NativeLibrary.getInstance("shell32"); } catch (Error e) { Logger.out.error("Could not load Shell32 library."); return; } Object[] args = { "Vendor.MyJavaApplication" }; String functionName = "SetCurrentProcessExplicitAppUserModelID"; try { Function function = lib.getFunction(functionName); int ret = function.invokeInt(args); if (ret != 0) { Logger.out.error(function.getName() + " returned error code " + ret + "."); } } catch (UnsatisfiedLinkError e) { Logger.out.error(functionName + " was not found in " + lib.getFile().getName() + "."); // Function not supported } This appears to have no effect, but the function returns without error. Diagnosing why is something of a mystery to me. Any suggestions? Working implementation The final implementation that worked is the answer to my follow-up question concerning how to pass the AppID using JNA. I had awarded the bounty to Gregory Pakosz' brilliant answer for JNI that set me on the right track.

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  • How can you add a UIGestureRecognizer to a UIBarButtonItem as in the common undo/redo UIPopoverContr

    - by SG
    Problem In my iPad app, I cannot attach a popover to a button bar item only after press-and-hold events. But this seems to be standard for undo/redo. How do other apps do this? Background I have an undo button (UIBarButtonSystemItemUndo) in the toolbar of my UIKit (iPad) app. When I press the undo button, it fires it's action which is undo:, and that executes correctly. However, the "standard UE convention" for undo/redo on iPad is that pressing undo executes an undo but pressing and holding the button reveals a popover controller where the user selected either "undo" or "redo" until the controller is dismissed. The normal way to attach a popover controller is with presentPopoverFromBarButtonItem:, and I can configure this easily enough. To get this to show only after press-and-hold we have to set a view to respond to "long press" gesture events as in this snippet: UILongPressGestureRecognizer *longPressOnUndoGesture = [[UILongPressGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(handleLongPressOnUndoGesture:)]; //Broken because there is no customView in a UIBarButtonSystemItemUndo item [self.undoButtonItem.customView addGestureRecognizer:longPressOnUndoGesture]; [longPressOnUndoGesture release]; With this, after a press-and-hold on the view the method handleLongPressOnUndoGesture: will get called, and within this method I will configure and display the popover for undo/redo. So far, so good. The problem with this is that there is no view to attach to. self.undoButtonItem is a UIButtonBarItem, not a view. Possible solutions 1) [The ideal] Attach the gesture recognizer to the button bar item. It is possible to attach a gesture recognizer to a view, but UIButtonBarItem is not a view. It does have a property for .customView, but that property is nil when the buttonbaritem is a standard system type (in this case it is). 2) Use another view. I could use the UIToolbar but that would require some weird hit-testing and be an all around hack, if even possible in the first place. There is no other alternative view to use that I can think of. 3) Use the customView property. Standard types like UIBarButtonSystemItemUndo have no customView (it is nil). Setting the customView will erase the standard contents which it needs to have. This would amount to re-implementing all the look and function of UIBarButtonSystemItemUndo, again if even possible to do. Question How can I attach a gesture recognizer to this "button"? More specifically, how can I implement the standard press-and-hold-to-show-redo-popover in an iPad app? Ideas? Thank you very much, especially if someone actually has this working in their app (I'm thinking of you, omni) and wants to share...

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  • Google slideshow shows a blank screen when calling from ajax

    - by ufk
    I'm having problems implementing google slideshow (http://www.google.com/uds/solutions/slideshow/index.html) to my web application by loading it using a jquery load() function. index.html: <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <div id="moshe"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#moshe').load('test.html'); }); </script> test.html: <script type="text/javascript"> function load() { var samples = "http://dlc0421.googlepages.com/gfss.rss"; var options = { displayTime: 2000, transistionTime: 600, linkTarget : google.feeds.LINK_TARGET_BLANK }; new GFslideShow(samples, "slideshow", options); } google.load("feeds", "1"); google.setOnLoadCallback(load); </script> <div id="slideshow" class="gslideshow" style="width:300px;height:300px;position:relative; border: 2px solid blue">Loading...</div> When i execute the test.html, it loads the slideshow just fine. when i try to load using index.html that actually calls Jquery's $.load() function that loads the content of test.html into a specific div element, i see that the gallery is loading on that div, but when it's about to show images the entire page clears and all i have is a blank page. Any ideas ? a different version of index.html without using jquery: <script type="text/javascript"> function makeRequest(url) { var httpRequest; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { // Mozilla, Safari, ... httpRequest = new XMLHttpRequest(); if (httpRequest.overrideMimeType) { httpRequest.overrideMimeType('text/xml'); // See note below about this line } } else if (window.ActiveXObject) { // IE try { httpRequest = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { try { httpRequest = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) {} } } if (!httpRequest) { alert('Giving up :( Cannot create an XMLHTTP instance'); return false; } httpRequest.onreadystatechange = function() { alertContents(httpRequest); }; httpRequest.open('GET', url, true); httpRequest.send(''); } function alertContents(httpRequest) { if (httpRequest.readyState == 4) { if (httpRequest.status == 200) { document.getElementById('moshe').innerHTML=httpRequest.responseText; } else { alert('There was a problem with the request.'); } } } makeRequest('test.html'); </script>

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  • 2d trajectory planning of a spaceship with physics.

