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  • How to setup an hibernate project using annotations compliant with JPA2.0

    - by phmr
    I would like to setup an hibernate project, for this I use the lastest hibernate 3.5-Final. BTW my IDE is Netbeans. The problem is that each time a run the application, it seems to start from a fresh database whatever db backend I use (I tried hsqldb & sqlite): here is my persistence.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence version="1.0" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_1_0.xsd"> <persistence-unit name="PMMPU" transaction-type="RESOURCE_LOCAL"> <provider>org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence</provider> <class>model.Extrait</class> <class>model.Mot</class> <class>model.Prefixe</class> <class>model.Suffixe</class> <class>model.Texte</class> <properties> <property name="hibernate.dialect" value="dialect.SQLiteDialect"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.username" value=""/> <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="org.sqlite.JDBC"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.password" value=""/> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:sqlite:test.db"/> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class" value="org.hibernate.cache.NoCacheProvider"/> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto" value="update"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> </persistence> I tried to change hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto value. I got a HibernateUtil class which takes care of creating the emf & em: public class HibernateUtil { private static EntityManagerFactory emf = null; private static EntityManager em = null; public static EntityManagerFactory getEmf() { if(emf == null) emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("PMMPU"); return emf; } public static EntityManager getEm() { if(em == null) em = getEmf().createEntityManager(); return em; } What did a I do wrong ? edit1: further research with mysql lead me to think that the problem is related to sqlite & hsqldb interaction with hibernate 3.5

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  • Error accessing a Web Service with SSL

    - by Elie
    I have a program that is supposed to send a file to a web service, which requires an SSL connection. I run the program as follows: SET JAVA_HOME=C:\Program Files\Java\jre1.6.0_07 SET com.ibm.SSL.ConfigURL=ssl.client.props "%JAVA_HOME%\bin\java" -cp ".;Test.jar" ca.mypackage.Main This was works fine, but when I change the first line to SET JAVA_HOME=C:\Program Files\IBM\SDP\runtimes\base_v7\java\jre I get the following error: com.sun.xml.internal.ws.client.ClientTransportException: HTTP transport error: java.net.SocketException: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: Cannot find the specified class com.ibm.websphere.ssl.protocol.SSLSocketFactory at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client.HttpClientTransport.getOutput(HttpClientTransport.java:119) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client.HttpTransportPipe.process(HttpTransportPipe.java:140) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client.HttpTransportPipe.processRequest(HttpTransportPipe.java:86) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.api.pipe.Fiber.__doRun(Fiber.java:593) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.api.pipe.Fiber._doRun(Fiber.java:552) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.api.pipe.Fiber.doRun(Fiber.java:537) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.api.pipe.Fiber.runSync(Fiber.java:434) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.client.Stub.process(Stub.java:247) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.client.sei.SEIStub.doProcess(SEIStub.java:132) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.client.sei.SyncMethodHandler.invoke(SyncMethodHandler.java:242) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.client.sei.SyncMethodHandler.invoke(SyncMethodHandler.java:222) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.client.sei.SEIStub.invoke(SEIStub.java:115) at $Proxy26.fileSubmit(Unknown Source) at com.testing.TestingSoapProxy.fileSubmit(TestingSoapProxy.java:81) at ca.mypackage.Main.main(Main.java:63) Caused by: java.net.SocketException: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: Cannot find the specified class com.ibm.websphere.ssl.protocol.SSLSocketFactory at javax.net.ssl.DefaultSSLSocketFactory.a(SSLSocketFactory.java:7) at javax.net.ssl.DefaultSSLSocketFactory.createSocket(SSLSocketFactory.java:1) at com.ibm.net.ssl.www2.protocol.https.c.afterConnect(c.java:110) at com.ibm.net.ssl.www2.protocol.https.d.connect(d.java:14) at sun.net.www.protocol.http.HttpURLConnection.getOutputStream(HttpURLConnection.java:902) at com.ibm.net.ssl.www2.protocol.https.b.getOutputStream(b.java:86) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client.HttpClientTransport.getOutput(HttpClientTransport.java:107) ... 14 more Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: Cannot find the specified class com.ibm.websphere.ssl.protocol.SSLSocketFactory at javax.net.ssl.SSLJsseUtil.b(SSLJsseUtil.java:20) at javax.net.ssl.SSLSocketFactory.getDefault(SSLSocketFactory.java:36) at javax.net.ssl.HttpsURLConnection.getDefaultSSLSocketFactory(HttpsURLConnection.java:16) at javax.net.ssl.HttpsURLConnection.<init>(HttpsURLConnection.java:36) at com.ibm.net.ssl.www2.protocol.https.b.<init>(b.java:1) at com.ibm.net.ssl.www2.protocol.https.Handler.openConnection(Handler.java:11) at java.net.URL.openConnection(URL.java:995) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.api.EndpointAddress.openConnection(EndpointAddress.java:206) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client.HttpClientTransport.createHttpConnection(HttpClientTransport.java:277) at com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client.HttpClientTransport.getOutput(HttpClientTransport.java:103) ... 14 more So it seems that this problem would be related to the JRE I'm using, but what doesn't seem to make sense is that the non-IBM JRE works fine, but the IBM JRE does not. Any ideas, or suggestions?

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  • Form submit to target iframe only works once

    - by Pointy
    I'm having a really irritating problem doing something that I'm sure I've done before. The setup is this: There's a form which is submitted via a "click" handler on a button, though the submit is ultimately a simple call to the form's native submit() function. The form's target is an iframe, which is initially filled with an empty page (that is, its source object is an URL for an empty page). That is, the "target" attribute of the form is the same identifier (and yes, it's a valid identifier) as the "name" and "id" attributes of the iframe (and yes, it's unique) Now the goal of this setup is as follows: the form contains file upload fields. Should something be wrong with one of the files uploaded, the server will report back an error. If the error response (that is, the html page with a new copy of the form, along with appropriate error messages) were to be allowed to reload the original window, then the file input fields would be cleared. That's not good. Thus the form submits to the iframe, so that the response from the server can be a small page that knows it's in that hidden iframe, and knows to move the error messages up to the form. One more thing: the form itself is also in an iframe, as part of a popup modal dialog (like a jQuery UI dialog, only slightly different; same idea though). The setup works fine - on the first submit. In other words, if I supply nice happy files to upload, the server ships back the successful response, and the dialog is closed correctly. If I send a bogus file, the server responds with an error page that correctly copies its stuff up to the form page. On the second submit, however (like, if I fix the bogus file input field), the browser insists on sending the server response to a new browser tab. As far as I can tell, the form's "target" remains correct, the iframe "name" and "id" attributes aren't changed, and I even make sure to update the hidden iframe "window.name" and "window.id" values. None of that is helping; I always get a new browser tab. I'm trying to set up a slightly simpler test case to see if I can rule out some of my framework code (the stuff that does the submit), though via a few console.log() calls I think that stuff is OK; it's certainly OK on all the other dialogs etc. in the site. When/if I create a simpler version I'll post it. In the meantime, if any of you insanely smart people recognize this situation and know of a trick to make it work, I'd be really thankful. I see the same behavior in both Firefox (3.6) and Chrome, so it's got to be my problem and not a browser quirk (well, at least that's what I think to be true).

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  • When -exactly- does the Rails3 application get initialized?

