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  • jQuery Ajax / .each callback, next 'each' firing before ajax completed

    - by StuR
    Hi the below Javascript is called when I submit a form. It first splits a bunch of url's from a text area, it then: 1) Adds lines to a table for each url, and in the last column (the 'status' column) it says "Not Started". 2) Again it loops through each url, first off it makes an ajax call to check on the status (status.php) which will return a percentage from 0 - 100. 3) In the same loop it kicks off the actual process via ajax (process.php), when the process has completed (bearing in the mind the continuous status updates), it will then say "Completed" in the status column and exit the auto_refresh. 4) It should then go to the next 'each' and do the same for the next url. function formSubmit(){ var lines = $('#urls').val().split('\n'); $.each(lines, function(key, value) { $('#dlTable tr:last').after('<tr><td>'+value+'</td><td>Not Started</td></tr>'); }); $.each(lines, function(key, value) { var auto_refresh = setInterval( function () { $.ajax({ url: 'status.php', success: function(data) { $('#dlTable').find("tr").eq(key+1).children().last().replaceWith("<td>"+data+"</td>"); } }); }, 1000); $.ajax({ url: 'process.php?id='+value, success: function(msg) { clearInterval(auto_refresh); $('#dlTable').find("tr").eq(key+1).children().last().replaceWith("<td>completed rip</td>"); } }); }); }

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  • Why does calling abort() on ajax request cause error in ASP.Net MVC (IE8)

    - by user169867
    I use jquery to post to an MVC controller action that returns a table of information. The user of the page triggers this by clicking on various links. In the event the user decides to click a bunch of these links in quick succession I wanted to cancel any previous ajax request that may not have finished. I've found that when I do this (although its fine from the client's POV) I will get errors on the web application saying that "The parameters dictionary contains a null entry for parameter srtCol of non-nullable type 'System.Int32'" Now the ajax post deffinately passes in all the parameters, and if I don't try and cancel the ajax request it works just fine. But if I do cancel the request by calling abort() on the XMLHttpRequest object that ajax() returns before it finishes I get the error from ASP.Net MVC. Example: //Cancel any pevious request if (req) { req.abort(); req = null; } //Make new request req= $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: "/Myapp/GetTbl", data: {srtCol: srt, view: viewID}, success: OnSuccess, error: OnError, dataType: "html" }); I've noticed this only happen is IE8. In FF it seems to not cuase a problem. Does anyone know how to cancel an ajax request in IE8 without causing errors for MVC? Thanks for any help.

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  • How to mmap the stack for the clone() system call on linux?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    The clone() system call on Linux takes a parameter pointing to the stack for the new created thread to use. The obvious way to do this is to simply malloc some space and pass that, but then you have to be sure you've malloc'd as much stack space as that thread will ever use (hard to predict). I remembered that when using pthreads I didn't have to do this, so I was curious what it did instead. I came across this site which explains, "The best solution, used by the Linux pthreads implementation, is to use mmap to allocate memory, with flags specifying a region of memory which is allocated as it is used. This way, memory is allocated for the stack as it is needed, and a segmentation violation will occur if the system is unable to allocate additional memory." The only context I've ever heard mmap used in is for mapping files into memory, and indeed reading the mmap man page it takes a file descriptor. How can this be used for allocating a stack of dynamic length to give to clone()? Is that site just crazy? ;) In either case, doesn't the kernel need to know how to find a free bunch of memory for a new stack anyway, since that's something it has to do all the time as the user launches new processes? Why does a stack pointer even need to be specified in the first place if the kernel can already figure this out?

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  • VB.Net Validate an xml against a schema (strange problem)

    - by Apeksha
    I have written a small XML validator, that takes in an XML file and an XML schema and validates the XML files against that schema. It works well, except for an XML file, with this content: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xc:program xmlns:xc="http:\\www.something.com\Schema\XC10" xc:version="4.0.22.0" > <xc:namespaceDecls> <xc:namespaceDecl xc:namespaceDeclURI="urn:swift:xsd:abc"> <xc:namespaceDeclPrefix>n</xc:namespaceDeclPrefix> </xc:namespaceDecl> </xc:namespaceDecls> </xc:program> I tried to validate this XML file against a bunch of different schemas. No matter which schema I select, this XML file comes out as valid. What is it that I am missing? Here is the relevant piece of code: 'Create a schema cache and add the given schema to it. Dim schemaCache As New Schema.XmlSchemaSet schemaCache.Add(targetNamespace, schemaFilename) 'Create an XML DOMDocument object. Dim xmlDom As New XmlDocument 'Assign the schema cache to the DOM document. 'schemas collection. xmlDom.Schemas = schemaCache 'Load selected file as the DOM document. xmlDom.Load(xmlFilename) xmlDom.Validate(AddressOf ValidationCallBack)