    - by egarcia
    I'm implementing a 2D game with ships in space. In order to do it, I'm using LÖVE, which wraps Box2D with Lua. But I believe that my question can be answered by anyone with a greater understanding of physics than myself - so pseudo code is accepted as a response. My problem is that I don't know how to move my spaceships properly on a 2D physics-enabled world. More concretely: A ship of mass m is located at an initial position {x, y}. It has an initial velocity vector of {vx, vy} (can be {0,0}). The objective is a point in {xo,yo}. The ship has to reach the objective having a velocity of {vxo, vyo} (or near it), following the shortest trajectory. There's a function called update(dt) that is called frequently (i.e. 30 times per second). On this function, the ship can modify its position and trajectory, by applying "impulses" to itself. The magnitude of the impulses is binary: you can either apply it in a given direction, or not to apply it at all). In code, it looks like this: def Ship:update(dt) m = self:getMass() x,y = self:getPosition() vx,vy = self.getLinearVelocity() xo,yo = self:getTargetPosition() vxo,vyo = self:getTargetVelocity() thrust = self:getThrust() if(???) angle = ??? self:applyImpulse(math.sin(angle)*thrust, math.cos(angle)*thrust)) end end The first ??? is there to indicate that in some occasions (I guess) it would be better to "not to impulse" and leave the ship "drift". The second ??? part consists on how to calculate the impulse angle on a given dt. We are in space, so we can ignore things like air friction. Although it would be very nice, I'm not looking for someone to code this for me; I put the code there so my problem is clearly understood. What I need is an strategy - a way of attacking this. I know some basic physics, but I'm no expert. For example, does this problem have a name? That sort of thing. Thanks a lot.

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  • jquery hover not working in safari and chrome

    - by Nik
    I'm developing a site and I am implementing a jquery hover effect on some list items. It works perfectly in all browser except safari and chrome (mac and pc). For some reason the hover effect doesnt work on those to browsers. Here is the link link text I thought I would add the code just in case it helps (it also uses the color_library.js file that can be found in the head of the document). $(document).ready(function() { var originalBG = $("#menu li#Q_01","#menu li#Q_03","#menu li#Q_05","#menu li#Q_07","#menu li#Q_09","#menu li#Q_11","#menu li#Q_11").css("background-color"); var originalBG1 = $("#menu li").css("color"); var originalBG2 = $("#menu li#Q_02","#menu li#Q_04","#menu li#Q_06","#menu li#Q_08","#menu li#Q_10","#menu li#Q_12").css("background-color"); var fadeColor = "#009FDD"; var fadeColor1 = "#FFF"; var fadeColor2 = "#623A10"; $("#menu li#Q_01").hover( function () { $(this).animate( { backgroundColor:fadeColor2,color:fadeColor1}, 380 ) }, function () { $(this).animate( {color:"#666",backgroundColor:"#fff"}, 380 ) } ); $("#menu li#Q_03").hover( function () { $(this).animate( { backgroundColor:fadeColor2,color:fadeColor1}, 380 ) }, function () { $(this).animate( {color:"#666",backgroundColor:"#fff"}, 380 ) } ); $("#menu li#Q_05").hover( function () { $(this).animate( { backgroundColor:fadeColor2,color:fadeColor1}, 380 ) }, function () { $(this).animate( {color:"#666",backgroundColor:"#fff"}, 380 ) } ); $("#menu li#Q_07").hover( function () { $(this).animate( { backgroundColor:fadeColor2,color:fadeColor1}, 380 ) }, function () { $(this).animate( {color:"#666",backgroundColor:"#fff"}, 380 ) } ); $("#menu li#Q_09").hover( function () { $(this).animate( { backgroundColor:fadeColor2,color:fadeColor1}, 380 ) }, function () { $(this).animate( {color:"#666",backgroundColor:"#fff"}, 380 ) } ); $("#menu li#Q_11").hover( function () { $(this).animate( { backgroundColor:fadeColor2,color:fadeColor1}, 380 ) }, function () { $(this).animate( {color:"#666",backgroundColor:"#fff"}, 380 ) } ); $("#menu li#Q_13").hover( function () { $(this).animate( { backgroundColor:fadeColor2,color:fadeColor1}, 380 ) }, function () { $(this).animate( {color:"#666",backgroundColor:"#fff"}, 380 ) } ); $("#menu li#Q_02").hover( function () { $(this).animate( { backgroundColor:fadeColor,color:fadeColor1}, 380 ) }, function () { $(this).animate( {color:"#666",backgroundColor:"#fff"}, 380 ) } ); $("#menu li#Q_04").hover( function () { $(this).animate( { backgroundColor:fadeColor,color:fadeColor1}, 380 ) }, function () { $(this).animate( {color:"#666",backgroundColor:"#fff"}, 380 ) } ); $("#menu li#Q_06").hover( function () { $(this).animate( { backgroundColor:fadeColor,color:fadeColor1}, 380 ) }, function () { $(this).animate( {color:"#666",backgroundColor:"#fff"}, 380 ) } ); $("#menu li#Q_08").hover( function () { $(this).animate( { backgroundColor:fadeColor,color:fadeColor1}, 380 ) }, function () { $(this).animate( {color:"#666",backgroundColor:"#fff"}, 380 ) } ); $("#menu li#Q_10").hover( function () { $(this).animate( { backgroundColor:fadeColor,color:fadeColor1}, 380 ) }, function () { $(this).animate( {color:"#666",backgroundColor:"#fff"}, 380 ) } ); $("#menu li#Q_12").hover( function () { $(this).animate( { backgroundColor:fadeColor,color:fadeColor1}, 380 ) }, function () { $(this).animate( {color:"#666",backgroundColor:"#fff"}, 380 ) } ); }); Thanks for any advice ;)

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  • UIWebView leak? Can someone confirm?

