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• Extracting the most duplicate value from an array in JavaScript (with jQuery)

  - by TK

  I have several array to deal with. I need to extract the most duplicate value from each array. From [3, 7, 7, 7], I need to find the value 7. Each array size is 4. For now, I don't have to think about when the most duplicate values are more than one such as [3, 7, 7, 7]. All the values are a number. I looked around the web. I found several ways to make an array to become uniq(). But I haven't found a way to get the duplicate value. I am using jQuery, but raw JavaScript is fine for this task.

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• Display the y value of a uiImageView during an animation

  - by user1422132

  I have the following code: NSString *yValue; yValue=[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"%1.2f" , imageView.center.y]; CGRect labelFrame = CGRectMake( 10, 100, 200, 50 ); UILabel* label5 = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame: labelFrame]; [label5 setBackgroundColor:[UIColor blackColor]]; [label5 setText: yValue]; [label5 setTextColor: [UIColor orangeColor]]; [self.view addSubview: label5]; This correctly shows the y value of the UIimageView but the problem is that it only shows the ending y value. When a person flicks the UIImageView I animate it using: [UIView animateWithDuration:2 delay:0 options:UIViewAnimationOptionCurveEaseOut animations:^{ recognizer.view.center = finalPoint; } What I want is the label5 to display the y value of the imageView during the animation not just after. Is it possible to do this?

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• get drop down value using dojo

  - by vetri

  I have struts code like <html:select property="ce"> <html:option value = "5">5</html:option> <html:option value = "10">10</html:option> <html:option value = "15">15</html:option> </html:select> <div id="dis"> <div> if a option is selected,dojo should get the valu and multiply by 10 and display that in the div?how to do that.

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• change value of input element!

  - by Lina

  is it able to "override/overwrite" an input element fixed value using javascript and/or jquery? i.e. if i have an input element like this: <div id="myDiv"> <input type="text" name="inputs" value="someValue" /> </div> is it possible to make a jquery object of that element and then change its value to something else then rewrite the jquery object to the dom?? i'm trying but obviously i haven't got good results! i've been trying something like this: $('input').val("someOtherDynamicValue"); var x = $('input'); $("#myDiv").html(x);

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• Output custom messages based on row value

  - by decimal

  I've made a simple guestbook mysql/php page. An entry is displayed if the approve column has a value of 1. For the adminstrator, I want to display either "message approved" or "not approved". Here's my code: while ($row = mysql_fetch_array ($r)) { print "<p>Guest:" .$row['name']. "</p> <p>Date:" .$row['date']. "</p> <p>Comment:". $row['comment']. "</p>"; if ($row['approve'] = '1') { print '<p>YES, the message has been approved</p>'; } else { print '<p>NO, it hasn\'t been approved</p>'; } Whatever value the if statement checks approve is equal to, all approve values are output as that value.

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• Select multiple submit issue - POST is empty if not selected

  - by Dasun

  I have a multiple select as below. It allows me to select options as below. Assume that 3 sports are selected. When the items are select as shown above form submit is successful. But unfortunately if the sports are not selected like below when the form is submitted post is empty. Select box <select style="width: 100px; height: 80px;" class="input" id="selected_sport_list" name="selected_sport_list[]" multiple=""> <option value="2">sport 2</option> <option value="3">sport 3</option> <option value="5">sport test x</option></select> How can I make sure that when the form is submitted particular items are selected? Is it possible to use jquery to fix this ? or how? Thanks

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• trouble with a javascript Cannot read property 'value' of

  - by Stanislas Piotrowski

  I've done a function but I do not understand why, a part of it does not work. Actualy I use the methode using className and Id. Here is the part of the code: var items = new Array(); var itemCount = document.getElementsByClassName("items"); for(var i = 0; i < itemCount.length; i++) { items[i] = document.getElementById("p"+(i+1)).value; } return items; } And in jsfiddle the html part that show that this Id exist. So it should not return to me this errors: Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'value' of null fiddle.jshell.net:402 the concerned line is the following: items[i] = document.getElementById("p"+(i+1)).value; http://jsfiddle.net/Wt4qd/ Kind Regards SP.