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  • Why Java language does not offer a way to declare getters and setters of a given "field" through ann

    - by zim2001
    I actually happily design and develop JEE Applications for quite 9 years, but I realized recently that as time goes by, I feel more and more fed up of dragging all these ugly bean classes with their bunch of getters and setters. Considering a basic bean like this : public class MyBean { // needs getter AND setter private int myField1; // needs only a getter, no setter private int myField2; // needs only a setter, no getter private int myField3; /** * Get the field1 * @return the field1 */ public int getField1() { return myField1; } /** * Set the field1 * @param value the value */ public void setField1(int value) { myField1 = value; } /** * Get the field2 * @return the field2 */ public int getField2() { return myField2; } /** * Set the field3 * @param value the value */ public void setField3(int value) { myField3 = value; } } I'm dreaming of something like this : public class MyBean { @inout(public,public) private int myField1; @out(public) private int myField2; @in(public) private int myField3; } No more stupid javadoc, just tell the important thing... It would still be possible to mix annotation and written down getters or setters, to cover cases when it should do non-trivial sets and gets. In other words, annotation would auto-generate the getter / setter code piece except when a literate one is provided. Moreover, I'm also dreaming of replacing things like that : MyBean b = new MyBean(); int v = b.getField1(); b.setField3(v+1); by such : MyBean b = new MyBean(); int v = b.field1; b.field3 = v+1; In fact, writing "b.field1" on the right side of an expression would be semantically identical to write "b.getField1()", I mean as if it has been replaced by some kind of a preprocessor. It's just an idea but I'm wondering if I'm alone on that topic, and also if it has major flaws. I'm aware that this question doesn't exactly meet the SO credo (we prefer questions that can be answered, not just discussed) so I flag it community wiki...

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  • Databinding question: DataGridView <=> XDocument (using LINQ-to-XML)

    - by Pretzel
    Learning LINQ has been a lot of fun so far, but despite reading a couple books and a bunch of online resources on the topic, I still feel like a total n00b. Recently, I just learned that if my query returns an Anonymous type, the DataGridView I'm populating will be ReadOnly (because, apparently Anonymous types are ReadOnly.) Right now, I'm trying to figure out the easiest way to: Get a subset of data from an XML file into a DataGridView, Allow the user to edit said data, Stick the changed data back into the XML file. So far I have Steps 1 and 2 figured out: public class Container { public string Id { get; set; } public string Barcode { get; set; } public float Quantity { get; set; } } // For use with the Distinct() operator public class ContainerComparer : IEqualityComparer<Container> { public bool Equals(Container x, Container y) { return x.Id == y.Id; } public int GetHashCode(Container obj) { return obj.Id.GetHashCode(); } } var barcodes = (from src in xmldoc.Descendants("Container") where src.Descendants().Count() > 0 select new Container { Id = (string)src.Element("Id"), Barcode = (string)src.Element("Barcode"), Quantity = float.Parse((string)src.Element("Quantity").Attribute("value")) }).Distinct(new ContainerComparer()); dataGridView1.DataSource = barcodes.ToList(); This works great at getting the data I want from the XML into the DataGridView so that the user has a way to manipulate the values. Upon doing a Step-thru trace of my code, I'm finding that the changes to the values made in DataGridView are not bound to the XDocument object and as such, do not propagate back. How do we take care of Step 3? (getting the data back to the XML) Is it possible to Bind the XML directly to the DataGridView? Or do I have to write another LINQ statement to get the data from the DGV back to the XDocument? Suggstions?

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  • Detecting Xml namespace fast

    - by Anna Tjsoken
    Hello there, This may be a very trivial problem I'm trying to solve, but I'm sure there's a better way of doing it. So please go easy on me. I have a bunch of XSD files that are internal to our application, we have about 20-30 Xml files that implement datasets based off those XSDs. Some Xml files are small (<100Kb), others are about 3-4Mb with a few being over 10Mb. I need to find a way of working out what namespace these Xml files are in order to provide (something like) intellisense based off the XSD. The implementation of this is not an issue - another developer has written the code for this. But I'm not sure the best (and fastest!) way of detecting the namespace is without the use of XmlDocument (which does a full parse). I'm using C# 3.5 and the documents come through as a Stream (some are remote files). All the files are *.xml (I can detect if it was extension based) but unfortunately the Xml namespace is the only way. Right now I've tried XmlDocument but I've found it to be innefficient and slow as the larger documents are awaiting to be parsed (even the 100Kb docs). public string GetNamespaceForDocument(Stream document); Something like the above is my method signature - overloads include string for "content". Would a RegEx (compiled) pattern be good? How does Visual Studio manage this so efficiently? Another college has told me to find a fast Xml parser in C/C++, parse the content and have a stub that gives back the namespace as its slower in .NET, is this a good idea?

