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  • Make accordeon/toggle menu using jquery or javascript

    - by Souza
    Found a solution: $('div.divname').not(':eq(0)').hide(); Check this page: http://www.iloja.pt/index.php?_a=viewDoc&docId=19 I would like to have ONLY the first text (faqtexto) open, and the one bellow, hidden on loading (by default) This is the HTML: <div class="agendarfaq"> <div class="topfaq"></div> <div class="faqtopics"><p class="textopics">Recolha e entrega, quanto tempo?</p></div> <div class="faqtexto"> Neque porro quisquam est, qui dolorem ipsum quia dolor sit amet, consectetur, adipisci velit, sed quia non numquam eius modi tempora incidunt ut labore et dolore magnam Quis autem vel eum iure reprehenderit qui in ea voluptate velit esse quam nihil molestiae consequatur, vel illum qui dolorem</div> <div class="faqtopics"><p class="textopics">Recolha e entrega, quanto tempo?</p></div> <div class="faqtexto"> Neque porro quisquam est, qui dolorem ipsum quia dolor sit amet, consectetur, adipisci velit, sed quia non numquam eius modi tempora incidunt ut labore et dolore magnam Quis autem vel eum iure reprehenderit qui in ea voluptate velit esse quam nihil molestiae consequatur, vel illum qui dolorem</div> </div> The jQuery I propose: $(".faqtopics").click(function(event) { $("div.faqtexto").slideUp(100); $(this).next("div.faqtexto").slideToggle(); }); Do you suggest any other cleaner jQuery code? Any help would be welcome! Thank you very much!

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  • Flex: How to access movieclips within an imported swf

    - by squared
    Hello, I have imported a swf (not created with Flex, i.e. non-framework) into a Flex application. Once loaded, I would like to access movieclips within that imported swf. Looking at Adobe's docs (http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/html/help.html?content=controls_15.html), it seems straightforward; however, their examples are between a Flex app and an imported swf (created with Flex). Like their example, I'm trying to use the SystemManager to access the imported swf's content; however, I receive the following error: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert flash.display::MovieClip@58ca241 to mx.managers.SystemManager. Is this error occurring because I'm importing a non-framework swf into a framework swf? Thanks in advance for any assistance. Code: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute"> <mx:SWFLoader source="assets/test.swf" id="loader" creationComplete="swfLoaded()" /> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.managers.SystemManager; [Bindable] public var loadedSM:SystemManager; private function swfLoaded():void { loadedSM = SystemManager(loader.content); } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application>

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  • Meaning of Execute_priv on mysql.db table

    - by Ben Reisner
    I created user 'restriceduser' on my mysql server that is 'locked down'. The mysql.user table has a N for all priveledges for that account. The mysql.db table has Y for only Select, Insert, Update, Delete, Create, Drop; all other privileges are N for that account. I tried to create a stored procedure and then grant him access to run only that procedure, no others, but it does not work. The user receives: Error: execute command denied to user 'restricteduser'@'%' for routine 'mydb.functionname' The stored procedure: CREATE DEFINER = 'restriceduser'@'%' FUNCTION `functionname`(sIn MEDIUMTEXT, sformat MEDIUMTEXT) RETURNS int(11) NOT DETERMINISTIC CONTAINS SQL SQL SECURITY DEFINER COMMENT '' BEGIN .... END; The grant statement I tried: GRANT EXECUTE ON PROCEDURE mydb.functionname TO 'restricteduser'@'%'; I was able to work around by modifying his mysql.db entry with update mysql.db set execute_priv='Y' where user='restricteduser' This seems to be more then I want, because it opens up permissions for him to run any stored procedure in that database, while I only wanted him to have permissions to run the designated function. Does anyone see where my issue may lie?