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• Java date long value changed after insert, select query

  - by StackExploded

  AFAIK, java Date type is independent from Timezone which means that it represents specific moment of time as long typed value. I found really weird thing here. This is the original value i tried to insert. (http-0.0.0.0-9080-4) 1352955600000 <-- long integer. (http-0.0.0.0-9080-4) Thu Nov 15 00:00:00 EST 2012 <-- User Friendly Format. After i finished inserting into Oracle 11g database, the value has changed! (http-0.0.0.0-9080-4) 1352952000000 (http-0.0.0.0-9080-4) Wed Nov 14 23:00:00 EST 2012 How could this happen?? The more weird thing is it only happens specific environments such as Jboss. I'm currently using below environments. java 1.6 ibatis 2.34 jboss-5.1 (server) tomcat 6.0 (local) oracle 11g Is there anybody who can give me a clue or link to be helpful? it really bugging me!!

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• jquery script to retrieve select value on click: works in Firefox, does not in Internet Explorer

  - by vatshal

  hi vatshal here; I am using a jquery script in which I am getting the current value of a select box on mouse click; it works on Mozila Firefox but doesn't work in Internet Explorer onclick in IE shows previous value from the select box id <select> <option>value1</option> <option>value2</option> </select> if we are clicking on value2 then jquery gets the value of the first element, but it is working on mozila firefox only; jquery code is given below: <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ $("#multiple").click(function(){ var a=$("#multiple").val(); $("#to").val(a); }); }); </script> Please help me

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• How to set a value from another class

  - by Ram

  Its said that property should not be "Set" only and it should be "Get" as well. What should i do if I need to set value to a variable from some other class? The will keep changing so I cannot pass it through constructor. Shall I create a function for this as shown below? class A { public void SetValue() { b = new B(); b.SetTest(10); } } class B { int test; public void SetTest(int value) { test = value; } } What are the other alternatives?

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• Submit form when selected value of select element is changed without javascript

  - by Roman Kupin

  Hi the question is pretty simple. <select name="justanumber"> <option value="1" selected="selected">1</option> <option value="2"></option> </select> when selected value is changed i have to do a form post. But the problem is to do this WITHOUT javascript. I'm not sure is it possible to do that, the best result i have archived is submit form using label for.

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• the way to get a value from a hidden type correctly

  - by kawtousse

  hey, in a html table i construct in each row an edit buttton like the following: retour.append("<input type=\"hidden\" id=\"id_"+nomTab+"_"+compteur+"\" value=\""+object.getIdDailyTimeSheet()+"\" name=\"hd_"+compteur+"\" />"); this is the hidden type then i do the following: retour.append("<button id=edit name=edit type=button onClick= editarow()>"); retour.append("<img src=edit.gif />"); retour.append("</button>"); retour.append("</td>"); here i am using the hidden type to differenciate between my rows with it. Now I am trying to get the parameter called here: value=\""+object.getIdDailyTimeSheet() in my servlet to do an update query based on the IdDailyTimeSheet. I didn't untill know find the way to get this value every time i click the edit button (i do its submit with the javascript). thanks for help.

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• Need Multiple Sudoku Solutions

  - by user1567909

  I'm trying to output multiple sudoku solutions in my program. For example, when You enter this as input: 8..6..9.5.............2.31...7318.6.24.....73...........279.1..5...8..36..3...... .'s denote blank spaces. Numbers represent already-filled spaces. The output should be a sudoku solution like so: 814637925325149687796825314957318462241956873638274591462793158579481236183562749 However, I want to output multiple solutions. This would be all the solutions that should be printed: 814637925325149687796825314957318462241956873638274591462793158579481236183562749 814637925325941687796825314957318462241569873638472591462793158579184236183256749 834671925125839647796425318957318462241956873368247591682793154579184236413562789 834671925125839647796524318957318462241956873368247591682793154519482736473165289 834671925125839647796524318957318462241965873368247591682793154519482736473156289 But my program only prints out one solution. Below is my recursive solution to solving a sudoku solution bool sodoku::testTheNumber(sodoku *arr[9][9], int row, int column) { if(column == 9) { column = 0; row++; if(row == 9) return true; } if(arr[row][column]->number != 0) { return testTheNumber(arr, row, column+1); } for(int k = 1; k < 10; k++) { if(k == 10) { arr[row][column]->number = 0; return false; } if(rowIsValid(arr, k, row) && columnIsValid(arr, k, column) && boxIsValid(arr, k, row, column)) { arr[row][column]->number = k; if(testTheNumber(arr, row, column+1)==true) { return true; } arr[row][column]->number = 0; } } return false; } Could anyone help me come up with a way to print out multiple solutions? Thanks.