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  • Gems install fine but don't show as installed under rake gems

    - by Josh Pinter
    I'll show you my output here: rake gems (in /Users/jp/Sites/central/trunk) - [F] authlogic - [R] activesupport - [F] builder - [F] formtastic - [R] activesupport >= 2.3.0 - [R] actionpack >= 2.3.0 - [ ] fastercsv I = Installed F = Frozen R = Framework (loaded before rails starts) Making sure fastercsv is installed: gem which fastercsv /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/fastercsv-1.5.3/lib/fastercsv.rb After installing through a variety of methods but only one is shown here: sudo rake gems:install (in /Users/jp/central/trunk) gem install fastercsv Successfully installed fastercsv-1.5.3 1 gem installed Installing ri documentation for fastercsv-1.5.3... Installing RDoc documentation for fastercsv-1.5.3... And try it again. rake gems (in /Users/jp/Sites/central/trunk) - [F] authlogic - [R] activesupport - [F] builder - [F] formtastic - [R] activesupport >= 2.3.0 - [R] actionpack >= 2.3.0 - [ ] fastercsv I = Installed F = Frozen R = Framework (loaded before rails starts) One thing to know is that I tried unpacking the gems but if it doesn't think it's installed it can't unpack it. Another thing is that I really tried to figure this out. There's a bunch of people saying clean up local gems in your user account, always install with sudo, etc. But I've tried all that. What would you guys do to fix this? Thanks many times over, Josh

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  • WordPress Conditional: Only show if current page title is equal to post meta

    - by Wade D Ouellet
    Hey, I am calling a bunch of posts under a certain post type in WordPress which works but I am trying to add a conditional that will check first if those post's custom meta field (labeled "disc") is equal to the current post's title. Here is what I have but this conditional does not seem to work: <?php $pages = get_posts('numberposts=9999&post_type=song&post_status=publish&order=ASC&orderby=date'); $i = 1; foreach( $pages as $page ) { $content = $page->post_title; if( empty($content) ) continue; $content = apply_filters('the_content', $content); ?> <?php if(get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-disc", true)=="the_title()") { ?> <tbody class="vevent"> <?php if ($i%2===0) { ?><tr class="gigpress-row gigpress-alt"> <?php } else { ?><tr class="gigpress-row"><?php } ?> <td><?php echo $page->post_title ?></td> <td><?php echo get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-length", true); ?></td> <td><a href="http://itunes.com/<?php echo get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-itunes-song", true); ?>">BUY</a></td> </tr> <tr class="gigpress-info"> <td colspan="3"><?php echo $page->post_content ?></td> </tr> </tbody> <?php $i++; } } ?> When I simply echo "get_post_meta($page-ID, "p30-disc", true)" or "the_title()" it spits out their proper values, which are equal, so obviously something is just wrong with that conditional. Thanks, Wade

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  • C++ .NET DLL vs C# Managed Code ? (File Encrypting AES-128+XTS)

    - by Ranhiru
    I need to create a Windows Mobile Application (WinMo 6.x - C#) which is used to encrypt/decrypt files. However it is my duty to write the encryption algorithm which is AES-128 along with XTS as the mode of operation. RijndaelManaged just doesn't cut it :( Very much slower than DES and 3DES CryptoServiceProviders :O I know it all depends on how good I am at writing the algorithm in the most efficient way. (And yes I my self have to write it from scratch but i can take a look @ other implementations) Nevertheless, does writing a C++ .NET DLL to create the encryption/decryption algorithm + all the file handling and using it from C# have a significant performance advantage OVER writing the encryption algorithm + file handling in completely managed C# code? If I use C++ .NET to create the encryption algorithm, should I use MFC Smart Device DLL or ATL? What is the difference and is there any impact on which one I choose? And can i just add a reference to the C++ DLL from C# or should I use P/Invoke? I am fairly competent with C# than C++ but performance plays a major role as I have convinced my lecturers that AES is a very efficient cryptographic algorithm for resource constrained devices. Thanx a bunch :)