    - by Shaggy Frog
    I was leak-testing my current project and I'm stumped. I've been browsing like crazy and tried everything except chicken sacrifice. I just created a tiny toy project app from scratch and I can duplicate the leak in there. So either UIWebView has a leak or I'm doing something really silly. Essentially, it boils down to a loadRequest: call to a UIWebView object, given an URLRequest built from an NSURL which references a file URL, for a file in the app bundle, which lives inside a folder that Xcode is including by reference. Phew. The leak is intermittent but still happens ~75% of the time (in about 20 tests it happened about 15 times). It only happens on the device -- this does not leak in the simulator. I am testing targeting both iPhone OS 3.1.2 and 3.1.3, on an original (1st Gen) iPod Touch that is using iPhone OS 3.1.3. To reproduce, just create a project from scratch. Add a UIWebView to the RootViewController's .xib, hook it up via IBOutlet. In the Finder, create a folder named "html" inside your project's folder. Inside that folder, create a file named "dummy.html" that has the word "Test" in it. (Does not need to be valid HTML.) Then add the html folder to your project in Xcode by choosing "Create Folder References for any added folders" Add the following to viewDidLoad NSString* resourcePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath]; NSString* filePath = [[resourcePath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"html"] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"dummy.html"]; NSURL* url = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath:filePath]; NSURLRequest* request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; // <-- this creates the leak! [browserView loadRequest:request]; [url release]; I've tried everything from setting delegate for the UIWebView and implementing UIWebViewDelegate, to not setting a delegate in IB, to not setting a delegate in IB and explicitly setting the web view's delegate property to nil, to using alloc/init instead of getting autoreleased NSURLRequests (and/or NSURLs)... I tried the answer to a similar question (setting the shared URL cache to empty) and that did not help. Can anyone help?

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  • Java language features which have no equivalent in C#

    - by jthg
    Having mostly worked with C#, I tend to think in terms of C# features which aren't available in Java. After working extensively with Java over the last year, I've started to discover Java features that I wish were in C#. Below is a list of the ones that I'm aware of. Can anyone think of other Java language features which a person with a C# background may not realize exists? The articles http://www.25hoursaday.com/CsharpVsJava.html and http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Comparison_of_Java_and_C_Sharp give a very extensive list of differences between Java and C#, but I wonder whether I missed anything in the (very) long articles. I can also think of one feature (covariant return type) which I didn't see mentioned in either article. Please limit answers to language or core library features which can't be effectively implemented by your own custom code or third party libraries. Covariant return type - a method can be overridden by a method which returns a more specific type. Useful when implementing an interface or extending a class and you want a method to override a base method, but return a type more specific to your class. Enums are classes - an enum is a full class in java, rather than a wrapper around a primitive like in .Net. Java allows you to define fields and methods on an enum. Anonymous inner classes - define an anonymous class which implements a method. Although most of the use cases for this in Java are covered by delegates in .Net, there are some cases in which you really need to pass multiple callbacks as a group. It would be nice to have the choice of using an anonymous inner class. Checked exceptions - I can see how this is useful in the context of common designs used with Java applications, but my experience with .Net has put me in a habit of using exceptions only for unrecoverable conditions. I.E. exceptions indicate a bug in the application and are only caught for the purpose of logging. I haven't quite come around to the idea of using exceptions for normal program flow. strictfp - Ensures strict floating point arithmetic. I'm not sure what kind of applications would find this useful. fields in interfaces - It's possible to declare fields in interfaces. I've never used this. static imports - Allows one to use the static methods of a class without qualifying it with the class name. I just realized today that this feature exists. It sounds like a nice convenience.

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  • Custom Control Not Playing Nice With PropertyGrid

    - by lumberjack4
    I have a class that is implementing a custom ToolStripItem. Everything seems to work great until I try to add the item to a ContextMenuStrip at design time. If I try to add my custom control straight from the ContextMenuStrip the PropertyGrid freezes up and will not let me modify my Checked or Text properties. But if I go into the ContextMenuStrip PropertyGrid and add my custom control through the Items(...) property, I can modify the custom control just fine within that dialog. I'm not sure if I'm missing an attribute somewhere of if its a problem with the underlying code. Here is a copy of the CustomToolStripItem class. As you can see, its a very simple class. [ToolStripItemDesignerAvailability(ToolStripItemDesignerAvailability.ContextMenuStrip)] public class CustomToolStripItem : ToolStripControlHost { #region Public Properties [Description("Gets or sets a value indicating whether the object is in the checked state")] [ReadOnly(false)] public bool Checked { get { return checkBox.Checked; } set { checkBox.Checked = value; } } [Description("Gets or sets the object's text")] [ReadOnly(false)] public override string Text { get { return checkBox.Text; } set { checkBox.Text = value; } } #endregion Public Properties #region Public Events public event EventHandler CheckedChanged; #endregion Public Events #region Constructors public CustomToolStripItem() : base(new FlowLayoutPanel()) { // Setup the FlowLayoutPanel. controlPanel = (FlowLayoutPanel)base.Control; controlPanel.BackColor = Color.Transparent; // Add the child controls. checkBox.AutoSize = true; controlPanel.Controls.Add(checkBox); ContextMenuStrip strip = new ContextMenuStrip(); } #endregion Constructors #region Protected Methods protected override void OnSubscribeControlEvents(Control control) { base.OnSubscribeControlEvents(control); checkBox.CheckedChanged += new EventHandler(CheckChanged); } protected override void OnUnsubscribeControlEvents(Control control) { base.OnUnsubscribeControlEvents(control); checkBox.CheckedChanged -= new EventHandler(CheckChanged); } #endregion Protected Methods #region Private Methods private void CheckChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Throw the CustomToolStripItem's CheckedChanged event EventHandler handler = CheckedChanged; if (handler != null) { handler(sender, e); } } #endregion Private Methods #region Private Fields private FlowLayoutPanel controlPanel; private CheckBox checkBox = new CheckBox(); #endregion Private Fields }