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• Inserting timestamp value in SQL Server

  - by JPro

  I am trying to copy data from my MYSQL table to SQL Server using PHP. I have a TimeStamp value that needs to be copied. While I am trying to copy the fields, it gave an error that timestamp value cannot be inserted. Is there any way to insert the timestamp value? Is it is not possible, then declaring the column as nvarchar will insert the timestamp, but will I be able to search the data in a date range? Can anyone please clarify my doubt? Thanks.

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• Value [...] not a valid choice, django-updown

  - by tamara

  I am trying to implemet django-updown https://github.com/weluse/django-updown. When I try to add vote trough the admin panel it says Value 1 not a valid choice. This is the models.py from the application: _SCORE_TYPE_CHOICES = ( ('-1', 'DISLIKE'), ('1', 'LIKE'), ) SCORE_TYPES = dict((value, key) for key, value in _SCORE_TYPE_CHOICES) class Vote(models.Model): content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType, related_name="updown_votes") object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField() key = models.CharField(max_length=32) score = models.SmallIntegerField(choices=_SCORE_TYPE_CHOICES) user = models.ForeignKey(User, blank=True, null=True, related_name="updown_votes") ip_address = models.IPAddressField() date_added = models.DateTimeField(default=datetime.datetime.now, editable=False) date_changed = models.DateTimeField(default=datetime.datetime.now, editable=False) Do you have an idea what could be wrong?

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• Delphi - change text color based on current record value

  - by Welliam

  using db controls connected to a FireBird database. and I have a simple dblabel I want to change text color based on current value for current record The user navigate using the dbnavigator and I wrote code in the navigator button click. but there is a problem the code always read the previous record value not the current one so the color is wrong !! for example: procedure <navigator button click>; begin if table1.FieldByName('field1').AsString = 'val1' then <dblabel.textcolor> := red else <dblabel.textcolor> := green; end; but as I said the value is one record behind. why is that and what is the best approach to change label text color ? Thanks

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• How to set value from other class

  - by Ram

  Its said that property should not be "Set" only and it should be "Get" as well. What should i do if I need to set value to a variable from some other class? The will keep changing so I cannot pass it through constructor. Shall I create a function for this as shown below? class A { public void SetValue() { b = new B(); b.SetTest(10); } } class B { int test; public void SetTest(int value) { test = value; } } What are the other alternatives?

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• Authenticating Apache HTTPd against multiple LDAP servers with expired accounts