    - by bergyman
    I've been fighting left and right with rails 3 and bundler. There are a few gems out there that don't work properly if the rails application hasn't been loaded yet. factory_girl and shoulda are both examples, even on the rails3 branch. Taking shoulda as an example, when trying to run rake test:units I get the following error: DEPRECATION WARNING: RAILS_ROOT is deprecated! Use Rails.root instead. (called from autoload_macros at c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:40) c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:44:in 'join': can't convert #<Class:0x232b7c0> into String (TypeError) from c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:44:in 'block in autoload_macros' from c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:44:in 'map' from c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:44:in 'autoload_macros' from c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/rails.rb:17:in '<top (required)>' Digging a bit deeper into lib/shoulda/rails, I see this: root = if defined?(Rails.root) && Rails.root Rails.root else RAILS_ROOT end # load in the 3rd party macros from vendorized plugins and gems Shoulda.autoload_macros root, File.join("vendor", "{plugins,gems}", "*") So...what's happening here is while Rails.root is defined, Rails.root == nil, so RAILS_ROOT is used, and RAILS_ROOT==nil, which is then being passed on to Shoulda.autoload_macros. Obviously the rails app has yet to be initialized. With Rails3 using Bundler now, there's been some hubub over on the Bundler side about being able to specify an order in which the gems are required, but I'm not sure whether or not this would solve the problem at hand. Ultimately my questions is this: When exactly does the environment.rb file (which actually initializes the application) get pulled in? Is there any harm to bumping up when the app is initialized and have it happen before the Bundler.require line in config/application.rb? I've tried to hack bundler to specify the order myself, and have the rails gem pulled in first, but it doesn't appear to me that requiring the rails gem actually initializes the application. As this line (in config/application.rb) is being called before the app is initialized, any gem in the bundler Gemfile that requires rails to be initialized is going to tank. # Auto-require default libraries and those for the current Rails environment. Bundler.require :default, Rails.env

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  • Collapse span when input button is hidden

    - by Evan
    I have a style that wraps around an input button, so the button can be styled very creatively. When the button is hidden in .Net, i would like the style to collapse so it renders like its hidden as well. What the style does, as a result of no value in the button or its hidden, is it keeps a small shape. Click to see a demo: http://media.apus.edu/it/evan-testing/button.htm <style> .button { cursor:pointer; text-decoration:none; background:url(button_bg.gif) no-repeat right top; padding-right:10px; display:inline-block; line-height:29px; height:29px; font-size:12px; color:#FFFFFF; font-weight:bold; } span.button { vertical-align: middle; } .button span { background:url(button_bg.gif) no-repeat left top; padding-left:10px; line-height:20px; height:29px; display:inline-block; } .button span span { background:transparent; padding:0; font-size:12px; } .button span input { cursor:pointer; font-weight:bold; background:transparent; border:0; padding-top:.4em; font-size:12px; font-family:verdana; color:#FFFFFF; } .button:hover { background-position:right -39px; } .button:hover span { background-position:left -39px; } .button:active { background-position:right -78px; } .button:active span { background-position:left -78px; } </style> Input button wrapped in a span with no value: <span class="button"><span><input type="button" value=""></span></span> <P> Input button wrapped in a span with a value: <span class="button"><span><input type="button" value="test"></span></span> <P> Span with no data value: <span class="button"><span></span>

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  • Python performance: iteration and operations on nested lists

    - by J.J.
    Problem Hey folks. I'm looking for some advice on python performance. Some background on my problem: Given: A mesh of nodes of size (x,y) each with a value (0...255) starting at 0 A list of N input coordinates each at a specified location within the range (0...x, 0...y) Increment the value of the node at the input coordinate and the node's neighbors within range Z up to a maximum of 255. Neighbors beyond the mesh edge are ignored. (No wrapping) BASE CASE: A mesh of size 1024x1024 nodes, with 400 input coordinates and a range Z of 75 nodes. Processing should be O(x*y*Z*N). I expect x, y and Z to remain roughly around the values in the base case, but the number of input coordinates N could increase up to 100,000. My goal is to minimize processing time. Current results I have 2 current implementations: f1, f2 Running speed on my 2.26 GHz Intel Core 2 Duo with Python 2.6.1: f1: 2.9s f2: 1.8s f1 is the initial naive implementation: three nested for loops. f2 is replaces the inner for loop with a list comprehension. Code is included below for your perusal. Question How can I further reduce the processing time? I'd prefer sub-1.0s for the test parameters. Please, keep the recommendations to native Python. I know I can move to a third-party package such as numpy, but I'm trying to avoid any third party packages. Also, I've generated random input coordinates, and simplified the definition of the node value updates to keep our discussion simple. The specifics have to change slightly and are outside the scope of my question. thanks much! f1 is the initial naive implementation: three nested for loops. 2.9s def f1(x,y,n,z): rows = [] for i in range(x): rows.append([0 for i in xrange(y)]) for i in range(n): inputX, inputY = (int(x*random.random()), int(y*random.random())) topleft = (inputX - z, inputY - z) for i in xrange(max(0, topleft[0]), min(topleft[0]+(z*2), x)): for j in xrange(max(0, topleft[1]), min(topleft[1]+(z*2), y)): if rows[i][j] <= 255: rows[i][j] += 1 f2 is replaces the inner for loop with a list comprehension. 1.8s def f2(x,y,n,z): rows = [] for i in range(x): rows.append([0 for i in xrange(y)]) for i in range(n): inputX, inputY = (int(x*random.random()), int(y*random.random())) topleft = (inputX - z, inputY - z) for i in xrange(max(0, topleft[0]), min(topleft[0]+(z*2), x)): l = max(0, topleft[1]) r = min(topleft[1]+(z*2), y) rows[i][l:r] = [j+1 for j in rows[i][l:r] if j < 255]

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  • Default Database Collations got messed up

    - by dominicdinada
    I am using Ubuntu 9.10 with XAMPP ( Lampp "MYSQL 5.1.45 PHPMYADMIN 3.3.1 PHP 5.3.2 ) What my problem is, is that I set up my testing env to debug my scripts locally and when I did so there arose a problem. This problem is that I used firefox's addon SQLinject ME to test for weakness' and upon doing so it caused mysql to change the default local collations; character sets dir /opt/lampp/share/mysql/charsets/ collation connection latin1_general_ci (Global value) latin1_swedish_ci collation database latin1_swedish_ci collation server latin1_swedish_ci I have searched for quite sometime in regards to a solution to this problem and have come up with searching for the db.opt file which stores this information without success. Upon not finding a solution I removed lampp with the "sudo rm -fR /opt" command and reinstall and the problem still persists. I have tried to change the collations manually and still come up with the database displaying latin1_swedish_ci as the default language. Why is this a problem?? Why is it a problem with mysql? Because the application I am testing and debugging locally is built on the CodeIgnitor with Smarty framework and since this combination of framework is built to detect the LOCALES, Rather what the database defaults are I keep getting errors saying no language file for swedish...... Of course I could get the swedish language file to work around this problem but I do not feel the need to make this work around a perminant solution as with time when I move on to projects I will run into simular problems every time that A; When importing database files, backups etc it will default to import such databases as the locale swedish. B; As time passes on I might completly forget of this error and will be back to square one. I have found this code in searches for a fix,which seems to alter the tables to a desired Collaion; $value) { mysql_query("ALTER TABLE $value COLLATE latin1_general_ci"); }} echo "The collation of your database has been successfully changed!"; ? Which is handy to switch collations in One Schema at a time however this is not a fix when a framework doesnt care that the said database is in one langugae. It tests for the Default of the entire server. Someone with any knowledge of a purge or fix to this I would greatly appricate the help. One more final note is that when I was testing I only figured to back up the applications DataBase and not the entire Schema of the install. No matter if I uninstall or reinstall the database still seems to carry these problems.