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  • z-index issues with jQuery Tabs, Superfish Menu

    - by NightMICU
    Hi all, For the life of me I cannot get my Superfish menu to stop hiding behind my jQuery UI tabs in IE 7. I have read the documentation out there, have tried changing z-index values and tried the bgIframe plugin, although I am not sure if I am implementing it correctly (left out in my example below, using Supersubs). Here is the Javascript I am using for Superfish - using the Supersubs plugin: $(document).ready(function() { $("ul.sf-menu").supersubs({ minWidth: 12, // minimum width of sub-menus in em units maxWidth: 27, // maximum width of sub-menus in em units extraWidth: 1 // extra width can ensure lines don't sometimes turn over // due to slight rounding differences and font-family }).superfish({ delay: 1000, // one second delay on mouseout animation: {opacity:'show',height:'show'}, // fade-in and slide-down animation speed: 'medium' // faster animation speed }); }); And here is the structure of my page: <div id="page-container"> <div id="header"></div> <div id="nav-admin"> <!-- This is where Superfish goes --> </div> <div id="header-shadow"></div> <div id="content"> <div id="admin-main"> <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="#tabs-1">Tab 1</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-2">Tab 2</a></li> </ul> <div id="tabs-1"> <!-- Content for Tab 1 --> </div> <div id="tabs-2"> <!-- Content for Tab 2 --> </div> </div> </div> </div> <div id="footer-shadow"></div> <div id="footer"> <div id="alt-nav"> <?php include $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . '/includes/altnav.inc.php'; //CHANGE WHEN UPLOADED TO MATCH DOCUMENT ROOT ?> </div> </div> </div>

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  • Filtering a collection based on filtering rules

    - by Mike
    I have an observable collection of Entities, with each entity having a status added, deleted, modified and cancelled. I have four buttons (toggle) when clicked should filter my collection as below: If I select the button Added, then my collection should contain entities with status added. If I select the button Deleted and Added, then my collection should contain entities with status Deleted AND entities with status Added, none of the rest. If I select the button Deleted,Added and Modified, then my collection should contain entities with status Deleted, Added AND Modified. . . so on. If I unselect one of the buttons, it should remove those entities from the collection with that status. For example if I unselect Deleted, but select Added and Modified, then my collection should contain items with Added and Modified status and NOT Deleted ones. For implementing this I have created a master collection and a filtered collection. The Filter collection gets filtered based on the selections and unselections. The following is my code: private bool _clickedAdded; public bool ClickedAdded { get { return _clickedAdded; } set { _clickedAdded = value; if(!_clickedAdded) FilterAny(typeof(Added)); } } private bool _clickedDeleted; public bool ClickedDeleted { get { return _clickedDeleted; } set { _clickedDeleted = value; if (!_clickedDeleted) FilterAny(typeof(Deleted)); } } private bool _clickedModified; public bool ClickedModified { get { return _clickedModified; } set { _clickedModified = value; if (!_clickedModified) FilterAny(typeof(Modified)); } } private void FilterAny(Type status) { Func<Entity, bool> predicate = entity => entity.Status.GetType() != status; var filteredItems = MasterEntites.Where(predicate); FilteredEntities = new ObservableCollection<Entity>(filteredItems); } This however breaks the above rules - for example if I have all selected, and then I remove Added followed by deleted then it still shows the list of Added, Modified and Cancelled. It should be just Modified and Cancelled in the filtered collection. Can you please help me in solving this issue? Also do I need 2 different list to solve this. Please note that I'm using .NET 3.5.

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  • Implement looped movement animation with tap to cancel

    - by Nader
    Hi All; My app is based around a grid and an image that moves within a grid that is contained within a scrollview. I have an imageview that I am animating from one cell to another in time with a slow finger movement and recentering the scrollview. That is rather straight forward. I have also implement the ability to detect a swipe and therefore move the image all the way to the end of the grid and the uiscrollview recentering. I have even implemented the ability to detect a subsequent tap and freeze the swiped movement. The issue with the swipe movement is that the UIScrollView will scroll all the way to the end before the Image reaches the end and so I have to wait for the image to arrive. Also, when I freeze the movement of the image, I have to re-align the image to a cell (which I can do). I have come to the realization that I have to animate the image one cell at a time for swipes and recentering the uiscrollview before moving the image to the next cell. I have attempted to implement this but I cannot come up with a solution that works or works properly. Can anyone suggest how I go about implementing this? Even if you are able to put up code from a different example or sudo code, it would help a lot as I cannot workout how this should be done, should I be using selectors, a listener in delegates, I just simply lack the experience to solve this design pattern. Here is some code: Note that the sprite is an UIImageView - (void)animateViewToPosition:(SpriteView *)sprite Position:(CGPoint)pos Duration:(CFTimeInterval)duration{ CGMutablePathRef traversePath = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(traversePath, NULL, sprite.center.x, sprite.center.y); CGPathAddLineToPoint(traversePath, NULL, pos.x, pos.y); CAKeyframeAnimation *traverseAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:kAnimatePosition]; traverseAnimation.duration = duration; traverseAnimation.removedOnCompletion = YES; traverseAnimation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionLinear]; traverseAnimation.delegate = sprite; traverseAnimation.path = traversePath; CGPathRelease(traversePath); [sprite.layer addAnimation:traverseAnimation forKey:kAnimatePosition]; sprite.center = pos;