  - by Brian Bassett

  We're using mod_authnz_ldap and mod_authn_alias in Apache 2.2.9 (as shipped in Debian 5.0, 2.2.9-10+lenny7) to authenticate against multiple Active Directory domains for hosting a Subversion repository. Our current configuration is: # Turn up logging LogLevel debug # Define authentication providers <AuthnProviderAlias ldap alpha> AuthLDAPBindDN "CN=Subversion,OU=Service Accounts,O=Alpha" AuthLDAPBindPassword [[REDACTED]] AuthLDAPURL ldap://dc01.alpha:3268/?sAMAccountName?sub? </AuthnProviderAlias> <AuthnProviderAlias ldap beta> AuthLDAPBindDN "CN=LDAPAuth,OU=Service Accounts,O=Beta" AuthLDAPBindPassword [[REDACTED]] AuthLDAPURL ldap://ldap.beta:3268/?sAMAccountName?sub? </AuthnProviderAlias> # Subversion Repository <Location /svn> DAV svn SVNPath /opt/svn/repo AuthName "Subversion" AuthType Basic AuthBasicProvider alpha beta AuthzLDAPAuthoritative off AuthzSVNAccessFile /opt/svn/authz require valid-user </Location> We're encountering issues with users that have accounts in both Alpha and Beta, especially when their accounts in Alpha are expired (but still present; company policy is that the accounts live on for at a minimum of 1 year). For example, when the user x (which has en expired account in Alpha, and a valid account in Beta), the Apache error log reports the following: [Tue May 11 13:42:07 2010] [debug] mod_authnz_ldap.c(377): [client 10.1.1.104] [14817] auth_ldap authenticate: using URL ldap://dc01.alpha:3268/?sAMAccountName?sub? [Tue May 11 13:42:08 2010] [warn] [client 10.1.1.104] [14817] auth_ldap authenticate: user x authentication failed; URI /svn/ [ldap_simple_bind_s() to check user credentials failed][Invalid credentials] [Tue May 11 13:42:08 2010] [error] [client 10.1.1.104] user x: authentication failure for "/svn/": Password Mismatch [Tue May 11 13:42:08 2010] [debug] mod_deflate.c(615): [client 10.1.1.104] Zlib: Compressed 527 to 359 : URL /svn/ Attempting to authenticate as a non-existant user (nobodycool) results in the correct behavior of querying both LDAP servers: [Tue May 11 13:42:40 2010] [debug] mod_authnz_ldap.c(377): [client 10.1.1.104] [14815] auth_ldap authenticate: using URL ldap://dc01.alpha:3268/?sAMAccountName?sub? [Tue May 11 13:42:40 2010] [warn] [client 10.1.1.104] [14815] auth_ldap authenticate: user nobodycool authentication failed; URI /svn/ [User not found][No such object] [Tue May 11 13:42:40 2010] [debug] mod_authnz_ldap.c(377): [client 10.1.1.104] [14815] auth_ldap authenticate: using URL ldap://ldap.beta:3268/?sAMAccountName?sub? [Tue May 11 13:42:44 2010] [warn] [client 10.1.1.104] [14815] auth_ldap authenticate: user nobodycool authentication failed; URI /svn/ [User not found][No such object] [Tue May 11 13:42:44 2010] [error] [client 10.1.1.104] user nobodycool not found: /svn/ [Tue May 11 13:42:44 2010] [debug] mod_deflate.c(615): [client 10.1.1.104] Zlib: Compressed 527 to 359 : URL /svn/ How do I configure Apache to correctly query Beta if it encounters an expired account in Alpha?

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• Splitting an internet connection between multiple separate subnetworks

  - by pythonian4000

  Problem I have an internet connection that I want to split between four separate networks. My requirements are: I need to be able to monitor the amount of bandwidth and data being used by each network, and notify or control as necessary. The four networks should only be able to connect to the internet, not each other. My parents need to be able to operate it, so it needs a simple, preferably Windows-based GUI. Progress so far Server I have a mini-ITX server with six Gigabit ethernet ports - one for the ethernet internet connection, one for each of the four networks, and one for remote access to the server for administration. Bandwidth control I spent a long time researching solutions here. The majority of the control systems/software I found could control bandwidth usage via QOS, but could not monitor or control the amount of data being used. Eventually I found the SoftPerfect Bandwidth Manager, which has everything I need in terms of monitoring and control - per-interface quota management, usage statistics, a web interface for checking usage, and email notifications when quotas are exceeded. It is also Windows-based and has a simple GUI. Internet sharing This is where I am having issues. I am currently using Windows XP Pro SP2 for the server (yes, I know this is far from ideal, but it's the only spare Windows OS I currently have). I can't use the built-in Internet Connection Sharing for several reasons: The upstream internet router has an IP of 192.168.0.1 which ICS clashes with, and I cannot change the router settings. ICS can only share an internet connection with a single interface, but I have four. I have tried bridging the four network cards, but then the Bandwidth Manager cannot see the four individual interfaces - it only sees the bridge. I have tried setting up Dual DHCP DNS server (and am having issues getting DHCP offers to be received by clients), but that would still require gateway software of some sort, which I have been unable to find. My current attempt is to use OpenVPN, with a server for the internet NIC and a separate client for each of the four networks. My thought is that I could bridge the OpenVPN TAP devices to each NIC, meaning that the Bandwidth Manager would control traffic from the bridge instead of the interface. I have not made much progress here though - I've never used OpenVPN before. Questions Is there a Windows software package that does everything I need? (Unlikely, I know) Is there a Windows software package that will share internet between multiple NICs without bridging? Are either of my about attempts feasible? Would it help to have a newer/server version of Windows? Is there a non-Windows alternative that is easy to use?