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  • Bypassing confirmation prompt of an external process

    - by Alidad
    How can I convert this Perl code to Groovy? How to bypass confirmation prompts of an external process? I am trying to convert a Perl script to Groovy. The program is loading/delete maestro (job scheduling) jobs automatically. The problem is the delete command will prompt for confirmation (Y/N) on every single job that it finds. I tried the process execute in groovy but will stop at the prompts. The Perl script is writing bunch of Ys to the stream and print it to the handler( if I understood it correctly) to avoid stopping. I am wondering how to do the same thing in Groovy ? Or any other approach to execute a command and somehow write Y on every confirmation prompt. Perl Script: $maestrostring=""; while ($x < 1500) { $maestrostring .= "y\n"; $x++; } # delete the jobs open(MAESTRO_CMD, "|ssh mserver /bin/composer delete job=pserver#APPA@") print MAESTRO_CMD $maestrostring; close(MAESTRO_CMD); This is my groovy code so far: def deleteMaestroJobs (){ ... def commandSched ="ssh $maestro_server /bin/composer delete sched=$primary_server#$app_acronym$app_level@" def commandJobs ="ssh $maestro_server /bin/composer delete job=$primary_server#$app_acronym$app_level@" try { executeCommand commandJobs } catch (Exception ex ){ throw new Exception("Error executing the Maestro Composer [DELETE]") } try { executeCommand commandSched } catch (Exception ex ){ throw new Exception("Error executing the Maestro Composer [DELETE]") } } def executeCommand(command){ def process = command.execute() process.withWriter { writer -> 1500.times {writer.println 'Y' } } process.consumeProcessOutput(System.out, System.err) process.waitFor() }

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  • Using Regex, how can I remove certain characters from inside angle-brackets, leaving the characters

    - by Iain Fraser
    Edit: To be clear, please understand that I am not using Regex to parse the html, that's crazy talk! I'm simply wanting to clean up a messy string of html so it will parse Edit #2: I should also point out that the control character I'm using is a special unicode character - it's not something that would ever be used in a proper tag under any normal circumstances Suppose I have a string of html that contains a bunch of control characters and I want to remove the control characters from inside tags only, leaving the characters outside the tags alone. For example Here the control character is the numeral "1". Input The quick 1<strong>orange</strong> lemming <sp11a1n 1class1='jumpe111r'11>jumps over</span> 1the idle 1frog Desired Output The quick 1<strong>orange</strong> lemming <span class='jumper'>jumps over</span> 1the idle 1frog So far I can match tags which contain the control character but I can't remove them in one regex. I guess I could perform another regex on my matches, but I'd really like to know if there's a better way. My regex Bear in mind this one only matches tags which contain the control character. <(([^>])*?`([^>])*?)*?> Thanks very much for your time and consideration. Iain Fraser

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  • Update existing Preference-item in a PreferenceActivity upon returning from a (sub)PreferenceScreen

    - by aioobe
    I have a PreferenceActivity with a bunch of (Sub)PreferenceScreens. Each such (Sub)PreferenceScreen represents an account and has the account-username as its title. PreferenceScreen root = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); for (MyAccountClass account : myAccounts) { final PreferenceScreen accScreen = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); accScreen.setTitle(account.getUsername()); // add Preferences to the accScreen // (for instance a "change username"-preference) ... root.add(accScreen); } As the user enters sub-PreferenceScreen, and edits the account user-name, I want the outer PreferenceScreen to update it's PreferenceScreen-title for the account in question. I've tried to add... usernamePref.setOnPreferenceChangeListener(new OnPreferenceChangeListener() { public boolean onPreferenceChange(Preference preference, Object newValue) { accScreen.setTitle(newValue.toString()); return true; } }); ...but the accScreen.setTitle does not seem to take effect on the outer PreferenceScreen. I've note that calling onContentChanged(); actually makes it work, but I realize that this is probably not the preferred way of doing it. I suspect I should call postInvalidate() on some view somewhere, but I really can't figure out on what view and when to do it. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2396153/preferencescreen-androidsummary-update may be experiening the same problem as me. Any help appreciated.