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  • Implement looped movement animation with tap to cancel

    - by Nader
    Hi All; My app is based around a grid and an image that moves within a grid that is contained within a scrollview. I have an imageview that I am animating from one cell to another in time with a slow finger movement and recentering the scrollview. That is rather straight forward. I have also implement the ability to detect a swipe and therefore move the image all the way to the end of the grid and the uiscrollview recentering. I have even implemented the ability to detect a subsequent tap and freeze the swiped movement. The issue with the swipe movement is that the UIScrollView will scroll all the way to the end before the Image reaches the end and so I have to wait for the image to arrive. Also, when I freeze the movement of the image, I have to re-align the image to a cell (which I can do). I have come to the realization that I have to animate the image one cell at a time for swipes and recentering the uiscrollview before moving the image to the next cell. I have attempted to implement this but I cannot come up with a solution that works or works properly. Can anyone suggest how I go about implementing this? Even if you are able to put up code from a different example or sudo code, it would help a lot as I cannot workout how this should be done, should I be using selectors, a listener in delegates, I just simply lack the experience to solve this design pattern. Here is some code: Note that the sprite is an UIImageView - (void)animateViewToPosition:(SpriteView *)sprite Position:(CGPoint)pos Duration:(CFTimeInterval)duration{ CGMutablePathRef traversePath = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(traversePath, NULL, sprite.center.x, sprite.center.y); CGPathAddLineToPoint(traversePath, NULL, pos.x, pos.y); CAKeyframeAnimation *traverseAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:kAnimatePosition]; traverseAnimation.duration = duration; traverseAnimation.removedOnCompletion = YES; traverseAnimation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionLinear]; traverseAnimation.delegate = sprite; traverseAnimation.path = traversePath; CGPathRelease(traversePath); [sprite.layer addAnimation:traverseAnimation forKey:kAnimatePosition]; sprite.center = pos; }

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  • Overriding LINQ extension methods

    - by Ruben Vermeersch
    Is there a way to override extension methods (provide a better implementation), without explicitly having to cast to them? I'm implementing a data type that is able to handle certain operations more efficiently than the default extension methods, but I'd like to keep the generality of IEnumerable. That way any IEnumerable can be passed, but when my class is passed in, it should be more efficient. As a toy example, consider the following: // Compile: dmcs -out:test.exe test.cs using System; namespace Test { public interface IBoat { void Float (); } public class NiceBoat : IBoat { public void Float () { Console.WriteLine ("NiceBoat floating!"); } } public class NicerBoat : IBoat { public void Float () { Console.WriteLine ("NicerBoat floating!"); } public void BlowHorn () { Console.WriteLine ("NicerBoat: TOOOOOT!"); } } public static class BoatExtensions { public static void BlowHorn (this IBoat boat) { Console.WriteLine ("Patched on horn for {0}: TWEET", boat.GetType().Name); } } public class TestApp { static void Main (string [] args) { IBoat niceboat = new NiceBoat (); IBoat nicerboat = new NicerBoat (); Console.WriteLine ("## Both should float:"); niceboat.Float (); nicerboat.Float (); // Output: // NiceBoat floating! // NicerBoat floating! Console.WriteLine (); Console.WriteLine ("## One has an awesome horn:"); niceboat.BlowHorn (); nicerboat.BlowHorn (); // Output: // Patched on horn for NiceBoat: TWEET // Patched on horn for NicerBoat: TWEET Console.WriteLine (); Console.WriteLine ("## That didn't work, but it does when we cast:"); (niceboat as NiceBoat).BlowHorn (); (nicerboat as NicerBoat).BlowHorn (); // Output: // Patched on horn for NiceBoat: TWEET // NicerBoat: TOOOOOT! Console.WriteLine (); Console.WriteLine ("## Problem is: I don't always know the type of the objects."); Console.WriteLine ("## How can I make it use the class objects when the are"); Console.WriteLine ("## implemented and extension methods when they are not,"); Console.WriteLine ("## without having to explicitely cast?"); } } } Is there a way to get the behavior from the second case, without explict casting? Can this problem be avoided?

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  • Is DataRow thread safe? How to update a single datarow in a datatable using multiple threads? - .net

    - by NLV
    Hello all I want to update a single datarow in a datatable using multiple threads. Is this actually possible? I've written the following code implementing a simple multi-threading to update a single datarow. I get different results each time. Why is it so? public partial class Form1 : Form { private static DataTable dtMain; private static string threadMsg = string.Empty; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread[] thArr = new Thread[5]; dtMain = new DataTable(); dtMain.Columns.Add("SNo"); DataRow dRow; dRow = dtMain.NewRow(); dRow["SNo"] = 5; dtMain.Rows.Add(dRow); dtMain.AcceptChanges(); ThreadStart ts = new ThreadStart(delegate { dtUpdate(); }); thArr[0] = new Thread(ts); thArr[1] = new Thread(ts); thArr[2] = new Thread(ts); thArr[3] = new Thread(ts); thArr[4] = new Thread(ts); thArr[0].Start(); thArr[1].Start(); thArr[2].Start(); thArr[3].Start(); thArr[4].Start(); while (!WaitTillAllThreadsStopped(thArr)) { Thread.Sleep(500); } foreach (Thread thread in thArr) { if (thread != null && thread.IsAlive) { thread.Abort(); } } dgvMain.DataSource = dtMain; } private void dtUpdate() { for (int i = 0; i < 1000; i++) { try { dtMain.Rows[0][0] = Convert.ToInt32(dtMain.Rows[0][0]) + 1; dtMain.AcceptChanges(); } catch { continue; } } } private bool WaitTillAllThreadsStopped(Thread[] threads) { foreach (Thread thread in threads) { if (thread != null && thread.ThreadState == ThreadState.Running) { return false; } } return true; } } Any thoughts on this? Thank you NLV