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• Using Amazon S3 for multiple remote data site uploads, securely

  - by Aitch

  I've been playing about with Amazon S3 a little for the first time and like what I see for various reasons relating to my potential use case. We have multiple (online) remote server boxes harvesting sensor data that is regularly uploaded every hour or so (rsync'ed) to a VPS server. The number of remote server boxes is growing regularly and forecast to keep growing (hundreds). The servers are geographically dispersed. The servers are also automatically built, therefore generic with standard tools and not bespoke per location. The data is many hundreds of files per day. I want to avoid a situation where I need to provision more VPS storage, or additional servers every time we hit the VPS capacity limit, after every N server deployments, whatever N might be. The remote servers can never be considered fully secure due to us not knowing what might happen to them when we are not looking. Our current solution is a bit naive and simply restricts inbound rsync only over ssh to known mac address directories and a known public key. There are plenty of holes to pick in this, I know. Let's say I write or use a script like s3cmd/s3sync to potentially push up the files. Would I need to manage hundreds of access keys and have each server customized to include this (do-able, but key management becomes nightmarish?) Could I restrict inbound connections somehow (eg by mac address), or just allow write-only to any client that was running the script? ( i could deal with a flood of data if someone got into a system? ) having a bucket per remote machine does not seem feasible due to bucket limits? I don't think I want to use a single common key as if one machine is breached then potentially, a malicious hack could get access to the filestore key and start deleting for ll clients, correct? I hope my inexperience has not blinded me to some other solution that might be suggested! I've read lots of examples of people using S3 for backup, but can't really find anything about this sort of data collection, unless my google terminology is wrong... I've written more than I should here, perhaps it can be summarised thus: In a perfect world I just want to have one of our techs install a new remote server into a location and it automagically starts sending files home with little or no intervention, and minimises risk? Pipedream or feasible? TIA, Aitch

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• shell script to start multiple Java programs from a directory at boot

  - by zcourts

  I'm not sure if this is the best approach to this, It's my first time doing all of this (including writing shell scripts). OS: Centos My problem: I want to start multiple shell scripts at boot. One of the shell scripts is to start my own services and 3 others are for third party services. The shell script to start my own services will be looking for jar files. I currently have two services (will change), written in Java. All services are named under convention prefix-service-servicename What I've done: I created the following directory structure /home/username/scripts init.sh boot/ boot/startthirdprtyservice1.sh boot/startthirdprtyservice2.sh boot/startthirdprtyservice3.sh boot/startmyservices.sh /home/username/services prefix-lib-libraryname.jar prefix-lib-libraryname.jar prefix-service-servicename.jar prefix-service-servicename.jar prefix-service-servicename.jar In init.sh I have the following: #!/bin/sh #This scripts run all executable scripts in the boot directory at boot #done by adding this script to the file /etc/rc.d/rc.local #nohup #run-parts /home/username/scripts/boot/* #for each file in the boot dir... # ignore the HUP (hangup) signal for s in ./boot/*;do if [ -x $s ]; then echo "Starting $s" nohup $s & fi done echo "Done starting bootup scripts " echo "\n" In the script boot/startmyservices.sh I have #!/bin/sh fnmatch () { case "$2" in $1) return 0 ;; esac ; return 1 ; } ##sub strin to match for SUBSTRING="prefix-service" for s in /home/username/services/*;do if [ -x $s ]; then #match service in the filename , i.e. only services are started if fnmatch "$SUBSTRING" "$s" ; then echo "Starting $s " nohup $s & fi fi done echo "Done starting Services" echo "\n" Finally: Usually you can stick a program in /etc/rc.d/rc.local for it to be run at boot but I don't think this works in this case, or rather I don't know what to put in there I've just learnt how to do this by reading up a bit so I'm not sure its particularly the best thing to do so any advice is appreciated. When I run init.sh nohup.out contains Starting the thirdparty daemon... thirdparty started... .... but nothing from myservices.sh and my Java services aren't running I'm not sure where to start debugging or what could be going wrong. Edit Found some issues and got it to work, used -x instead of -n to check if the string is none zero, needed the sub string check to also be if [[ $s = $SUBSTRING ]] ; then and this last one was just stupid, missing java -jar in front of $s Still unsure of how to get init.sh to run at boot though

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• Multiple SSL Certificates Running on Mac OS X 10.6