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  • In a bidirectional JPA OneToMany/ManyToOne association, what is meant by "the inverse side of the as

    - by Bytecode Ninja
    In these examples on TopLink JPA Annotation Reference: Example 1-59 @OneToMany - Customer Class With Generics @Entity public class Customer implements Serializable { ... @OneToMany(cascade=ALL, mappedBy="customer") public Set<Order> getOrders() { return orders; } ... } Example 1-60 @ManyToOne - Order Class With Generics @Entity public class Order implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="CUST_ID", nullable=false) public Customer getCustomer() { return customer; } ... } It seams to me that the Customer entity is the owner of the association. However, in the explanation for the mappedBy attribute in the same document, it is written that: if the relationship is bidirectional, then set the mappedBy element on the inverse (non-owning) side of the association to the name of the field or property that owns the relationship as Example 1-60 shows. However, if I am not wrong, looks like in the example the mappedBy is actually specified on the owning side of the association, rather than the non-owning side. So my question is basically: In a bidirectional (one-to-many/many-to-one) association, which of the entities is the owner? How can we designate the One side as the owner? How can we designate the Many side as the owner? What is meant by "the inverse side of the association"? How can we designate the One side as the inverse? How can we designate the Many side as the inverse? Thanks in advance.

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  • Vertically Aligning Elements

    - by Naz
    I'm trying to understand how to center elements within a div. I have this basic code I am working with and am trying to get the 'This is a button' element to be in the center <body> <div style="width:960px;background-color:#d7d7d7;"> <div style=" width:400px; padding:10px; height:auto; background-color:#006699; display:inline-block; "> <p> Vivamus vel sapien. Praesent nisl tortor, laoreet eu, dapibus quis, egestas non, mauris. Cum sociis natoque penatibus et magnis dis parturient montes, nascetur ridiculus mus. Vivamus vel sapien. Praesent nisl tortor, laoreet eu, dapibus quis, egestas non, mauris. Cum sociis natoque penatibus et magnis dis parturient montes, nascetur ridiculus mus.</p> </div> <div style=" width:100px; padding:10px; height:auto; background-color:#b1b1b1; float:right; display:inline-block; margin:auto!important; vertical-align:middle; "> <p>This is a button</p> </div> </div> </body> It's essentially 1 div, divided into 2 with text on the left hand side and a 'This is a button' label to be in the center of the right side, but I can;t figure out how to get it to center, I've tried all sorts of methods. All help/advice is appreciated.

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  • Copying contents of a MySQL table to a table in another (local) database

    - by Philip Eve
    I have two MySQL databases for my site - one is for a production environment and the other, much smaller, is for a testing/development environment. Both have identical schemas (except when I am testing something I intend to change, of course). A small number of the tables are for internationalisation purposes: TransLanguage - non-English languages TransModule - modules (bundles of phrases for translation, that can be loaded individually by PHP scripts) TransPhrase - individual phrases, in English, for potential translation TranslatedPhrase - translations of phrases that are submitted by volunteers ChosenTranslatedPhrase - screened translations of phrases. The volunteers who do translation are all working on the production site, as they are regular users. I wanted to create a stored procedure that could be used to synchronise the contents of four of these tables - TransLanguage, TransModule, TransPhrase and ChosenTranslatedPhrase - from the production database to the testing database, so as to keep the test environment up-to-date and prevent "unknown phrase" errors from being in the way while testing. My first effort was to create the following procedure in the test database: CREATE PROCEDURE `SynchroniseTranslations` () LANGUAGE SQL NOT DETERMINISTIC MODIFIES SQL DATA SQL SECURITY DEFINER BEGIN DELETE FROM `TransLanguage`; DELETE FROM `TransModule`; INSERT INTO `TransLanguage` SELECT * FROM `PRODUCTION_DB`.`TransLanguage`; INSERT INTO `TransModule` SELECT * FROM `PRODUCTION_DB`.`TransModule`; INSERT INTO `TransPhrase` SELECT * FROM `PRODUCTION_DB`.`TransPhrase`; INSERT INTO `ChosenTranslatedPhrase` SELECT * FROM `PRODUCTION_DB`.`ChosenTranslatedPhrase`; END When I try to run this, I get an error message: "SELECT command denied to user 'username'@'localhost' for table 'TransLanguage'". I also tried to create the procedure to work the other way around (that is, to exist as part of the data dictionary for the production database rather than the test database). If I do it that, way, I get an identical message except it tells me I'm denied the DELETE command rather than SELECT. I have made sure that my user has INSERT, DELETE, SELECT, UPDATE and CREATE ROUTINE privileges on both databases. However, it seems as though MySQL is reluctant to let this user exercise its privileges on both databases at the same time. How come, and is there a way around this?