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  • Java ExecutorService java heap space ptoblems

    - by Sergey Aganezov jr
    I have a little bit of a problem in a multitasking java department. I have a class, called public class ThreadWorker implements Runnable { //some code in here public void run(){ // invokes some recursion method in the ThreadWorker itself, // which will stop eventually { } all in all, pretty simple "worker" that can work on it's on. To work with threads I'm using public static int THREAD_NUMBER = 4; public static ExecutorServide es = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(THREAD_NUMBER); adding instances of ThreadWroker class happens here: public void recursiveMethod(Arraylist<Integers> elements, MyClass data){ if (elements.size() == 0 && data.qualifies()){ ThreadWorker tw = new ThreadWorker(data); es.execute(tw); return; } for (int i=0; i< elements.size(); i++){ // some code to prevent my problem MyClass data1 = new MyClass(data); MyClass data2 = new MyClass(data); ArrayList<Integer> newElements = (ArrayList<Integer>)elements.clone(); data1.update(elements.get(i)); data2.update(-1 * elements.get(i)); newElements.remove(i); recursiveMethod(newElements, data1); recursiveMethod(newElements, data2); { } and the problem is that the depth of the recursion tree is quite big, so as it's width, so a lot of ThreadWorkers are added to the ExecutorService, so after some time on the big input a get Exception in thread "pool-1-thread-2" java.lang.OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space which is caused, as I think because of a ginormous number of ThreadWorkers i'm adding to ExecutorSirvice to be executed, so it runs out of memory. Every ThreadWorker takes about 40 Mb of RAM for all it needs. Is there a method to get how many threads (instances of classes implementing runnable interface) have been added to ExecutorService? So I can add it in the shown above code (int the " // some code to prevent my problem"), as while ("number of threads in the ExecutorService" > 10){ Thread.sleep(10000); } so I won't go to deep or to broad with my recursion and prevent those exception-throwing situations. Sincerely, Sergey Aganezov jr.

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  • Global Entity Framework Context in WPF Application

    - by OffApps Cory
    Good day, I am in the middle of development of a WPF application that is using Entity Framework (.NET 3.5). It accesses the entities in several places throughout. I am worried about consistency throughout the application in regard to the entities. Should I be instancing separate contexts in my different views, or should I (and is a a good way to do this) instance a single context that can be accessed globally? For instance, my entity model has three sections, Shipments (with child packages and further child contents), Companies/Contacts (with child addresses and telephones), and disk specs. The Shipments and EditShipment views access the DiskSpecs, and the OptionsView manages the DiskSpecs (Create, Edit, Delete). If I edit a DiskSpec, I have to have something in the ShipmentsView to retrieve the latest specs if I have separate contexts right? If it is safe to have one overall context from which the rest of the app retrieves it's objects, then I imagine that is the way to go. If so, where would that instance be put? I am using VB.NET, but I can translate from C# pretty good. Any help would be appreciated. I just don't want one of those applications where the user has to hit reload a dozen times in different parts of the app to get the new data. Update: OK so I have changed my app as follows: All contexts are created in Using Blocks to dispose of them after they are no longer needed. When loaded, all entities are detatched from context before it is disposed. A new property in the MainViewModel (ContextUpdated) raises an event that all of the other ViewModels subscribe to which runs that ViewModels RefreshEntities method. After implementing this, I started getting errors saying that an entity can only be referenced by one ChangeTracker at a time. Since I could not figure out which context was still referencing the entity (shouldn't be any context right?) I cast the object as IEntityWithChangeTracker, and set SetChangeTracker to nothing (Null). This has let to the current problem: When I Null the changeTracker on the Entity, and then attach it to a context, it loses it's changed state and does not get updated to the database. However if I do not null the change tracker, I can't attach. I have my own change tracking code, so that is not a problem. My new question is, how are you supposed to do this. A good example Entity query and entity save code snipped would go a long way, cause I am beating my head in trying to get what I once thought was a simple transaction to work. Any help would elevate you to near god-hood.

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  • XSLT: Splitting none continues Elements/Grouping continues Elements

    - by Gerald
    Hi! Need some help with this problem in implementing with Xslt, I had already implemented a java code of this one using sax parser but it is a troublesome due to customer request to change something... so we are doing it now using an XSLT with don't need to be compiled and deployed to a web server. I have an xml like the one below Example 1: <ShotRows> <ShotRow row="3" col="3" bit="1" position="1"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="4" bit="1" position="2"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="5" bit="1" position="3"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="6" bit="1" position="4"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="7" bit="1" position="5"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="8" bit="1" position="6"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="9" bit="1" position="7"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="10" bit="1" position="8"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="11" bit="1" position="9"/> </ShotRows> Output 1: <ShotRows> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="3" colEnd="11" /> </ShotRows> -- Be cause the col is continues from 3 to 11 Example 2: <ShotRows> <ShotRow row="3" col="3" bit="1" position="1"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="4" bit="1" position="2"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="6" bit="1" position="3"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="7" bit="1" position="4"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="8" bit="1" position="5"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="10" bit="1" position="6"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="11" bit="1" position="7"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="15" bit="1" position="8"/> <ShotRow row="3" col="19" bit="1" position="9"/> </ShotRows> Output 2: <ShotRows> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="3" colEnd="4" /> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="6" colEnd="8" /> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="10" colEnd="11" /> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="15" colEnd="15" /> <ShotRow row="3" colStart="19" colEnd="19" /> </ShotRows> -- Basic idea is to group any continues col into one element, like the col 3 to 4, col 6 to 8, col 10 to 11, col 15 is only one, and col 19 is only one. Thanks in advance. Sincerely, Gerald