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  • Loading, listing, and using R Modules and Functions in PL/R

    - by Dave Jarvis
    I am having difficulty with: Listing the R packages and functions available to PostgreSQL. Installing a package (such as Kendall) for use with PL/R Calling an R function within PostgreSQL Listing Available R Packages Q.1. How do you find out what R modules have been loaded? SELECT * FROM r_typenames(); That shows the types that are available, but what about checking if Kendall( X, Y ) is loaded? For example, the documentation shows: CREATE TABLE plr_modules ( modseq int4, modsrc text ); That seems to allow inserting records to dictate that Kendall is to be loaded, but the following code doesn't explain, syntactically, how to ensure that it gets loaded: INSERT INTO plr_modules VALUES (0, 'pg.test.module.load <-function(msg) {print(msg)}'); Q.2. What would the above line look like if you were trying to load Kendall? Q.3. Is it applicable? Installing R Packages Using the "synaptic" package manager the following packages have been installed: r-base r-base-core r-base-dev r-base-html r-base-latex r-cran-acepack r-cran-boot r-cran-car r-cran-chron r-cran-cluster r-cran-codetools r-cran-design r-cran-foreign r-cran-hmisc r-cran-kernsmooth r-cran-lattice r-cran-matrix r-cran-mgcv r-cran-nlme r-cran-quadprog r-cran-robustbase r-cran-rpart r-cran-survival r-cran-vr r-recommended Q.4. How do I know if Kendall is in there? Q.5. If it isn't, how do I find out what package it is in? Q.6. If it isn't in a package suitable for installing with apt-get (aptitude, synaptic, dpkg, what have you), how do I go about installing it on Ubuntu? Q.7. Where are the installation steps documented? Calling R Functions I have the following code: EXECUTE 'SELECT ' 'regr_slope( amount, year_taken ),' 'regr_intercept( amount, year_taken ),' 'corr( amount, year_taken ),' 'sum( measurements ) AS total_measurements ' 'FROM temp_regression' INTO STRICT slope, intercept, correlation, total_measurements; This code calls the PostgreSQL function corr to calculate Pearson's correlation over the data. Ideally, I'd like to do the following (by switching corr for plr_kendall): EXECUTE 'SELECT ' 'regr_slope( amount, year_taken ),' 'regr_intercept( amount, year_taken ),' 'plr_kendall( amount, year_taken ),' 'sum( measurements ) AS total_measurements ' 'FROM temp_regression' INTO STRICT slope, intercept, correlation, total_measurements; Q.8. Do I have to write plr_kendall myself? Q.9. Where can I find a simple example that walks through: Loading an R module into PG. Writing a PG wrapper for the desired R function. Calling the PG wrapper from a SELECT. For example, would the last two steps look like: create or replace function plr_kendall( _float8, _float8 ) returns float as ' agg_kendall(arg1, arg2) ' language 'plr'; CREATE AGGREGATE agg_kendall ( sfunc = plr_array_accum, basetype = float8, -- ??? stype = _float8, -- ??? finalfunc = plr_kendall ); And then the SELECT as above? Thank you!

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  • request response with activemq - always send double response.

    - by Chris Valley
    Hi, I'm new at activeMq. I tried to create a simple request response like this. public Listener(string destination) { // set factory ConnectionFactory factory = new ConnectionFactory(URL); IConnection connection; try { connection = factory.CreateConnection(); connection.Start(); ISession session = connection.CreateSession(); // create consumer for designated destination IMessageConsumer consumer = session.CreateConsumer(new Apache.NMS.ActiveMQ.Commands.ActiveMQQueue(destination)); consumer.Listener += new MessageListener(consumer_Listener); Console.ReadLine(); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); throw new Exception("Exception in Listening ", ex); } } The OnMessage static void consumer_Listener(IMessage message) { IConnectionFactory factory = new ConnectionFactory("tcp://localhost:61616/"); using (IConnection connection = factory.CreateConnection()) { //Create the Session using (ISession session = connection.CreateSession()) { //Create the Producer for the topic/queue // IMessageProducer prod = session.CreateProducer(new Apache.NMS.ActiveMQ.Commands.ActiveMQTempQueue(message.NMSDestination)); IMessageProducer producer = session.CreateProducer(message.NMSDestination); // Create Response // IMessage response = session.CreateMessage(); ITextMessage response = producer.CreateTextMessage("Replied from VS2010 Test"); //response.NMSReplyTo = new Apache.NMS.ActiveMQ.Commands.ActiveMQQueue("testQ1"); response.NMSCorrelationID = message.NMSCorrelationID; if (message.NMSReplyTo != null) { producer.Send(message.NMSReplyTo, response); Console.WriteLine("Receive: " + ((ITextMessage)message).NMSCorrelationID); Console.WriteLine("Received from : " + message.NMSDestination.ToString()); Console.WriteLine("----------------------------------------------------"); } } } } Every time i tried to send a request to the listener, the response always send repeatedly. The first response will have NMSReplyTo properties while the other not. My workaround to stop this situation by cheking the NMSReplyTo properties if (message.NMSReplyTo != null) { producer.Send(message.NMSReplyTo, response); Console.WriteLine("Receive: " + ((ITextMessage)message).NMSCorrelationID); Console.WriteLine("Received from : " + message.NMSDestination.ToString()); Console.WriteLine("----------------------------------------------------"); } In my understanding, this happened because there was a circular send response in the listener to the same Queue. Could you guys help me how to fix this? Many Thanks, Chris

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  • Access Violation Exception when trying to perform WTSVirtualChannelRead

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    I am trying to write a hello world type program for using virtual channels in the windows terminal services client. public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } IntPtr mHandle = IntPtr.Zero; private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { mHandle = NativeMethods.WTSVirtualChannelOpen(IntPtr.Zero, -1, "TSCRED"); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { int bufferSize = 1024; byte[] buffer = new byte[bufferSize]; int bytesRead = 0; NativeMethods.WTSVirtualChannelRead(mHandle, 0, buffer, bufferSize, ref bytesRead); if (bytesRead != 0) { MessageBox.Show("Got no Data"); } else { MessageBox.Show("Got data: " + bytesRead); } } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (mHandle != System.IntPtr.Zero) { NativeMethods.WTSVirtualChannelClose(mHandle); } base.Dispose(disposing); } } internal static class NativeMethods { [DllImport("Wtsapi32.dll")] public static extern IntPtr WTSVirtualChannelOpen(IntPtr server, int sessionId, [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] string virtualName); [DllImport("Wtsapi32.dll", SetLastError = true)] public static extern bool WTSVirtualChannelRead(IntPtr channelHandle, long timeout, byte[] buffer, int length, ref int bytesReaded); [DllImport("Wtsapi32.dll")] public static extern bool WTSVirtualChannelClose(IntPtr channelHandle); } On NativeMethods.WTSVirtualChannelRead(mHandle, 0, buffer, bufferSize, ref bytesRead); I get the following error every time. System.AccessViolationException was unhandled by user code Message=Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt. Source=RemoteForm StackTrace: at RemoteForm.NativeMethods.WTSVirtualChannelRead(IntPtr channelHandle, Int64 timeout, Byte[] buffer, Int32 length, Int32& bytesReaded) at RemoteForm.Form1.button1_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) in E:\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\RemoteForm\Form1.cs:line 31 at System.Windows.Forms.Control.OnClick(EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnMouseUp(MouseEventArgs mevent) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseUp(Message& m, MouseButtons button, Int32 clicks) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ButtonBase.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) InnerException: I am sending the data from the MSTSC COM object and ActiveX controll. public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { rdp.Server = "schamberlainvm"; rdp.UserName = "TestAcct"; IMsTscNonScriptable secured = (IMsTscNonScriptable)rdp.GetOcx(); secured.ClearTextPassword = "asdf"; rdp.CreateVirtualChannels("TSCRED"); rdp.Connect(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { rdp.SendOnVirtualChannel("TSCRED", "This is a test"); } } //Designer code // // rdp // this.rdp.Enabled = true; this.rdp.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(12, 12); this.rdp.Name = "rdp"; this.rdp.OcxState = ((System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.State)(resources.GetObject("rdp.OcxState"))); this.rdp.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(1092, 580); this.rdp.TabIndex = 0; Any help on this would be greatly appreciated.