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  • gcc compilation without using system defined header locations

    - by bogertron
    I am attempting to compile a c++ class using gcc. Due to the nature of the build, I need to invoke gcc from a non-standard location and include non-system defined headers, only to add a set from a different location. However, when I do this, I run into an issue where I cannot find some base symbols (suprise suprise). So i am basically running this command to compile my code: -->(PARENT_DIR)/usr/bin/gcc # invoke compiler -B$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/lib64/gcc/suselinux-x8664 -B$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/lib64 #C/C++ flags -fPIC -fvisibility=default -g -c -Wall -m64 -nostdinc # source files -I$(SRC_DIR_ONE)/ -I$(SRC_DIR_TWO) -I../include # 'Mock' include the system header files -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/include/c++/$(GCC_VERSION) -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/include/c++/$(GCC_VERSION)/backward -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/include/c++/$(GCC_VERSION)/x86_64-suse-linux -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/lib64/x86_64-suse-linux/$(GCC_VERSION)/include -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/lib64/gcc/x86_64-suse-linux/$(GCC_VERSION)/include -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/lib64/gcc/x86_64-suse-linux/$(GCC_VERSION)/include-fixed -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/src/linux/include -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/x86_64-suse-linux/include -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/include/suselinux-x8664 -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/suselinux-x8664/include -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/include -I$(PARENT_DIR)/usr/include/linux file.cpp I am getting several errors which indicate that the base headers are not being included: such as: $(PARENT_DIR)/usr/include/c++/$(GCC_VERSION)/cstddef ::prtdiff_t has not been declared $(PARENT_DIR)/usr/include/c++/$(GCC_VERSION)/cstddef ::size_t has not bee declared. Is there something that I am doing wrong when I include the header file directories? Or am I looking in the wrong place?

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  • Explaining the forecasts from an ARIMA model

    - by Samik R.
    I am trying to explain to myself the forecasting result from applying an ARIMA model to a time-series dataset. The data is from the M1-Competition, the series is MNB65. For quick reference, I have a google doc spreadsheet with the data. I am trying to fit the data to an ARIMA(1,0,0) model and get the forecasts. I am using R. Here are some output snippets: > arima(x, order = c(1,0,0)) Series: x ARIMA(1,0,0) with non-zero mean Call: arima(x = x, order = c(1, 0, 0)) Coefficients: ar1 intercept 0.9421 12260.298 s.e. 0.0474 202.717 > predict(arima(x, order = c(1,0,0)), n.ahead=12) $pred Time Series: Start = 53 End = 64 Frequency = 1 [1] 11757.39 11786.50 11813.92 11839.75 11864.09 11887.02 11908.62 11928.97 11948.15 11966.21 11983.23 11999.27 I have a few questions: (1) How do I explain that although the dataset shows a clear downward trend, the forecast from this model trends upward. This also happens for ARIMA(2,0,0), which is the best ARIMA fit for the data using auto.arima (forecast package) and for an ARIMA(1,0,1) model. (2) The intercept value for the ARIMA(1,0,0) model is 12260.298. Shouldn't the intercept satisfy the equation: C = mean * (1 - sum(AR coeffs)), in which case, the value should be 715.52. I must be missing something basic here. (3) This is clearly a series with non-stationary mean. Why is an AR(2) model still selected as the best model by auto.arima? Could there be an intuitive explanation? Thanks.