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  • Resultant of a polynomial with x^n–1

    - by devin.omalley
    Resultant of a polynomial with x^n–1 (mod p) I am implementing the NTRUSign algorithm as described in http://grouper.ieee.org/groups/1363/lattPK/submissions/EESS1v2.pdf , section 2.2.7.1 which involves computing the resultant of a polynomial. I keep getting a zero vector for the resultant which is obviously incorrect. private static CompResResult compResMod(IntegerPolynomial f, int p) { int N = f.coeffs.length; IntegerPolynomial a = new IntegerPolynomial(N); a.coeffs[0] = -1; a.coeffs[N-1] = 1; IntegerPolynomial b = new IntegerPolynomial(f.coeffs); IntegerPolynomial v1 = new IntegerPolynomial(N); IntegerPolynomial v2 = new IntegerPolynomial(N); v2.coeffs[0] = 1; int da = a.degree(); int db = b.degree(); int ta = da; int c = 0; int r = 1; while (db > 0) { c = invert(b.coeffs[db], p); c = (c * a.coeffs[da]) % p; IntegerPolynomial cb = b.clone(); cb.mult(c); cb.shift(da - db); a.sub(cb, p); IntegerPolynomial v2c = v2.clone(); v2c.mult(c); v2c.shift(da - db); v1.sub(v2c, p); if (a.degree() < db) { r *= (int)Math.pow(b.coeffs[db], ta-a.degree()); r %= p; if (ta%2==1 && db%2==1) r = (-r) % p; IntegerPolynomial temp = a; a = b; b = temp; temp = v1; v1 = v2; v2 = temp; ta = db; } da = a.degree(); db = b.degree(); } r *= (int)Math.pow(b.coeffs[0], da); r %= p; c = invert(b.coeffs[0], p); v2.mult(c); v2.mult(r); v2.mod(p); return new CompResResult(v2, r); } There is pseudocode in http://www.crypto.rub.de/imperia/md/content/texte/theses/da_driessen.pdf which looks very similar. Why is my code not working? Are there any intermediate results I can check? I am not posting the IntegerPolynomial code because it isn't too interesting and I have unit tests for it that pass. CompResResult is just a simple "Java struct".

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  • J: Self-reference in bubble sort tacit implementation

    - by Yasir Arsanukaev
    Hello people! Since I'm beginner in J I've decided to solve a simple task using this language, in particular implementing the bubblesort algorithm. I know it's not idiomatically to solve such kind of problem in functional languages, because it's naturally solved using array element transposition in imperative languages like C, rather than constructing modified list in declarative languages. However this is the code I've written: (((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#)) ^: # Let's apply it to an array: (((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#)) ^: # 5 3 8 7 2 2 3 5 7 8 The thing that confuses me is $: referring to the statement within the outermost parentheses. Help says that: $: denotes the longest verb that contains it. The other book (~ 300 KiB) says: 3+4 7 5*20 100 Symbols like + and * for plus and times in the above phrases are called verbs and represent functions. You may have more than one verb in a J phrase, in which case it is constructed like a sentence in simple English by reading from left to right, that is 4+6%2 means 4 added to whatever follows, namely 6 divided by 2. Let's rewrite my code snippet omitting outermost ()s: ((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#) ^: # 5 3 8 7 2 2 3 5 7 8 Reuslts are the same. I couldn't explain myself why this works, why only ((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#) is treated as the longest verb for $: but not the whole expression ((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#) ^: # and not just (<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.), because if ((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#) is a verb, it should also form another verb after conjunction with #, i. e. one might treat the whole sentence (first snippet) as a verb. Probably there's some limit for the verb length limited by one conjunction. Look at the following code (from here): factorial =: (* factorial@<:) ^: (1&<) factorial 4 24 factorial within expression refers to the whole function, i. e. (* factorial@<:) ^: (1&<). Following this example I've used a function name instead of $:: bubblesort =: (((<./@(2&{.)), bubblesort@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#)) ^: # bubblesort 5 3 8 7 2 2 3 5 7 8 I expected bubblesort to refer to the whole function, but it doesn't seem true for me since the result is correct. Also I'd like to see other implementations if you have ones, even slightly refactored. Thanks.

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  • Winform radiobutton data binding