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  • Instruments (Leaks) and NSDateFormatter

    - by Cal
    When I run my iPhone app with Instruments Leaks and parse a bunch of NSDates using NSDateFormatter my memory goes up about 1mb and stays even though these NSDates should be dealloc'd after the parsing (I just discard them if they aren't new). I thought the malloc (in my heaviest stack trace below) could become part of the NSDate but I also thought it could be memory that only used during some intermediate step in parsing. Does anyone know which one it is or how to find out? Also, is there a way to put a breakpoint on NSDate dealloc to see if that memory is really being reclaimed? Here's what my date formatter looks like for parsing these dates: df = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [df setDateFormat:@"EEE, d MMM yyyy H:m:s z"]; Here's the Heaviest Stack trace when the memory bumps up and stays there: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 208.80 Kb malloc 1 libicucore.A.dylib 868.19 Kb icu::ZoneMeta::getSingleCountry(icu::UnicodeString const&, icu::UnicodeString&) 2 libicucore.A.dylib 868.66 Kb icu::ZoneMeta::getSingleCountry(icu::UnicodeString const&, icu::UnicodeString&) 3 libicucore.A.dylib 868.67 Kb icu::ZoneMeta::getSingleCountry(icu::UnicodeString const&, icu::UnicodeString&) 4 libicucore.A.dylib 868.67 Kb icu::DateFormatSymbols::initZoneStringFormat() 5 libicucore.A.dylib 868.67 Kb icu::DateFormatSymbols::getZoneStringFormat() const 6 libicucore.A.dylib 868.67 Kb icu::SimpleDateFormat::subParse(icu::UnicodeString const&, int&, unsigned short, int, signed char, signed char, signed char*, icu::Calendar&) const 7 libicucore.A.dylib 868.67 Kb icu::SimpleDateFormat::parse(icu::UnicodeString const&, icu::Calendar&, icu::ParsePosition&) const 8 libicucore.A.dylib 868.67 Kb icu::DateFormat::parse(icu::UnicodeString const&, icu::ParsePosition&) const 9 libicucore.A.dylib 868.67 Kb udat_parse 10 CoreFoundation 868.67 Kb CFDateFormatterGetAbsoluteTimeFromString 11 CoreFoundation 868.67 Kb CFDateFormatterCreateDateFromString 12 Foundation 868.67 Kb -[NSDateFormatter getObjectValue:forString:range:error:] 13 Foundation 868.75 Kb -[NSDateFormatter getObjectValue:forString:errorDescription:] 14 Foundation 868.75 Kb -[NSDateFormatter dateFromString:] Thanks!

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  • SharePoint 2007 and SiteMinder

    - by pborovik
    Here is a question regarding some details how SiteMinder secures access to the SharePoint 2007. I've read a bunch of materials regarding this and have some picture for SharePoint 2010 FBA claims-based + SiteMinder security (can be wrong here, of course): SiteMinder is registered as a trusted identity provider for the SharePoint; It means (to my mind) that SharePoint has no need to go into all those user directories like AD, RDBMS or whatever to create a record for user being granted access to SharePoint - instead it consumes a claims-based id supplied by SiteMinder SiteMinder checks all requests to SharePoint resources and starts login sequence via SiteMinder if does not find required headers in the request (SMSESSION, etc.) SiteMinder creates a GenericIdentity with the user login name if headers are OK, so SharePoint recognizes the user as authenticated But in the case of SharePoint 2007 with FBA + SiteMinder, I cannot find an answer for questions like: Does SharePoint need to go to all those user directories like AD to know something about users (as SiteMinder is not in charge of providing user info like claims-based ids)? So, SharePoint admin should configure SharePoint FBA to talk to these sources? Let's say I'm talking to a Web Service of SharePoint protected by SiteMinder. Shall I make a Authentication.asmx-Login call to create a authentication ticket or this schema is somehow changed by the SiteMinder? If such call is needed, do I also need a SiteMinder authentication sequence? What prevents me from rewriting request headers (say, manually in Fiddler) before posting request to the SharePoint protected by SiteMinder to override its defence? Pity, but I do not have access to deployed SiteMinder + SharePoint, so need to investigate some question blindly. Thanks.

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  • structured vs. unstructured data in db

    - by Igor
    the question is one of design. i'm gathering a big chunk of performance data with lots of key-value pairs. pretty much everything in /proc/cpuinfo, /proc/meminfo/, /proc/loadavg, plus a bunch of other stuff, from several hundred hosts. right now, i just need to display the latest chunk of data in my UI. i will probably end up doing some analysis of the data gathered to figure out performance problems down the road, but this is a new application so i'm not sure what exactly i'm looking for performance-wise just yet. i could structure the data in the db -- have a column for each key i'm gathering. the table would end up being O(100) columns wide, it would be a pain to put into the db, i would have to add new columns if i start gathering a new stat. but it would be easy to sort/analyze the data just using SQL. or i could just dump my unstructured data blob into the table. maybe three columns -- host id, timestamp, and a serialized version of my array, probably using JSON in a TEXT field. which should I do? am i going to be sorry if i go with the unstructured approach? when doing analysis, should i just convert the fields i'm interested in and create a new, more structured table? what are the trade-offs i'm missing here?