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  • UIWebView leak? Can someone confirm?

    - by Shaggy Frog
    I was leak-testing my current project and I'm stumped. I've been browsing like crazy and tried everything except chicken sacrifice. I just created a tiny toy project app from scratch and I can duplicate the leak in there. So either UIWebView has a leak or I'm doing something really silly. Essentially, it boils down to a loadRequest: call to a UIWebView object, given an URLRequest built from an NSURL which references a file URL, for a file in the app bundle, which lives inside a folder that Xcode is including by reference. Phew. The leak is intermittent but still happens ~75% of the time (in about 20 tests it happened about 15 times). It only happens on the device -- this does not leak in the simulator. I am testing targeting both iPhone OS 3.1.2 and 3.1.3, on an original (1st Gen) iPod Touch that is using iPhone OS 3.1.3. To reproduce, just create a project from scratch. Add a UIWebView to the RootViewController's .xib, hook it up via IBOutlet. In the Finder, create a folder named "html" inside your project's folder. Inside that folder, create a file named "dummy.html" that has the word "Test" in it. (Does not need to be valid HTML.) Then add the html folder to your project in Xcode by choosing "Create Folder References for any added folders" Add the following to viewDidLoad NSString* resourcePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath]; NSString* filePath = [[resourcePath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"html"] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"dummy.html"]; NSURL* url = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath:filePath]; NSURLRequest* request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; // <-- this creates the leak! [browserView loadRequest:request]; [url release]; I've tried everything from setting delegate for the UIWebView and implementing UIWebViewDelegate, to not setting a delegate in IB, to not setting a delegate in IB and explicitly setting the web view's delegate property to nil, to using alloc/init instead of getting autoreleased NSURLRequests (and/or NSURLs)... I tried the answer to a similar question (setting the shared URL cache to empty) and that did not help. Can anyone help?

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  • Adding UIViewController.view to another view causes orientation problems

    - by Bob Vork
    Short version: I'm alloc/init/retaining a new UIViewController in one UIViewControllers viewDidLoad method, adding the new View to self.view. This usually works, but it seems to mess up orientation change handling of my iPad app. Longer version: I'm building a fairly complex iPad application, involving a lot of views and viewcontrollers. After running into some difficulties adjusting to the device orientation, I made a simple XCode project to figure out what the problem is. Firstly, I have read the Apple Docs on this subject (a small document called "Why won't my UIViewController rotate with the device?"), and while I do believe it has something to do with one of the reasons listed there, I'm not really sure how to fix it. In my test project I have an appDelegate, a rootViewController, and a UISplitViewController with two custom viewControllers. I use a button on the rootViewController to switch to the splitViewController, and from there I can use a button to switch back to the rootViewController. So far everything is great, i.e. all views adjust to the device orientation. However, in the right viewController of the splitViewController, I use the viewDidLoad method to initialize some other viewControllers, and add their views to its own view: self.newViewController = [[UIViewController new] autorelease]; [newViewController.view setBackgroundColor:[UIColor yellowColor]]; [self.view addSubview:newViewController.view]; This is where things go wrong. Somehow, after adding this view, adjusting to device orientation is messy. On startup everything is fine, after I switch to the splitViewController everything is still fine, but as soon as I switch back to the rootViewController it's all over. I have tried (almost) everything regarding retaining and releasing the viewcontroller, but nothing seems to fix it. As you can see from the code above, I have declared the newViewController as a property, but the same happens if I don't. Shouldn't I be adding a ViewController's view to my own view at all? That would really mess up my project, as I have a lot of viewControllers doing all sorts of things. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated...

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  • Doubt about adopting CI (Hudson) into an existing automated Build Process (phing, svn)

    - by maraspin
    OUR CURRENT BUILD PROCESS We're a small team of developers (2 to 4 people depending on project) who currently use Phing to deploy code to a staging environment, before going live. We keep our code in a SVN repo, where the trunk holds current active development and, at certain times, we do make branches that we test and then (if successful), tag and export to the staging env. If everything goes well there too, we finally deploy'em in production servers. Actions are highly automated, but always triggered by human intervention. THE DOUBT We'd now like to introduce Continuous Integration (with Hudson) in the process; unfortunately we have a few doubts about activity syncing, since we're afraid that CI could somewhat interfere with our build process and cause certain problems. Considering that an automated CI cycle has a certain frequency of automatically executed actions, we in fact only see 2 possible cases for "integration", each with its own problems: Case A: each CI cycle produces a new branch with its own name; we do use such a name to manually (through phing as it happens now) export the code from the SVN to the staging env. The problem I see here is that (unless specific countermeasures are taken) the number of branches we have can grow out of control (let's suppose we commit often, so that we have a fresh new build/branch every N minutes). Case B: each CI cycle creates a new branch named 'current', for instance, which is tagged with a unique name only when we manually decide to export it to staging; the current branch, at any case is then deleted, as soon as the next CI cycle starts up. The problem we see here is that a new cycle could kick in while someone is tagging/exporting the 'current' branch to staging thus creating an inconsistent build (but maybe here I'm just too pessimist, since I confess I don't know whether SVN offers some built-in protection against this). With all this being said, I was wondering if anyone with similar experiences could be so kind to give us some hints on the subject, since none of the approaches depicted above looks completely satisfing to us. Is there something important we just completely left off in the overall picture? Thanks for your attention &, in advance, for your help!

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  • How to write a buffer-overflow exploit in GCC,windows XP,x86?