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  • Go - Using a map for its set properties with user defined types

    - by Seth Hoenig
    I'm trying to use the built-in map type as a set for a type of my own (Point, in this case). The problem is, when I assign a Point to the map, and then later create a new, but equal point and use it as a key, the map behaves as though that key is not in the map. Is this not possible to do? // maptest.go package main import "fmt" func main() { set := make(map[*Point]bool) printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 0)] = true printSet(set) set[NewPoint(0, 2)] = true printSet(set) _, ok := set[NewPoint(3, 3)] // not in map if !ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for non existent element\n") } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for non existent element\n") } c, ok := set[NewPoint(0, 2)] // another one just like it already in map if ok { fmt.Print("correct error code for existent element\n") // should get this } else { fmt.Print("incorrect error code for existent element\n") // get this } fmt.Printf("c: %t\n", c) } func printSet(stuff map[*Point]bool) { fmt.Print("Set:\n") for k, v := range stuff { fmt.Printf("%s: %t\n", k, v) } } type Point struct { row int col int } func NewPoint(r, c int) *Point { return &Point{r, c} } func (p *Point) String() string { return fmt.Sprintf("{%d, %d}", p.row, p.col) } func (p *Point) Eq(o *Point) bool { return p.row == o.row && p.col == o.col }

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  • How to submit Nothing as a route value to ASP MVC

    - by Adam
    I have a route with several optional parameters. These are possible search terms in different fields. So, for example, if I have fields key, itemtype and text then I have in global.asax: routes.MapRoute( _ "Search", _ "Admin.aspx/Search/{Key}/{ItemType}/{Text}", _ New With {.controller = "Admin", .action = "Search" .Key = Nothing, .ItemType = Nothing, .Text = Nothing} _ ) My action takes optional parameters: Function Search(Optional ByVal Key As String = Nothing, _ Optional ByVal ItemType As Integer = 0, _ Optional ByVal Text As String = Nothing, _ Optional ByVal OtherText As String = Nothing) It then checks if the Key and Text strings have a non-null (and non-empty) value and adds search terms to the db request as needed. However, is it possible to send in a null value for, for example, Key but still send in a value for Text? If so, what does the URL look like? (Admin.aspx/Search//0/Foo doesn't work :) ) I know I can handle this using a parameter array instead, but wondered if this was possible using the sort of route described? I could of course define some other value as equivalent to null (for example, a space/%20) but is there any way to send a null value in the URL? I'm suspecting not, but thought I'd see if anyone knew of one. I'm using ASP MVC 2 for this project.

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  • Comparing lists in Standard ML

    - by user1050640
    I am extremely new to SML and we just got out first programming assignment for class and I need a little insight. The question is: write an ML function, called minus: int list * int list -> int list, that takes two non-decreasing integer lists and produces a non-decreasing integer list obtained by removing the elements from the first input list which are also found in the second input list. For example, minus( [1,1,1,2,2], [1,1,2,3] ) = [1,2] minus( [1,1,2,3],[1,1,1,2,2] ) = [3] Here is my attempt at answering the question. Can anyone tell me what I am doing incorrectly? I don't quite understand parsing lists. fun minus(xs,nil) = [] | minus(nil,ys) = [] | minus(x::xs,y::ys) = if x=y then minus(xs,ys) else x :: minus(x,ys); Here is a fix I just did, I think this is right now? fun minus(L1,nil) = L1 | minus(nil,L2) = [] | minus(L1,L2) = if hd(L1) > hd(L2) then minus(L1,tl(L2)) else if hd(L1) = hd(L2) then minus(tl(L1),tl(L2)) else hd(L1) :: minus(tl(L1), L2);

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  • How to hand-over a TCP listening socket with minimal downtime?

    - by Shtééf
    While this question is tagged EventMachine, generic BSD-socket solutions in any language are much appreciated too. Some background: I have an application listening on a TCP socket. It is started and shut down with a regular System V style init script. My problem is that it needs some time to start up before it is ready to service the TCP socket. It's not too long, perhaps only 5 seconds, but that's 5 seconds too long when a restart needs to be performed during a workday. It's also crucial that existing connections remain open and are finished normally. Reasons for a restart of the application are patches, upgrades, and the like. I unfortunately find myself in the position that, every once in a while, I need to do this kind of thing in production. The question: I'm looking for a way to do a neat hand-over of the TCP listening socket, from one process to another, and as a result get only a split second of downtime. I'd like existing connections / sockets to remain open and finish processing in the old process, while the new process starts servicing new connectinos. Is there some proven method of doing this using BSD-sockets? (Bonus points for an EventMachine solution.) Are there perhaps open-source libraries out there implementing this, that I can use as is, or use as a reference? (Again, non-Ruby and non-EventMachine solutions are appreciated too!)