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  • how to extend a protocol for a delegate in objective C, then subclass an object to require a conform

    - by fess .
    I want to subclass UITextView, and send a new message to the delegate. So, I want to extend the delegate protocol, What's the correct way to do this? I started out with this: interface: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @class MySubClass; @protocol MySubClassDelegate <UITextViewDelegate> - (void) MySubClassMessage: (MySubClass *) subclass; @end @interface MySubClass : UITextView { } @end implementation: #import "MySubClass.h" @implementation MySubClass - (void) SomeMethod; { if ([self.delegate respondsToSelector: @selector (MySubClassMessage:)]) { [self.delegate MySubClassMessage: self]; } } @end however with that I get the warning: '-MySubClassMessage:' not found in protocol(s). I had one way working where I created my own ivar to store the delegate, then also stored the delegate using [super setDelegate] but that seemed wrong. perhaps it's not. I know I can just pass id's around and get by, but My goal is to make sure that the compiler checks that any delegate supplied to MySubClass conforms to MySubClassDelegate protocol. To further clairfy: @interface MySubClassTester : NSObject { } @implementation MySubClassTester - (void) one { MySubClass *subclass = [[MySubClass alloc] init]; subclass.delegate = self; } @end will produce the warning: class 'MySubClassTester' does not implement the 'UITextViewDelegate' protocol I want it to produce the warning about not implementing 'MySubClassDelegate' protocol instead. Thanks, a bunch. (thanks brad)

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  • How to serialize a protected property in wcf

    - by Denis Rosca
    Hello, i need some help with wcf serializing. I have two classes Person and Address. The Address class looks like this: public class Adresa : IExtensibleDataObject { private Guid _id; [DataMember] protected virtual Guid Id { get { return _id; } set { _id = value; } } private ExtensionDataObject _extensionData; [DataMember] public virtual ExtensionDataObject ExtensionData { get { return _extensionData; } set { _extensionData = value; } } private string _street; [DataMember] public virtual string Street { get { return this._cUTAM; } set { this._cUTAM = value; } } private string _number; [DataMember] public virtual string Number { get { return this._number; } set { this._number = value; } } private string _postalCode; [DataMember] public virtual string PostalCode { get { return this._postalCode; } set { this._postalCode = value; } } // and some other stuff related to the address } The Person class looks like this: public class PersoanaFizica :IExtensibleDataObject { private Guid _id; [DataMember] protected virtual Guid Id { get { return _id; } set { _id = value; } } private ExtensionDataObject _extensionData; [DataMember] public virtual ExtensionDataObject ExtensionData { get { return _extensionData; } set { _extensionData = value; } } private string _firstName; [DataMember] public virtual string FirstName { get { return this._firstName; } set { this._firstName = value; } } private string _lastName; [DataMember] public virtual string LastName { get { return this._lastName; } set { this._lastName = value; } } } The problem is that when the wcf client the data the Id properties are set to a bunch of zeros ( something like 000000-0000-000000-0000000). Any ideas on why this is happening? Thanks, Denis.

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  • Programmatical Creation of NSMappingModel

    - by enchilada
    I want to programmatically (without Lightweight Migration) create a mapping model between two models that are exactly the same, except one of the entities (there are a bunch of entities) has different attributes. Let's call this entity "Person". And let's say the destination model has 1) added a new attribute called "address" 2) deleted an attribute called "eyeColor" 3) kept (i.e. not done anything with) an attribute called "name" How would you create an NSMappingModel between these models programmatically? I happen to have some explicit questions that might help me do this by myself: Q1) Do I have to create NSEntityMapping objects for all of the entities other than "Person", even if they remain unchanged? Q2) How do I deal with the "address" attribute in "Person", which is a new one being created? Should I create an NSPropertyMapping for that somehow, that turns nothing into something ("address")? Q3) How do I deal with the "name" attribute in "Person"? Do I have to create an NSPropertyMapping for that, even though it simply stays the same? Q4) For the NSEntityMapping corresponding to "Person", is not creating any NSPropertyMapping for "eyeColor" a proper way to get it deleted? Or should I create an NSPropertyMapping for "eyeColor"? If yes, how would this object be created, i.e. what would determine that its purpose is to get rid of "eyeColor"? Thank you in advance, and I apologize not being able to answer these questions myself, as the documenation really has no good example of how to create NSMappingModels programmatically. Note again that I'm not allowed to use Lightweight Migration. I must do this manually.