    - by Mask
    void function(int a, int b, int c) { char buffer1[5]; char buffer2[10]; int *ret; ret = buffer1 + 12; (*ret) += 8;//why is it 8?? } void main() { int x; x = 0; function(1,2,3); x = 1; printf("%d\n",x); } The above demo is from here: http://insecure.org/stf/smashstack.html But it's not working here: D:\test>gcc -Wall -Wextra hw.cpp && a.exe hw.cpp: In function `void function(int, int, int)': hw.cpp:6: warning: unused variable 'buffer2' hw.cpp: At global scope: hw.cpp:4: warning: unused parameter 'a' hw.cpp:4: warning: unused parameter 'b' hw.cpp:4: warning: unused parameter 'c' 1 And I don't understand why it's 8 though the author thinks: A little math tells us the distance is 8 bytes. My gdb dump as called: Dump of assembler code for function main: 0x004012ee <main+0>: push %ebp 0x004012ef <main+1>: mov %esp,%ebp 0x004012f1 <main+3>: sub $0x18,%esp 0x004012f4 <main+6>: and $0xfffffff0,%esp 0x004012f7 <main+9>: mov $0x0,%eax 0x004012fc <main+14>: add $0xf,%eax 0x004012ff <main+17>: add $0xf,%eax 0x00401302 <main+20>: shr $0x4,%eax 0x00401305 <main+23>: shl $0x4,%eax 0x00401308 <main+26>: mov %eax,0xfffffff8(%ebp) 0x0040130b <main+29>: mov 0xfffffff8(%ebp),%eax 0x0040130e <main+32>: call 0x401b00 <_alloca> 0x00401313 <main+37>: call 0x4017b0 <__main> 0x00401318 <main+42>: movl $0x0,0xfffffffc(%ebp) 0x0040131f <main+49>: movl $0x3,0x8(%esp) 0x00401327 <main+57>: movl $0x2,0x4(%esp) 0x0040132f <main+65>: movl $0x1,(%esp) 0x00401336 <main+72>: call 0x4012d0 <function> 0x0040133b <main+77>: movl $0x1,0xfffffffc(%ebp) 0x00401342 <main+84>: mov 0xfffffffc(%ebp),%eax 0x00401345 <main+87>: mov %eax,0x4(%esp) 0x00401349 <main+91>: movl $0x403000,(%esp) 0x00401350 <main+98>: call 0x401b60 <printf> 0x00401355 <main+103>: leave 0x00401356 <main+104>: ret 0x00401357 <main+105>: nop 0x00401358 <main+106>: add %al,(%eax) 0x0040135a <main+108>: add %al,(%eax) 0x0040135c <main+110>: add %al,(%eax) 0x0040135e <main+112>: add %al,(%eax) End of assembler dump. Dump of assembler code for function function: 0x004012d0 <function+0>: push %ebp 0x004012d1 <function+1>: mov %esp,%ebp 0x004012d3 <function+3>: sub $0x38,%esp 0x004012d6 <function+6>: lea 0xffffffe8(%ebp),%eax 0x004012d9 <function+9>: add $0xc,%eax 0x004012dc <function+12>: mov %eax,0xffffffd4(%ebp) 0x004012df <function+15>: mov 0xffffffd4(%ebp),%edx 0x004012e2 <function+18>: mov 0xffffffd4(%ebp),%eax 0x004012e5 <function+21>: movzbl (%eax),%eax 0x004012e8 <function+24>: add $0x5,%al 0x004012ea <function+26>: mov %al,(%edx) 0x004012ec <function+28>: leave 0x004012ed <function+29>: ret In my case the distance should be - = 5,right?But it seems not working.. Why function needs 56 bytes for local variables?( sub $0x38,%esp )

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  • What git branching models actually work - the final question

    - by UncleCJ
    In our company we have successfully deployed git and we are currently using a simple trunk/release/hotfixes branching model. However, this has it's problems, I have some key issues of confusion in the community which would be awesome to have answered here. Maybe my hopes for an Alexander stroke are too great, quite possibly I'll decompose this question into more manageable issues, but here's my first shot. Workflows / branching models - below are the three main descriptions of this I have seen, but they are partially contradicting each other or don't go far enough to sort out the subsequent issues we've run into (as described below). Thus our team so far defaults to not so great solutions. Are you doing something better? gitworkflows(7) Manual Page (nvie) A successful Git branching model (reinh) A Git Workflow for Agile Teams Merging vs rebasing (tangled vs sequential history) - the bids on this are as confusing as it gets. Should one pull --rebase or wait with merging back to the mainline until your task is finished? Personally I lean towards merging since this preserves a visual illustration of on which base a task was started and finished, and I even prefer merge --no-ff for this purpose. It has other drawbacks however. Also many haven't realized the useful property of merging - that it isn't commutative (merging a topic branch into master does not mean merging master into the topic branch). I am looking for a natural workflow - sometimes mistakes happen because our procedures don't capture a specific situation with simple rules. For example a fix needed for earlier releases should of course be based sufficiently downstream to be possible to merge upstream into all branches necessary (is the usage of these terms clear enough?). However it happens that a fix makes it into the master before the developer realizes it should have been placed further downstream, and if that is already pushed (even worse, merged or something based on it) then the option remaining is cherry-picking, with it's associated perils... What simple rules like such do you use? Also in this is included the awkwardness of one topic branch necessarily excluding other topic branches (assuming they are branched from a common baseline). Developers don't want to finish a feature to start another one feeling like the code they just wrote is not there anymore How to avoid creating merge conflicts (due to cherry-pick)? What seems like a sure way to create a merge conflict is to cherry-pick between branches, they can never be merged again? Would applying the same commit in revert (how to do this?) in either branch possibly solve this situation? This is one reason I do not dare to push for a largely merge-based workflow. How to decompose into topical branches? - We realize that it would be awesome to assemble a finished integration from topic branches, but often work by our developers is not clearly defined (sometimes as simple as "poking around") and if some code has already gone into a "misc" topic, it can not be taken out of there again, according to the question above? How do you work with defining/approving/graduating/releasing your topic branches? Proper procedures like code review and graduating would of course be lovely, but we simply cannot keep things untangled enough to manage this - any suggestions? integration branches, illustration please? Vote and comment as much as you'd like, I'll try to keep the issue page clear and informative enough. Thanks! Below is a list of related topics on stackoverflow I have checked out: What are some good strategies to allow deployed applications to be hotfixable? Workflow description for git usage for in-house development Git workflow for corporate Linux kernel development How do you maintain development code and production code? (thanks for this PDF!) git releases management Git Cherry-pick vs Merge Workflow How to cherry-pick multiple commits How do you merge selective files with git-merge? How to cherry pick a range of commits and merge into another branch ReinH Git Workflow git workflow for making modifications you’ll never push back to origin Cherry-pick a merge Proper Git workflow for combined OS and Private code? Maintaining Project with Git Why cant Git merge file changes with a modified parent/master. Git branching / rebasing good practices When will "git pull --rebase" get me in to trouble?

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  • how to use SQL wildcard % with Queryset extra>select?

    - by tylias
    I'm trying to add weights to search terms I'm using to filter a queryset. Using the '%' wildcard is causing me some problems. I'm using the extra() modifier to add a weight parameter to the queryset, which I will be using to inform a sort ordering. (See http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/1.1/ref/models/querysets/#extra-select-none-where-none-params-none-tables-none-order-by-none-select-params-none ) Here's the gist of the code: def viewname(request) ... exact_matchstrings="" exact_matchstrings.append("(accountprofile.first_name LIKE '" + term + "')") exact_matchstrings.append("(accountprofile.first_name LIKE '" + term + '\%' + "')") extraquerystring = " + ".join(exact_matchstrings) return_queryset = return_queryset.extra( select = { 'match_weight': extraquerystring }, ) The effect I'm going for is that if the search term matches exactly, the weight associated with the record is 2, but if the term merely starts with the search term and isn't an exact match, the weight is 1. (for example, if 'term' = 'Jon', an entry with first_name='Jon' gets a weight of 2 but an entry with an entry with first_name = 'Jonathan' gets a weight of 1.) I can test the statement in SQL and it seems to work well enough. If I make this SQL query from the mysql shell, no problem: select (first_name like "Carl") + (first_name like "Car%") from accountprofile; But trying to run it via the extra() modifier in my view code and evaluating the resulting queryset gives me the following error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 68, in __repr__ data = list(self[:REPR_OUTPUT_SIZE + 1]) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 83, in __len__ self._result_cache.extend(list(self._iter)) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 238, in iterator for row in self.query.results_iter(): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/sql/query.py", line 287, in results_iter for rows in self.execute_sql(MULTI): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/sql/query.py", line 2369, in execute_sql cursor.execute(sql, params) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/util.py", line 22, in execute sql = self.db.ops.last_executed_query(self.cursor, sql, params) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 217, in last_executed_query return smart_unicode(sql) % u_params ValueError: unsupported format character ''' (0x27) at index 309 I've tried it escaping and not escaping % wildcard but that doesn't solve the problem. Doesn't seem to affect it at all, really. Any ideas?