  - by frodosghost.mp

  I have been running into walls with this for a while, so I posted at stackoverflow, and I was pointed over here... I am attempting to setup multiple IP addresses on Snow Leopard so that I can develop with SSL certificates. I am running XAMPP - I don't know if that is the problem, but I guess I would run into the same problems, considering the built in apache is turned off. So first up I looked into starting up the IPs on start up. I got up an running with a new StartupItem that runs correctly, because I can ping the ip address: ping 127.0.0.2 ping 127.0.0.1 And both of them work. So now I have IP addresses, which as you may know are not standard on OSx. I edited the /etc/hosts file to include the new sites too: 127.0.0.1 site1.local 127.0.0.2 site2.local I had already changed the httpd.conf to use the httpd-vhosts.conf - because I had a few sites running on the one IP address. I have edited the vhosts file so a site looks like this: <VirtualHost 127.0.0.1:80> DocumentRoot "/Users/jim/Documents/Projects/site1/web" ServerName site1.local <Directory "/Users/jim/Documents/Projects/site1"> Order deny,allow Deny from All Allow from 127.0.0.1 AllowOverride All </Directory> </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost 127.0.0.1:443> DocumentRoot "/Users/jim/Documents/Projects/site1/web" ServerName site1.local SSLEngine On SSLCertificateFile "/Applications/XAMPP/etc/ssl-certs/myssl.crt" SSLCertificateKeyFile "/Applications/XAMPP/etc/ssl-certs/myssl.key" SetEnvIf User-Agent ".*MSIE.*" nokeepalive ssl-unclean-shutdown <Directory "/Users/jim/Documents/Projects/site1"> Order deny,allow Deny from All Allow from 127.0.0.1 AllowOverride All </Directory> </VirtualHost> In the above code, you can change the 1's to 2's and it is the setup for the second site. They do use the same certificate, which is why they are on different IP addresses. I also included the NameVirtualHost information at the top of the file: NameVirtualHost 127.0.0.1:80 NameVirtualHost 127.0.0.2:80 NameVirtualHost 127.0.0.1:443 NameVirtualHost 127.0.0.2:443 I can ping site1.local and site2.local. I can use telnet ( telnet site2.local 80 ) to get into both sites. But in Safari I can only get to the first site1.local - navigating to site2.local gives me either the localhost main page (which is included in the vhosts) or gives me a Access forbidden!. I am usure what to do, any suggestions would be awesome.

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• PowerDNS CNAME with multiple A records produces unexpected results

  - by bwight

  This problem from what i can tell is isolated to PowerDNS. The servers are running two packages pdns-static-3.0.1-1.i386.rpm and pdns-recursor-3.3-1.i386.rpm on the most recent version of Amazon Linux. The amazon ec2 loadbalancers are assigned a CNAME with multiple hosts. Below is an example of the actual behavior. Notice how the hosts are always in the same order. [root@localhost ~]# host cache.domain.com cache.domain.com is an alias for xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com. xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com has address aaa.aaa.aaa.aaa xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com has address bbb.bbb.bbb.bbb [root@localhost ~]# host cache.domain.com cache.domain.com is an alias for xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com. xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com has address aaa.aaa.aaa.aaa xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com has address bbb.bbb.bbb.bbb [root@localhost ~]# host cache.domain.com cache.domain.com is an alias for xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com. xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com has address aaa.aaa.aaa.aaa xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com has address bbb.bbb.bbb.bbb Expected behavior is round robin for the hosts [root@localhost ~]# host cache.domain.com cache.domain.com is an alias for xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com. xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com has address aaa.aaa.aaa.aaa xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com has address bbb.bbb.bbb.bbb [root@localhost ~]# host cache.domain.com cache.domain.com is an alias for xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com. xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com has address bbb.bbb.bbb.bbb xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com has address aaa.aaa.aaa.aaa [root@localhost ~]# host cache.domain.com cache.domain.com is an alias for xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com. xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com has address aaa.aaa.aaa.aaa xxxxx.us-east-1.elb.amazonaws.com has address bbb.bbb.bbb.bbb The addresses eventually do swap but it seems to be on a 30 minute cache timer changing the TTL of the record doesn't appear to affect anything. It appears as though the resolver has a cache of the response. This adversely affects my application because all of the load is only being sent to one of the loadbalancers (Availability Zones) so if I have servers in two zones then only one zone is under load at a time. Do you know how I can fix this so that each time the host is resolved the order of the addresses is alternating.