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  • Get the value for a WPF binding

    - by Jose
    Ok, I didn't want a bunch of ICommands in my MVVM ViewModels so I decided to create a MarkupExtension for WPF that you feed it a string(the name of the method), and it gives you back an ICommand that executes the method. here's a snippet: public class MethodCall : MarkupExtension { public MethodCall(string methodName) { MethodName = methodName; CanExecute = "Can" + methodName; } public override object ProvideValue(IServiceProvider serviceProvider) { Binding bin= new Binding { Converter = new MethodConverter(MethodName,CanExecute) }; return bin.ProvideValue(serviceProvider); } } public class MethodConverter : IValueConverter { string MethodName; public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { //Convert to ICommand ICommand cmd = ConvertToICommand(); if (cmd == null) Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("Could not bind to method 'MyMethod' on object",MethodName)); return cmd; } } It works great, except when the binding fails(e.g. you mistype). When you do this in xaml: {Binding MyPropertyName} you see in the output window whenever the binding fails. and it tells you the propertyName the Type name etc. The MethodConverter Class can tell you the name of the method that failed, but it can't tell you the source object type. Because the value will be null. I can't figure out how to store the source object type so for the following class public class MyClass { public void MyMethod() { } } and the following xaml: <Button Command={d:MethodCall MyMethod}>My Method</Button> It currently says: "Could not bind to method 'MyMethod' on object but I would like it to say: "Could not bind to method 'MyMethod' on object MyClass Any ideas?

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  • Error Log states that I have MySQL connect error, yet script runs fine

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hello All, First, thanks for all the help I've received so far from StackOverflow. I've learned much. Once again, I'm posing a rudimentary question that I've searched on, but cannot find the exact answer to. Here or on PHP.net. It's sort of like what this guy asked, but not exactly: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/288603/mysql-throwing-query-error-yet-finishing-query-just-fine-why So, I saw my errorlog ballooning up when I checked my site directory and opened to notice that a bunch of errors have been recorded since I wrote this new Admin area. I know something is obviously awry with my scripting for the error to be thrown, but the weird thing is, the script actually runs through and pulls all the data I need without breaking. The log contains: PHP Warning: mysql_query() [function.mysql-query]: Access denied for user 'someuser'@'localhost' (using password: NO) in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 15 I don't get that because that very line is where I setup my connection... the exact same way I do it everywhere else on the site with no problem. After that error, I have these thrown at the same time [09-Apr-2010 08:44:18] PHP Warning: mysql_query() [function.mysql-query]: A link to the server could not be established in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 15 [09-Apr-2010 08:44:18] PHP Warning: mysql_fetch_array(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource in /home/mysite/adminconsole.php on line 16 From what I read in the other guys thread, the problem is the contents of the query maybe? Maybe my query is malformed? Thanks so much for any guidance you can provide. -Rob

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  • Efficient way to handle multiple HTMLPurifier configs.

    - by anomareh
    I'm using HTMLPurifier in a current project and I'm not sure about the most efficient way to go about handling multiple configs. For the most part the only major thing changing is the allowed tags. Currently I have a private method, in each class using HTMLPurifier, that gets called when a config is needed and it creates one from the default. I'm not really happy with this as if 2 classes are using the same config, that's duplicating code, and what if a class needs 2 configs? It just feels messy. The one upside to it, is it's lazy in the sense that it's not creating anything until it's needed. The various classes could be used and never have to purify anything. So I don't want to be creating a bunch of config objects that might not even be used. I just recently found out that you can create a new instance of HTMLPurifier and directly set config options like so: $purifier = new HTMLPurifier(); $purifier->config->set('HTML.Allowed', ''); I'm not sure if that's bad form at all or not, and if it isn't I'm not really sure of a good way to put it to use. My latest idea was to create a config handler class that would just return an HTMLPurifier config for use in subsequent purify calls. At some point it could probably be expanded to allow the setting of configs, but just from the start I figured they'd just be hardcoded and run a method parameter through a switch to grab the requested config. Perhaps I could just send the stored purifier instance as an argument and have the method directly set the config on it like shown above? This to me seems the best of the few ways I thought of, though I'm not sure if such a task warrants me creating a class to handle it, and if so, if I'm handling it in the best way. I'm not too familiar with the inner workings of HTMLPurifier so I'm not sure if there are any better mechanisms in place for handling multiple configs. Thanks for any insight anyone can offer.