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  • jQueryMobile: how to work with slider events?

    - by balexandre
    I'm testing the slider events in jQueryMobile and I must been missing something. page code is: <div data-role="fieldcontain"> <label for="slider">Input slider:</label> <input type="range" name="slider" id="slider" value="0" min="0" max="100" /> </div> and if I do: $("#slider").data("events"); I get blur, focus, keyup, remove What I want to do is to get the value once user release the slider handle and having a hook to the keyup event as $("#slider").bind("keyup", function() { alert('here'); } ); does absolutely nothing :( I must say that I wrongly assumed that jQueryMobile used jQueryUI controls as it was my first thought, but now working deep in the events I can see this is not the case, only in terms of CSS Design. What can I do? jQuery Mobile Slider source code can be found on Git if it helps anyone as well a test page can be found at JSBin As I understand, the #slider is the textbox with the value, so I would need to hook into the slider handle as the generated code for this slider is: <div data-role="fieldcontain" class="ui-field-contain ui-body ui-br"> <label for="slider" class="ui-input-text ui-slider" id="slider-label">Input slider:</label> <input data-type="range" max="100" min="0" value="0" id="slider" name="slider" class="ui-input-text ui-body-null ui-corner-all ui-shadow-inset ui-body-c ui-slider-input" /> <div role="application" class="ui-slider ui-btn-down-c ui-btn-corner-all"> <a class="ui-slider-handle ui-btn ui-btn-corner-all ui-shadow ui-btn-up-c" href="#" data-theme="c" role="slider" aria-valuemin="0" aria-valuemax="100" aria-valuenow="54" aria-valuetext="54" title="54" aria-labelledby="slider-label" style="left: 54%;"> <span class="ui-btn-inner ui-btn-corner-all"> <span class="ui-btn-text"></span> </span> </a> </div> </div> and checking the events in the handler anchor I get only the click event $("#slider").next().find("a").data("events");

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  • WCF Webservices and FaultContract - Client's receiving SoapExc insted of FaultException<TDetails>

    - by Alessandro Di Lello
    Hi All, i'm developing a WCF Webservice and consuming it within a mvc2 application. My problem is that i'm using FaultContracts on my methods with a custom FaultDetail and i'm throwing manyally the faultexception but when the client receive the exception , it receives a normal SoapException instead of my FaultException that i throwed from the service side. Here is some code: Custom Fault Detail Class: [DataContract] public class MyFaultDetails { [DataMember] public string Message { get; set; } } Operation on service contract: [OperationContract] [FaultContract(typeof(MyFaultDetails))] void ThrowException(); Implementation: public void ThrowException() { var details = new MyFaultDetails { Message = "Exception Test" }; throw new FaultException<MyFaultDetails >(details , new FaultReason(details .Message), new FaultCode("MyFault")); } Client side: try { // Obv proxy init etc.. service.ThrowException(); } catch (FaultException<MyFaultDetails> ex) { // stuff } catch (Exception ex) { // stuff } What i expect is to catch the FaultException , instead that catch is skipped and the next catch is taken with an exception of type SoapException. Am i missing something ? i red a lot of threads about using faultcontracts within wcf and what i did seems to be good. I had a look at the wsdl and xsd generated and they look fine. here's a snippet regarding this method: <wsdl:operation name="ThrowException"> <wsdl:input wsaw:Action="http://tempuri.org/IAnyJobService/ThrowException" message="tns:IAnyJobService_ThrowException_InputMessage" /> <wsdl:output wsaw:Action="http://tempuri.org/IAnyJobService/ThrowExceptionResponse" message="tns:IAnyJobService_ThrowException_OutputMessage" /> <wsdl:fault wsaw:Action="http://tempuri.org/IAnyJobService/ThrowExceptionAnyJobServiceFaultExceptionFault" name="AnyJobServiceFaultExceptionFault" message="tns:IAnyJobService_ThrowException_AnyJobServiceFaultExceptionFault_FaultMessage" /> </wsdl:operation> <wsdl:operation name="ThrowException"> <soap:operation soapAction="http://tempuri.org/IAnyJobService/ThrowException" style="document" /> <wsdl:input> <soap:body use="literal" /> </wsdl:input> <wsdl:output> <soap:body use="literal" /> </wsdl:output> <wsdl:fault name="AnyJobServiceFaultExceptionFault"> <soap:fault use="literal" name="AnyJobServiceFaultExceptionFault" namespace="" /> </wsdl:fault> </wsdl:operation> Any help ? Thanks in advance Regards Alessandro

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  • Tridion Installation

    - by Kevin Brydon
    I am currently upgrading an installation of Tridion from 5.3 to 2011 starting almost from scratch (aside from migrating the database), brand new virtual servers. I just want to ask for some advice on my current server setup... a sanity check. All servers are running Windows Server 2008. The pages on our website are all classic ASP. Database SQL Server cluster. The 5.3 database has been migrated using the DatabaseManager. This is pretty standard and works well (in test anyway). Content Manager A single server to run the Content Manager and the Publisher. There are around 10 people using it at any one time so not under a particularly heavy load. Content Data Store Filesystem located somewhere on the network. One directory for live and one for staging. Content Delivery Two servers (cd1 and cd2) each with the the following server roles installed. cd1 writes to a filesystem content data store for the live website, cd2 writes to the content data store for the staging website. Presentation Two public facing web servers (web1 and web2) serving both the live and staging websites. The web servers read directly from the content data store as its a filesystem. Each of the web servers have the Content Delivery Server installed so that I can use dynamic linking (and other features?). I've so far set up everything but the web servers. Any thoughts? edit Thanks to Ram S who linked me to a decent walkthrough, upvoted. I suppose I should have posed some questions as I didn't really ask a question. I guess I'm a little confused over the content deliver aspect. I have the Content Delivery split in two separate parts. cd1 and cd2 do the work of shifting information from the Content Manager to the Staging/Live web directories. web1 and web2 should do the work of serving the web pages to the outside world and will interact with the content data store (file system). Is this a correct setup? I need some parts of the Content Delivery on my web servers right? Theoretically I could get rid of the cd1 and cd2 servers and use web1 and web2 to do the deployment right? But I suspect this will put the web servers under unnecessary strain should there ever be a big publish. I've been reading the 2011 Installation Manual, Content Delivery section, and I'm finding it quite hard to get my head around!

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  • Is MVVM pointless?