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  • Access 2007 and Special/Unicode Characters in SQL

    - by blockcipher
    I have a small Access 2007 database that I need to be able to import data from an existing spreadsheet and put it into our new relational model. For the most part this seems to work pretty well. Part of the process is attempting to see if a record already exists in a target table using SQL. For example, if I extract book information out of the current row in the spreadsheet, it may contain a title and abstract. I use SQL to get the ID of a matching record, if it exists. This works fine except when I have data that's in a non-English language. In this case, it seems that there is some punctuation that is causing me problems. At least I think it's punctuation as I do have some fields that do not have punctuation and are non-English that do not give me any problems. Is there a built-in function that can escape these characters? Currently I have a small function that will escape the single quote character, but that isn't enough. Or, is there a list of Unicode characters that can interfere with how SQL wants data quoted? Thanks in advance.

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  • ASMX schema varies when using WCF Service

    - by Lijo
    Hi, I have a client (created using ASMX "Add Web Reference"). The service is WCF. The signature of the methods varies for the client and the Service. I get some unwanted parameteres to the method. Note: I have used IsRequired = true for DataMember. Service: [OperationContract] int GetInt(); Client: proxy.GetInt(out requiredResult, out resultBool); Could you please help me to make the schame non-varying in both WCF clinet and non-WCF cliet? Do we have any best practices for that? using System.ServiceModel; using System.Runtime.Serialization; namespace SimpleLibraryService { [ServiceContract(Namespace = "http://Lijo.Samples")] public interface IElementaryService { [OperationContract] int GetInt(); [OperationContract] int SecondTestInt(); } public class NameDecorator : IElementaryService { [DataMember(IsRequired=true)] int resultIntVal = 1; int firstVal = 1; public int GetInt() { return firstVal; } public int SecondTestInt() { return resultIntVal; } } } Binding = "basicHttpBinding" using NonWCFClient.WebServiceTEST; namespace NonWCFClient { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { NonWCFClient.WebServiceTEST.NameDecorator proxy = new NameDecorator(); int requiredResult =0; bool resultBool = false; proxy.GetInt(out requiredResult, out resultBool); Console.WriteLine("GetInt___"+requiredResult.ToString() +"__" + resultBool.ToString()); int secondResult =0; bool secondBool = false; proxy.SecondTestInt(out secondResult, out secondBool); Console.WriteLine("SecondTestInt___" + secondResult.ToString() + "__" + secondBool.ToString()); Console.ReadLine(); } } } Please help.. Thanks Lijo

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  • Why does this MySQL function return null?