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  • Configure IIS7 to server static content through ASP.NET Runtime

    - by Anton Gogolev
    I searched high an low and still cannot find a definite answer. How do I configure IIS 7.0 or a Web Application in IIS so that ASP.NET Runtime will handle all requests -- including ones to static files like *.js, *.gif, etc? What I'm trying to do is as follows. We have kind of SaaSy site, which we can "skin" for every customer. "Skinnig" means developing a custom master page and using a bunch of *.css and other images. Quite naturally, I'm using VirtualPathProvider, which operates like this: public override System.Web.Hosting.VirtualFile GetFile(string virtualPath) { if(PhysicalFileExists(virtualPath)) { var virtualFile = base.GetFile(virtualPath); return virtualFile; } if(VirtualFileExists(virtualPath)) { var brandedVirtualPath = GetBrandedVirtualPath(virtualPath); var absolutePath = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(brandedVirtualPath); Trace.WriteLine(string.Format("Serving '{0}' from '{1}'", brandedVirtualPath, absolutePath), "BrandingAwareVirtualPathProvider"); var virtualFile = new VirtualFile(brandedVirtualPath, absolutePath); return virtualFile; } return null; } The basic idea is as follows: we have a branding folder inside our webapp, which in turn contains folders for each "brand", with "brand" being equal to host name. That is, requests to http://foo.example.com/ should use static files from branding/foo_example_com, whereas http://bar.example.com/ should use content from branding/bar_example_com. Now what I want IIS to do is to forward all requests to static files to StaticFileHandler, which would then use this whole "infrastructure" and serve correct files. However, try as I might, I cannot configure IIS to do this.

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  • How to pull one commit at a time from a remote git repository?

    - by Norman Ramsey
    I'm trying to set up a darcs mirror of a git repository. I have something that works OK, but there's a significant problem: if I push a whole bunch of commits to the git repo, those commits get merged into a single darcs patchset. I really want to make sure each git commit gets set up as a single darcs patchset. I bet this is possible by doing some kind of git fetch followed by interrogation of the local copy of the remote branch, but my git fu is not up to the job. Here's the (ksh) code I'm using now, more or less: git pull -v # pulls all the commits from remote --- bad! # gets information about only the last commit pulled -- bad! author="$(git log HEAD^..HEAD --pretty=format:"%an <%ae>")" logfile=$(mktemp) git log HEAD^..HEAD --pretty=format:"%s%n%b%n" > $logfile # add all new files to darcs and record a patchset. this part is OK darcs add -q --umask=0002 -r . darcs record -a -A "$author" --logfile="$logfile" darcs push -a rm -f $logfile My idea is Try git fetch to get local copy of the remote branch (not sure exactly what arguments are needed) Somehow interrogate the local copy to get a hash for every commit since the last mirroring operation (I have no idea how to do this) Loop through all the hashes, pulling just that commit and recording the associated patchset (I'm pretty sure I know how to do this if I get my hands on the hash) I'd welcome either help fleshing out the scenario above or suggestions about something else I should try. Ideas?

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  • How can I marshall a vector<int> from a C++ dll to a C# application?

    - by mmr
    I have a C++ function that produces a list of rectangles that are interesting. I want to be able to get that list out of the C++ library and back into the C# application that is calling it. So far, I'm encoding the rectangles like so: struct ImagePatch{ int xmin, xmax, ymin, ymax; } and then encoding some vectors: void MyFunc(..., std::vector<int>& rectanglePoints){ std::vector<ImagePatch> patches; //this is filled with rectangles for(i = 0; i < patches.size(); i++){ rectanglePoints.push_back(patches[i].xmin); rectanglePoints.push_back(patches[i].xmax); rectanglePoints.push_back(patches[i].ymin); rectanglePoints.push_back(patches[i].ymax); } } The header for interacting with C# looks like (and works for a bunch of other functions): extern "C" { __declspec(dllexport) void __cdecl MyFunc(..., std::vector<int>& rectanglePoints); } Are there some keywords or other things I can do to get that set of rectangles out? I found this article for marshalling objects in C#, but it seems way too complicated and way too underexplained. Is a vector of integers the right way to do this, or is there some other trick or approach?

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