    - by joebeazelman
    Is orthodox MVVM implementation pointless? I am creating a new application and I considered Windows Forms and WPF. I chose WPF because it's future-proof and offer lots of flexibility. There is less code and easier to make significant changes to your UI using XAML. Since the choice for WPF is obvious, I figured that I may as well go all the way by using MVVM as my application architecture since it offers blendability, separation concerns and unit testability. Theoretically, it seems beautiful like the holy grail of UI programming. This brief adventure; however, has turned into a real headache. As expected in practice, I’m finding that I’ve traded one problem for another. I tend to be an obsessive programmer in that I want to do things the right way so that I can get the right results and possibly become a better programmer. The MVVM pattern just flunked my test on productivity and has just turned into a big yucky hack! The clear case in point is adding support for a Modal dialog box. The correct way is to put up a dialog box and tie it to a view model. Getting this to work is difficult. In order to benefit from the MVVM pattern, you have to distribute code in several places throughout the layers of your application. You also have to use esoteric programming constructs like templates and lamba expressions. Stuff that makes you stare at the screen scratching your head. This makes maintenance and debugging a nightmare waiting to happen as I recently discovered. I had an about box working fine until I got an exception the second time I invoked it, saying that it couldn’t show the dialog box again once it is closed. I had to add an event handler for the close functionality to the dialog window, another one in the IDialogView implementation of it and finally another in the IDialogViewModel. I thought MVVM would save us from such extravagant hackery! There are several folks out there with competing solutions to this problem and they are all hacks and don’t provide a clean, easily reusable, elegant solution. Most of the MVVM toolkits gloss over dialogs and when they do address them, they are just alert boxes that don’t require custom interfaces or view models. I’m planning on giving up on the MVVM view pattern, at least its orthodox implementation of it. What do you think? Has it been worth the trouble for you if you had any? Am I just a incompetent programmer or does MVVM not what it's hyped up to be?

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  • java.lang.Error: "Not enough storage is available to process this command" when generating images

    - by jhericks
    I am running a web application on BEA Weblogic 9.2. Until recently, we were using JDK 1.5.0_04, with JAI 1.1.2_01 and Image IO 1.1. In some circumstances (we never figured out exactly why), when we were processing large images (but not that large - a few MB), the JVM would crash without any error message or stack trace or anything. This didn't happen much in production, but enough to be a nuisance and eventually we were able to reproduce it. We decided to switch to JRockit90 1.5.0_04 and we were no longer able to reproduce the problem in our test environment, so we thought we had it licked. Now, however, after the application server has been up for a while, we start getting the error message, "Not enough storage is available to process this command" during image operations. For example: java.lang.Error: Error starting thread: Not enough storage is available to process this command. at java.lang.Thread.start()V(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.image.ImageFetcher$1.run(ImageFetcher.java:279) at sun.awt.image.ImageFetcher.createFetchers(ImageFetcher.java:272) at sun.awt.image.ImageFetcher.add(ImageFetcher.java:55) at sun.awt.image.InputStreamImageSource.startProduction(InputStreamImageSource.java:149) at sun.awt.image.InputStreamImageSource.addConsumer(InputStreamImageSource.java:106) at sun.awt.image.InputStreamImageSource.startProduction(InputStreamImageSource.java:144) at sun.awt.image.ImageRepresentation.startProduction(ImageRepresentation.java:647) at sun.awt.image.ImageRepresentation.prepare(ImageRepresentation.java:684) at sun.awt.SunToolkit.prepareImage(SunToolkit.java:734) at java.awt.Component.prepareImage(Component.java:3073) at java.awt.ImageMediaEntry.startLoad(MediaTracker.java:906) at java.awt.MediaEntry.getStatus(MediaTracker.java:851) at java.awt.ImageMediaEntry.getStatus(MediaTracker.java:902) at java.awt.MediaTracker.statusAll(MediaTracker.java:454) at java.awt.MediaTracker.waitForAll(MediaTracker.java:405) at java.awt.MediaTracker.waitForAll(MediaTracker.java:375) at SfxNET.System.Drawing.ImageLoader.loadImage(Ljava.awt.Image;)Ljava.awt.image.BufferedImage;(Unknown Source) at SfxNET.System.Drawing.ImageLoader.loadImage(Ljava.net.URL;)Ljava.awt.image.BufferedImage;(Unknown Source) at Resources.Tools.Commands.W$zw(Ljava.lang.ClassLoader;)V(Unknown Source) at Resources.Tools.Commands.getContents()[[Ljava.lang.Object;(Unknown Source) at SfxNET.sfxUtils.SfxResourceBundle.handleGetObject(Ljava.lang.String;)Ljava.lang.Object;(Unknown Source) at java.util.ResourceBundle.getObject(ResourceBundle.java:320) at SoftwareFX.internal.ChartFX.wxvw.yxWW(Ljava.lang.String;Z)Ljava.lang.Object;(Unknown Source) at SoftwareFX.internal.ChartFX.wxvw.vxWW(Ljava.lang.String;)Ljava.lang.Object;(Unknown Source) at SoftwareFX.internal.ChartFX.CommandBar.YWww(LSoftwareFX.internal.ChartFX.wxvw;IIII)V(Unknown Source) at SoftwareFX.internal.ChartFX.Internet.Server.xxvw.YzzW(LSoftwareFX.internal.ChartFX.Internet.Server.ChartCore;Z)LSoftwareFX.internal.ChartFX.CommandBar;(Unknown Source) at SoftwareFX.internal.ChartFX.Internet.Server.xxvw.XzzW(LSoftwareFX.internal.ChartFX.Internet.Server.ChartCore;)V(Unknown Source) at SoftwareFX.internal.ChartFX.Internet.Server.ChartCore.OnDeserialization(Ljava.lang.Object;)V(Unknown Source) at SoftwareFX.internal.ChartFX.Internet.Server.ChartCore.Zvvz(LSoftwareFX.internal.ChartFX.Base.wzzy;)V(Unknown Source) Has anyone seen something like this before? Any clue what might be happening?

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  • The Skyline Problem.

    - by zeroDivisible
    I just came across this little problem on UVA's Online Judge and thought, that it may be a good candidate for a little code-golf. The problem: You are to design a program to assist an architect in drawing the skyline of a city given the locations of the buildings in the city. To make the problem tractable, all buildings are rectangular in shape and they share a common bottom (the city they are built in is very flat). The city is also viewed as two-dimensional. A building is specified by an ordered triple (Li, Hi, Ri) where Li and Ri are left and right coordinates, respectively, of building i and Hi is the height of the building. In the diagram below buildings are shown on the left with triples (1,11,5), (2,6,7), (3,13,9), (12,7,16), (14,3,25), (19,18,22), (23,13,29), (24,4,28) and the skyline, shown on the right, is represented by the sequence: 1, 11, 3, 13, 9, 0, 12, 7, 16, 3, 19, 18, 22, 3, 23, 13, 29, 0 The output should consist of the vector that describes the skyline as shown in the example above. In the skyline vector (v1, v2, v3, ... vn) , the vi such that i is an even number represent a horizontal line (height). The vi such that i is an odd number represent a vertical line (x-coordinate). The skyline vector should represent the "path" taken, for example, by a bug starting at the minimum x-coordinate and traveling horizontally and vertically over all the lines that define the skyline. Thus the last entry in the skyline vector will be a 0. The coordinates must be separated by a blank space. If I will not count declaration of provided (test) buildings and including all spaces and tab characters, my solution, in Python, is 223 characters long. Here is the condensed version: B=[[1,11,5],[2,6,7],[3,13,9],[12,7,16],[14,3,25],[19,18,22],[23,13,29],[24,4,28]] # Solution. R=range v=[0 for e in R(max([y[2] for y in B])+1)] for b in B: for x in R(b[0], b[2]): if b[1]>v[x]: v[x]=b[1] p=1 k=0 for x in R(len(v)): V=v[x] if p and V==0: continue elif V!=k: p=0 print "%s %s" % (str(x), str(V)), k=V I think that I didn't made any mistake but if so - feel free to criticize me. EDIT I don't have much reputation, so I will pay only 100 for a bounty - I am curious, if anyone could try to solve this in less than .. lets say, 80 characters. Solution posted by cobbal is 101 characters long and currently it is the best one. ANOTHER EDIT I thought, that 80 characters is a sick limit for this kind of problem. cobbal, with his 46 character solution totaly amazed me - though I must admit, that I spent some time reading his explanation before I partially understood what he had written.