    - by Shore
    Description: the query actually run have 4 results returned,as can be see from below, what I did is just concate the items then return, but unexpectedly,it's null. I think the code is self-explanatory: DELIMITER | DROP FUNCTION IF EXISTS get_idiscussion_ask| CREATE FUNCTION get_idiscussion_ask(iask_id INT UNSIGNED) RETURNS TEXT DETERMINISTIC BEGIN DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE body varchar(600); DECLARE created DATETIME; DECLARE anonymous TINYINT(1); DECLARE screen_name varchar(64); DECLARE result TEXT; DECLARE cur1 CURSOR FOR SELECT body,created,anonymous,screen_name from idiscussion left join users on idiscussion.uid=users.id where idiscussion.iask_id=iask_id; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR SQLSTATE '02000' SET done = 1; SET result = ''; OPEN cur1; REPEAT FETCH cur1 INTO body, created, anonymous, screen_name; SET result = CONCAT(result,'<comment><body><![CDATA[',body,']]></body>','<replier>',if(screen_name is not null and !anonymous,screen_name,''),'</replier>','<created>',created,'</created></comment>'); UNTIL done END REPEAT; CLOSE cur1; RETURN result; END | DELIMITER ; mysql> DELIMITER ; mysql> select get_idiscussion_ask(1); +------------------------+ | get_idiscussion_ask(1) | +------------------------+ | NULL | +------------------------+ 1 row in set (0.01 sec) mysql> SELECT body,created,anonymous,screen_name from idiscussion left join users on idiscussion.uid=users.id where idiscussion.iask_id=1; +------+---------------------+-----------+-------------+ | body | created | anonymous | screen_name | +------+---------------------+-----------+-------------+ | haha | 2009-05-27 04:57:51 | 0 | NULL | | haha | 2009-05-27 04:57:52 | 0 | NULL | | haha | 2009-05-27 04:57:52 | 0 | NULL | | haha | 2009-05-27 04:57:53 | 0 | NULL | +------+---------------------+-----------+-------------+ 4 rows in set (0.00 sec) For those who don't think the code is self-explanatory: Why the function returns NULL?

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  • So many technologies to choose from. Where does the beginner start?

    - by Sahat
    WPF Silverlight Windows phone 7 w/ Silverlight iPhone OS w/ Objective-C Cocoa w/ Objective-C ASP.NET Android Facebook FBML HTML5 I will be graduating with B.S. in Computer Science soon and have to decide what do I want to learn from this list. I believe it's better to focus on one thing, master it and build up a portfolio to enhance my resume. Bachelor's Degree with no experience, no portfolio won't do me any good. It won't get me a job by itself. I need to have something that will greatly boost my resume. What would it be? iPhone development? ASP.NET web development? Facebook development? Or completely something else that I haven't listed? I understand it's natural for silverlight developers to say "Learn Silverlight", and iPhone developers say "Learn iPhone SDK and Objective-C". So please try to give a constructive, non-biased, non-objective opinion on which technology should I focus on. Please don't close the topic for "subjective/argumentative" reasons. I am just looking for some guidance.

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  • MVVM Listbox DataTemplate SelectedItem

    - by StinkerPeter
    I am using a ListBox with a DataTemplate as shown below (xaml simplified and variable names changed). <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ObservCollectionItems}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedItemVar, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding SomeVar}" /> <Border> <StackPanel> <Button Content="String1" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command1} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> <Button Content="String2" Command="{Binding DataContext.Command2} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1}}" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> I need the SelectedItemVar (dependency property) to update when I click on one of the buttons. SelectedItemVar is then used for the respective button's command. SelectedItemVar does update when I click on the TextBlock or the Border, but not when I click either button. I found a non-MVVM solution to this problem here. I do not want to add code in the file-behind to solve this, as they did in the link. Is there a clean solution that can be done in XAML. Beyond the non-MVVM solutions, I have not found anyone with this problem. I would have thought this was fairly common. Finally, I found this Command="{Binding DataContext.CommandName} RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, ListBox, 1} for the Command binding. I do not fully understand what it is doing, but I do know that the command wasn't firing when I was binding directly to CommandName.

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  • Sprint velocity calculations

    - by jase
    Need some advice on working out the team velocity for a sprint. Our team normally consists of about 4 developers and 2 testers. The scrum master insists that every team member should contribute equally to the velocity calculation i.e. we should not distinguish between developers and testers when working out how much we can do in a sprint. The is correct according to Scrum, but here's the problem. Despite suggestions to the contrary, testers never help with non-test tasks and developers never help with non-dev tasks, so we are not cross functional team members at all. Also, despite various suggestions, testers normally spend the first few days of each sprint waiting for something to test. The end result is that typically we take on far more dev work than we actually have capacity for in the sprint. For example, the developers might contribute 20 days to the velocity calculation and the testers 10 days. If you add up the tasks after sprint planning though, dev tasks add up to 25 days and test tasks add up to 5 days. How do you guys deal with this sort of situation?