    - by Rajarshi
    I am following the "Presentation Model" design pattern suggested by Martin Fowler for my GUI architecture in a Windows Forms project. "The essence of a Presentation Model is of a fully self-contained class that represents all the data and behavior of the UI window, but without any of the controls used to render that UI on the screen. A view then simply projects the state of the presentation model onto the glass...." - Martin Fowler Read more about this pattern at www.martinfowler.com/eaaDev/PresentationModel.html I am finding the concept very fluid and easy to understand except this one issue of data binding RadioButtons to properties on the Data/Domain object. Suposing I have a Windows Form with 3 radio buttons to depict some "Mode" options as - Auto Manual Import How can I use boolean properties on Data/Domain Objects to DataBind to these buttons? I have tried many ways but to no avail. For example I would like to code like - rbtnAutoMode.DataBindings.Add("Text", myBusinessObject, "IsAutoMode"); rbtnManualMode.DataBindings.Add("Text", myBusinessObject, "IsManualMode"); rbtnImportMode.DataBindings.Add("Text", myBusinessObject, "IsImportMode"); There should be a fourth property like "SelectedMode" on the data/domain object which at the end should depict a single value like "SelectedMode = Auto". I am trying to update this property when any of the "IsAutoMode", "IsManualMode" or "IsImportMode" is changed, e.g. through the property setters. I have INotifyPropertyChanged implemented on my data/domain object so, updating any data/domain object property automatically updates my UI controls, that's not an issue. There is a good example of binding 2 radio buttons here - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/344964/how-do-i-use-databinding-with-windows-forms-radio-buttons but I am missing the link while implementing the same with 3 buttons. I am having very erratic behaviors for the Radio Buttons. I hope I was able to explain reasonably. I am actually in a hurry and could not put a detailed code on post, but any help in this regard is appreciated. There is a simple solution to this issue by exposing a method like - public void SetMode(Modes mode) { this._selectedMode = mode; } which could be called from the "CheckedChanged" event of the Radio Buttons from the UI and would perfectly set the "SelectedMode" on the business object, but I need to stretch the limits to verify whether this can be done by DataBinding.

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  • System architecture: simple approach for setting up background tasks behind a web application -- wil

    - by Tim Molendijk
    I have a Django web application and I have some tasks that should operate (or actually: be initiated) on the background. The application is deployed as follows: apache2-mpm-worker; mod_wsgi in daemon mode (1 process, 15 threads). The background tasks have the following characteristics: they need to operate in a regular interval (every 5 minutes or so); they require the application context (i.e. the application packages need to be available in memory); they do not need any input other than database access, in order to perform some not-so-heavy tasks such as sending out e-mail and updating the state of the database. Now I was thinking that the most simple approach to this problem would be simply to piggyback on the existing application process (as spawned by mod_wsgi). By implementing the task as part of the application and providing an HTTP interface for it, I would prevent the overhead of another process that is holding all of the application into memory. A simple cronjob can be setup that sends a request to this HTTP interface every 5 minutes and that would be it. Since the application process provides 15 threads and the tasks are quite lightweight and only running every 5 minutes, I figure they would not be hindering the performance of the web application's user-facing operations. Yet... I have done some online research and I have seen nobody advocating this approach. Many articles suggest a significantly more complex approach based on a full-blown messaging component (such as Celery, which uses RabbitMQ). Although that's sexy, it sounds like overkill to me. Some articles suggest setting up a cronjob that executes a script which performs the tasks. But that doesn't feel very attractive either, as it results in creating a new process that loads the entire application into memory, performs some tiny task, and destroys the process again. And this is repeated every 5 minutes. Does not sound like an elegant solution. So, I'm looking for some feedback on my suggested approach as described in the paragraph before the preceeding paragraph. Is my reasoning correct? Am I overlooking (potential) problems? What about my assumption that application's performance will not be impeded?

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  • ASP.NET MVC3 Custom Membership Provider - The membership provider name specified is invalid.

    - by David Lively
    I'm implementing a custom membership provider, and everything seems to go swimmingly until I create a MembershipUser object. At that point, I receive the error: The membership provider name specified is invalid. Parameter name: providerName In web.config the membership key is <membership defaultProvider="MembersProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="MembersProvider" type="Members.Providers.MembersProvider" connectionStringName="ApplicationServices" enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresQuestionAndAnswer="false" requiresUniqueEmail="false" maxInvalidPasswordAttempts="5" minRequiredPasswordLength="6" minRequiredNonalphanumericCharacters="0" passwordAttemptWindow="10" applicationName="DeviceDatabase" /> </providers> </membership> When creating the MembershipUser object from my custom User class: public static MembershipUser ToMembershipUser(User user) { MembershipUser member = new MembershipUser ("MembersProvider" , user.Name , user.Id , user.EmailAddress , user.PasswordQuestion , user.Comment , user.IsApproved , user.IsLockedOut , user.DateCreated , user.LastLoginDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastActivityDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastPasswordChangedDate ?? DateTime.MinValue , user.LastLockoutDate ?? DateTime.MinValue ); return member; } (I realize I could probably just inherit my User class from MembershipUser, but it's already part of an existing class hierarchy. I honestly think this is the first time I've encountered a legitimate need for for multiple inheritance!) My feeling is that the new MembershipUser(...) providerName parameter is supposed to match what's set in web.config, but, since they match already, I'm at a loss as to how to proceed. Is there a convenient way to get the name of the active membership provider in code? I'm starting to think that using the built-in membership system is overkill and more trouble than it's worth. Edit Not sure if it's relevant, but the custom membership provider class is in a class library, not the main WAP project. Update Here's the contents of the System.Web.Security.Membership.Provider object as show in the VS2010 command window: >eval System.Web.Security.Membership.Provider {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} [Members.Providers.MembersProvider]: {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} base {System.Configuration.Provider.ProviderBase}: {Members.Providers.MembersProvider} ApplicationName: null EnablePasswordReset: true EnablePasswordRetrieval: false MaxInvalidPasswordAttempts: 5 MinRequiredNonAlphanumericCharacters: 0 MinRequiredPasswordLength: 6 PasswordAttemptWindow: 10 PasswordFormat: Function evaluation was aborted. PasswordStrengthRegularExpression: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away . RequiresQuestionAndAnswer: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away . RequiresUniqueEmail: Cannot evaluate expression because debugging information has been optimized away .

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