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  • Set default form textfield value (webbrowser control/DOM Javscript)

    - by Khou
    Hi I would like my application to load a webpage and set default the form textfield value a predefine value. Requirements: -The application is a windows form, it is to use the web browser control, to load a web page. -Textfield values are define by within the application. -When textfield on the webpage matches the applications predefined elements, the predefine fixed value is set and can not be changed by the end user. Example If my application defines element "FirstName" equal to value "John", the text field for value for element "FirstName" will always equal "John" and this value can not be changed by the end user. Below is html/javascript code to perform this functionality, now how do I implement this in a windows form? (without having to modify the loaded webpage source code (if possible). HTML <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <title>page title</title> <script script type="text/javascript" src="demo1.js"></script> </head> <body onload="def(document.someform, 'name', 'my default name value');"> <h2 style="color: #8e9182">test form title</h2> <form name="someform" id="someform_frm" action="#"> <table cellspacing="1"> <tr><td><label for="name">NameX: </label></td><td><input type="text" size="30" maxlength="155" name="name" onchange="def(document.someform, 'name', 'my default name value');"></td></tr> <tr><td><label for="name2">NameY: </label></td><td><input type="text" size="30" maxlength="155" name="name2"></td></tr> <tr><td colspan="2"><input type="button" name="submit" value="Submit" onclick="showFormData(this.form);" ></td></table> </form> </body> </html> JAVASCRIPT function def(oForm, element_name, def_txt) { oForm.elements[element_name].value = def_txt; }

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  • ASP.net roles and Projects

    - by Zyphrax
    EDIT - Rewrote my original question to give a bit more information Background info At my work I'm working on a ASP.Net web application for our customers. In our implementation we use technologies like Forms authentication with MembershipProviders and RoleProviders. All went well until I ran into some difficulties with configuring the roles, because the roles aren't system-wide, but related to the customer accounts and projects. I can't name our exact setup/formula, because I think our company wouldn't approve that... What's a customer / project? Our company provides management information for our customers on a yearly (or other interval) basis. In our systems a customer/contract consists of: one Account: information about the Company per Account, one or more Products: the bundle of management information we'll provide per Product, one or more Measurements: a period of time, in which we gather and report the data Extranet site setup Eventually we want all customers to be able to access their management information with our online system. The extranet consists of two sites: Company site: provides an overview of Account information and the Products Measurement site: after selecting a Measurement, detailed information on that period of time The measurement site is the most interesting part of the extranet. We will create submodules for new overviews, reports, managing and maintaining resources that are important for the research. Our Visual Studio solution consists of a number of projects. One web application named Portal for the basis. The sites and modules are virtual directories within that application (makes it easier to share MasterPages among things). What kind of roles? The following users (read: roles) will be using the system: Admins: development users :) (not customer related, full access) Employees: employees of our company (not customer related, full access) Customer SuperUser: top level managers (full access to their account/measurement) Customer ContactPerson: primary contact (full access to their measurement(s)) Customer Manager: a department manager (limited access, specific data of a measurement) What about ASP.Net users? The system will have many ASP.Net users, let's focus on the customer users: Users are not shared between Accounts SuperUser X automatically has access to all (and new) measurements User Y could be Primary contact for Measurement 1, but have no role for Measurement 2 User Y could be Primary contact for Measurement 1, but have a Manager role for Measurement 2 The department managers are many individual users (per Measurement), if Manager Z had a login for Measurement 1, we would like to use that login again if he participates in Measurement 2. URL structure These are typical urls in our application: http://host/login - the login screen http://host/project - the account/product overview screen (measurement selection) http://host/project/1000 - measurement (id:1000) details http://host/project/1000/planning - planning overview (for primary contact/superuser) http://host/project/1000/reports - report downloads (manager department X can only access report X) We will also create a document url, where you can request a specific document by it's GUID. The system will have to check if the user has rights to the document. The document is related to a Measurement, the User or specific roles have specific rights to the document. What's the problem? (finally ;)) Roles aren't enough to determine what a user is allowed to see/access/download a specific item. It's not enough to say that a certain navigation item is accessible to Managers. When the user requests Measurement 1000, we have to check that the user not only has a Manager role, but a Manager role for Measurement 1000. Summarized: How can we limit users to their accounts/measurements? (remember superusers see all measurements, some managers only specific measurements) How can we apply roles at a product/measurement level? (user X could be primarycontact for measurement 1, but just a manager for measurement 2) How can we limit manager access to the reports screen and only to their department's reports? All with the magic of asp.net classes, perhaps with a custom roleprovider implementation. Similar Stackoverflow question/problem http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1367483/asp-net-how-to-manage-users-with-different-types-of-roles

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  • NameClaimType in ClaimsIdentity from SAML

    - by object88
    I am attempting to understand the world of WIF in context of a WCF Data Service / REST / OData server. I have a hacked up version of SelfSTS that is running inside a unit test project. When the unit tests start, it kicks off a WCF service, which generates my SAML token. This is the SAML token being generated: <saml:Assertion MajorVersion="1" MinorVersion="1" ... > <saml:Conditions>...</saml:Conditions> <saml:AttributeStatement> <saml:Subject> <saml:NameIdentifier Format="EMAIL">4bd406bf-0cf0-4dc4-8e49-57336a479ad2</saml:NameIdentifier> <saml:SubjectConfirmation>...</saml:SubjectConfirmation> </saml:Subject> <saml:Attribute AttributeName="emailaddress" AttributeNamespace="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/ws/2005/05/identity/claims"> <saml:AttributeValue>[email protected]</saml:AttributeValue> </saml:Attribute> <saml:Attribute AttributeName="name" AttributeNamespace="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/ws/2005/05/identity/claims"> <saml:AttributeValue>bob</saml:AttributeValue> </saml:Attribute> </saml:AttributeStatement> <ds:Signature>...</ds:Signature> </saml:Assertion> (I know the Format of my NameIdentifier isn't really EMAIL, this is something I haven't gotten to cleaning up yet.) Inside my actual server, I put some code borrowed from Pablo Cabraro / Cibrax. This code seems to run A-OK, although I confess that I don't understand what's happening. I note that later in my code, when I need to check my identity, Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is an instance of Microsoft.IdentityModel.Claims.ClaimsIdentity, which has a claim for all the attributes, plus a nameidentifier claim with the value in my NameIdentifier element in saml:Subject. It also has a property NameClaimType, which points to "http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/ws/2005/05/identity/claims/name". It would make more sense if NameClaimType mapped to nameidentifier, wouldn't it? How do I make that happen? Or am I expecting the wrong thing of the name claim? Thanks!

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