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• Planning trunk capacity for multiple GbE switches

  - by wuckachucka

  Without measuring throughput (it's at the top of the list; this is just theoretical), I want to know the most standard method for trunking VLANs on multiple Gigabit (GbE) switches to a core Layer 3 GbE switch. Say you have three VLANs: VLAN10 (10.0.0.0/24) Servers: your typical Windows DC/file server, Exchange, and an Accounting/SQL server. VLAN20: (10.0.1.0/24) Sales: needs access to everything on VLAN10; doesn't need access to VLAN30 and vice-versa. VLAN20: (10.0.1.0/24) Support: needs access to everything on VLAN10; doesn't need access to VLAN20 and vice-versa. Here's how I think this should work in my head: Switch #1: Ports 2-20 are assigned to VLAN20; all the Sales workstations and printers are connected here. Optional 10GbE combo port #1 is trunked to L3 switch's 10 GbE combo port #1. Switch #2: Ports 2-20 are assigned to VLAN30; all the Support workstations and printers are connected here. Optional 10GbE combo port #1 is trunked to L3 switch's 10 GbE combo port #2. Core L3 switch: Ports 2-10 are assigned to VLAN10; all three servers are connected here. With a standard 10/100 x 24 switch, it'll usually come with one or two 1 GbE uplink ports; carrying over this logic to a 10/100/1000 x 24, the "optional" 10 GbE combo ports that most higher-end switches can get shouldn't really be an option. Keep in mind I haven't tested anything yet, I'm primarily moving in this direction for growth (don't want to buy 10/100 switches and have to replace those within a couple of years) and security (being able to control access between VLANs with L3 routing/packet filtering ACLs). Does this sound right? Do I really need the 10 GbE ports? It seems very non-standard and expensive, but it "feels" right when you think about 40 or 50 workstations trunking up to the L3 switch over 1 GbE standard ports. If say 20 workstations want to download a 10 GB image from the servers concurrently, wouldn't the trunk be the bottleneck? At least if the trunk was 10 GbE, you'd have 10x1GbE nodes being able to reach their theoretical max. What about switch stacking? Some of the D-Links I've been looking at have HDMI interfaces for stacking. As far as I know, stacking two switches creates one logical switch, but is this just for management I/O or does the switches use the (assuming it's HDMI 1.3) 10.2 Gbps for carrying data back and forth?

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• OpenVPN multiple servers on the same subnet, high availability

  - by andre

  Hey everyone. Let me start by saying that my Linux experience isn't super awesome but I can usually find my way around things easily. Over at work we have an OpenVPN setup that's been due for some improvement for a while now. The main server (tap mode) runs in our office, behind a rather slow DSL connection. The main problem is that, since I'm usually out of the office, every time I want to access something on the virtual network I have to go through that server to get anywhere else. We have two servers up on 100 Mbit connections that we use for development and production purposes, about 3 more servers in the office (one of them behind a different T1 line for VOIP) and about two dozen clients who use the network on a daily basis from various locations. We've had situations where network routing (outside of our control) would not allow people to reach our main OpenVPN server whilst the other locations were connectable. Also any time someone outside the office wants to fetch something from any of the servers (say, a 500 MB code repository), a whopping 20 KB/s download speed is just unacceptable these days (did I mention slow DSL? ok). We had to implement traffic shaping on this server since maxing out this connection was fairly trivial. I had the thought of running two (or more) OpenVPN servers in the network. These would have to have the same subnet though, as our application relies on virtual network's IP addresses for some of its core functionality. The clients would also preferably retain the same IP addresses but that's not vital. For simplicity, lets call the current server office and the second server I'm setting up, cloud. Call the server on the T1 phone. This proved to be rather complex because as soon as I connect to cloud, I cannot see office. Any routes to a server that would go through office also do not work while I'm connected to cloud (no ping, nothing) and vice-versa. There's no rules for iptables that would be blocking the traffic either. Recently I came across this article on linuxjournal but the solution they provide seems to only cover the use of two servers and somewhat outdated (can't even find much documentation, their wiki is offline). They also state that adding more servers would be a complex task. Ideally I would like to keep the existing server office running the virtual network and also run the OpenVPN daemon on the cloud and phone servers (100 Mbit and very reliable connection, respectively) so that we're on safe ground in case of a hardware failure, DSL failure, etc. So, in essence, I'm looking for a highly available OpenVPN solution (fix, patch, hack, tweak, whatever you want to call it) that will accept connections on multiple hosts (2 or more) whilst keeping the same IP address subnet regardless of the server to which you connect to. Thanks for reading and sorry for the long post, I hope it gets the point across :P

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