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  • Cannot connect to SQL Server from ASP.NET MVC app

    - by Dan Fergus
    I have an ASP.NET MVC app that has on a hosted server for over a year, connecting to SQL Server. I've had to change hosting services, the new one supports MVC 1.0. I've also moved a non MVC ASP app to the same hosting service. Now, MY MVC based app retturnes this error when I try to validate a user login. A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) Now, the non-MVC app can access the exact same database and authenticate users just fine. The MVC app, when run from my dev box connects fine. It also run/connects/authenticates without problem when I install and run the site from an internal SQL 2008 server running IIS 7. I, along with the hosting support techs, am at a loss how the exact same connect string works every where except on the hosted server, and only when run from inside an ASP.NET MVC web app. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Login as SYS user to Oracle 11g from .NET

    - by Jens Bannmann
    Using the Oracle Data Provider for .NET, my application connects to the database using the privileged SYS user. The connection string is as follows: Data Source=MyTnsName;User ID=sys;Password=MySysPassword;DBA Privilege=SYSDBA This works fine with Oracle 10, but Oracle 11 keeps complaining about an invalid username or password. I verified that the password is correct - other apps work fine with the same credentials. Note that for regular users (without the DBA Privilege part), connecting to Oracle 11 works perfectly. So, what's wrong? Update: This is not an issue with case sensitivity - when constructing the connection string, the password case is not altered by my code, and the password works fine with other, non-.NET-applications. I suspect that this might be caused by the Oracle 10 client I'm using to connect to the 11 database. Oracle states that the client is upward-compatible, the only drawback being that you cannot use some new features of the database. However, SYSDBA connections clearly are not a new Oracle 11 feature, and - again - a non-.NET-app (Keeptool Hora) can connect using the same setup. Any other ideas? Update 2: The problem persists when using an Oracle 11 client :-(

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  • IF-block brackets: best practice

    - by MasterPeter
    I am preparing a short tutorial for level 1 uni students learning JavaScript basics. The task is to validate a phone number. The number must not contain non-digits and must be 14 digits long or less. The following code excerpt is what I came up with and I would like to make it as readable as possible. if ( //set of rules for invalid phone number phoneNumber.length == 0 //empty || phoneNumber.length > 14 //too long || /\D/.test(phoneNumber) //contains non-digits ) { setMessageText(invalid); } else { setMessageText(valid); } A simple question I can not quite answer myself and would like to hear your opinions on: How to position the surrounding (outermost) brackets? It's hard to see the difference between a normal and a curly bracket. Do you usually put the last ) on the same line as the last condition? Do you keep the first opening ( on a line by itself? Do you wrap each individual sub-condition in brackets too? Do you align horizontally the first ( with the last ), or do you place the last ) in the same column as the if? Do you keep ) { on a separate line or you place the last ) on the same line with the last sub-condition and then place the opening { on a new line? Or do you just put the ) { on the same line as the last sub-condition? Community wiki.

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  • javascript, php, cookies

    - by kennedy
    When i declare mac = 123, my internet explorer and firefox will keep refresh non-stop. And if i declare mac = getMacAddress it returns a value 1... I'm able to do a document.write(getMacAddress()) and it would able to display the mac address nicely. 1) Why my explorer will keep refreshing non-stop when i code it manually with "123" 2) why is the document.write able to display out, and when i store it to the cookie, somehow it didnt mange to capture into the cookie and it return a value of "1". Anyone help? create_users.php <script language="JavaScript"> function getMacAddress(){ document.macaddressapplet.setSep( "-" ); return (document.macaddressapplet.getMacAddress()); } function setCookie(c_name,value) { document.cookie = c_name + "=" +escape(value); } //error checking //var mac = getMacAddress(); var mac = "123"; setCookie('cookie_name',mac); window.location = "checkAvailability.php"; </script> checkAvailability.php $javascript_cookie_value = isset($_COOKIE["cookie_name"]) ? $_COOKIE["cookie_name"] : 1; mysql_query("INSERT INTO test (mac) VALUES ('$javascript_cookie_value')");

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  • Web development scheme for staging and production servers using Git Push

    - by ServAce85
    I am using git to manage a dynamic website (PHP + MySQL) and I want to send my files from my localhost to my staging and development servers in the most efficient and hassle-free way. I am currently convinced that the best way for me to approach this problem is to use this git branching model to organize my local git repo. From there, I will use the release branches to push to my staging server for testing. Once I am happy that the release code works on the staging server, I can then merge with my master branch and push that to my production server. Pushing to Staging Server: As noted in many introductory git posts, I could run into problems pushing into a non-bare repo, so, as suggested in this response, I plan to push the release branch to a bare repo on the server and have a post-receive hook that clones the bare repo to a non-bare repo that also acts as the web-hosted directory. Pushing to Production Server: Here's my newest source of confusion... In the response that I cited above, it made me curious as to why @Paul states that it's a completely different story when pushing to a live, development server. I guess I don't see the problem. Would it be safe and hassle-free to follow the same steps as above, but for the master branch? Where are the potential pit-falls? Config Files: With respect to configuration files that are unique to each environment (.htaccess, config.php, etc), it seems simplest to .gitignore each of those files in their respective repos on their respective servers. Can you see anything immediately wrong with this? Better solutions? Accessing Data: Finally, as I initially stated, the site uses MySQL databases to store data. How would you suggest I access that data (for testing purposes) from the staging server and localhost? I realize that I may have asked way too many questions for a single post, but since they're all related to the best way to set up this development scheme, I thought it was necessary.

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  • The perfect web UI framework (with Microsoft stack?) - architecture question?

    - by Igorek
    I'm looking for suggestions for the following issue, and I realize there is really not going to be a perfect answer to my question: I have a UI built in WinForms.NET (v4.0 framework) with WCF back-end and EF4 model objects, that I am looking to port to the web. UI is not huge and is not super complex and is structured well. But it is not a super simple system either. I am looking to pick a technology stack for the web-frontend that will target desktop & partially mobile platforms, provide a good development platform to build on, and facilitate code reuse across UI and back-end tiers... I would rather avoid: custom coding of UI-centric scripts, because they are hard to debug, non-compiled, usually a maintenance nightmare, almost always start to contain business logic, and duplicate some of the logic that back-end tiers have (especially validation) custom-coding for Desktop Web and Mobile Web UI's separately (although I realize that mobile web UI will likely contain fewer of data-entry screens and more reporting screens) non-.NET technology stacks I would love to: target the reporting capabilities of the system toward mobile web browsers not have to write a single line of script (javascript, jquery, etc.) utilize a good collection of controls that produces an elegant UI use .NET for everything The way I see it right now, I need to re-write this app in Silverlight, utilize a 3rd party UI framework like Telerik, and re-do the reports UI again for mobile platforms separately. However, I'm rather concerned about the shelf-life of Silverlight and the needed to deploy a different architecture to deal with mobile platform. Is there an ASP.NET/MVC/Ajax architecture/framework/library that would allow me to get at the power of .NET and without painful (imho) client-side scripting, while providing a decent user experience Thank you

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  • Pointers, am I doing them correctly? Objective-c/cocoa

    - by Chris
    I have this in my @interface struct track currentTrack; struct track previousTrack; int anInt; Since these are not objects, I do not have to have them like int* anInt right? And if setting non-object values like ints, boolean, etc, I do not have to release the old value right (assuming non-GC environment)? The struct contains objects: typedef struct track { NSString* theId; NSString* title; } *track; Am I doing that correctly? Lastly, I access the struct like this: [currentTrack.title ...]; currentTrack.theId = @"asdf"; //LINE 1 I'm also manually managing the memory (from a setter) for the struct like this: [currentTrack.title autorelease]; currentTrack.title = [newTitle retain]; If I'm understanding the garbage collection correctly, I should be able to ditch that and just set it like LINE 1 (above)? Also with garbage collection, I don't need a dealloc method right? If I use garbage collection does this mean it only runs on OS 10.5+? And any other thing I should know before I switch to garbage collected code? Sorry there are so many questions. Very new to objective-c and desktop programming. Thanks

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