Search Results

Search found 51361 results on 2055 pages for 'html table'.

Page 146/2055 | < Previous Page | 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153  | Next Page >

  • How to float a <div> echoed in the footer over a <div> located elsewhere (PHP/jQuery/HTML/CSS)

    - by PlasmaFlux
    Hello All! I'm embarking on a major project, but am stuck on a tiny issue at the very start. I'll try to be as concise as possible. I have a PHP script that will be echoing into the footer of the page (the last stuff before a bunch of s containing visible buttons and s containing hidden dialog boxes. The plan is to have the buttons float in the upper-right corner of corresponding s in the main content area of the page. i.e. - button-1 echoed into the footer will float in the corner of content-box-1, and will be tied to the hidden 'dialog-1'. I'll be using jQuery and jQuery UI Dialog throughout the page(s). I'm not sure if that's particularly relevant to this question, but thought it worth mentioning just in case. So my question, put simply, is how do I echo a Button 1 into the footer with PHP, but have it float in the upper-right corner (with maybe 5px margin) of Content 1 is full of content? A picture says a thousand words: As shown above, I want the little blue gear button things in the corner of content pieces, locked and loaded with hidden s containing dialog boxes. Again, the catch is that all buttons and hidden divs will be the very last items echoed into the page footer. I've found plenty of info on how to float divs on top of divs, but all the examples I saw showed the s in close proximity to each other in the page source; not with a hundred lines of source code between the two s I'm not sure if the solution is pure CSS, pure jQuery/jQueryUI or a combination of the two. Any advice will be much appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • CSS: Is it possible to get a div that is 100% height, less a top and bottom margin?

    - by Cheeso
    I can get a 100% height div, like this: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>T5</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"/> <style type="text/css"> * { padding: 0; margin: 0; } html, body { height: 100%; } body { font-family: "lucida sans", verdana, arial, helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 75%; } h1 { font-size: 1.4em; padding: 10px 10px 0; } p { padding: 0 10px 1em; } #container { min-height: 100%; background-color: #DDD; border-left: 2px solid #666; border-right: 2px solid #666; width: 280px; margin: 0 auto; } * html #container { height: 100%; }</style> </head> <body> <div id="container"> <h1>100% Height Div</h1> <p>Lorem...</p> <p>Ut ...</p> </div> </body> </html> But is it possible to get a div with a height of "almost 100%" height? If I want margins at the top and bottom, can I do that? Margins as indicated here:

    Read the article

  • Which Table Should be Master and Child in Database Design

    - by Jason
    I am quickly learning the ins and outs of database design (something that, as of a week ago, was new to me), but I am running across some questions that don't seem immediately obvious, so I was hoping to get some clarification. The question I have right is about foreign keys. As part of my design, I have a Company table. Originally, I had included address information directly within the table, but, as I was hoping to achieve 3NF, I broke out the address information into its own table, Address. In order to maintain data integrity, I created a row in Company called "addressId" as an INT and the Address table has a corresponding addressId as its primary key. What I'm a little bit confused about (or what I want to make sure I'm doing correctly) is determining which table should be the master (referenced) table and which should be the child (referencing) table. When I originally set this up, I made the Address table the master and the Company the child. However, I now believe this is wrong due to the fact that there should be only one address per Company and, if a Company row is deleted, I would want the corresponding Address to be removed as well (CASCADE deletion). I may be approaching this completely wrong, so I would appreciate any good rules of thumb on how to best think about the relationship between tables when using foreign keys. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Grails UrlMappings with .html

    - by Glennn
    I'm developing a Grails web application (mainly as a learning exercise). I have previously written some standard Grails apps, but in this case I wanted to try creating a controller that would intercept all requests (including static html) of the form: <a href="/testApp/testJsp.jsp">test 1</a> <a href="/testApp/testGsp.gsp">test 2</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtm.htm">test 3</a> <a href="/testApp/testHtml.html">test 4</a> The intent is to do some simple business logic (auditing) each time a user clicks a link. I know I could do this using a Filter (or a range of other methods), however I thought this should work too and wanted to do this using a Grails framework. I set up the Grail UrlMappings.groovy file to map all URLs of that form (/$myPathParam?) to a single controller: class UrlMappings { static mappings = { "/$controller/$action?/$id?"{ constraints { } } "/$path?" (controller: 'auditRecord', action: 'showPage') "500"(view:'/error') } } In that controller (in the appropriate "showPage" action) I've been printing out the path information, for example: def showPage = { println "params.path = " + params.path ... render(view: resultingView) } The results of the println in the showPage action for each of my four links are testJsp.jsp testGsp.gsp testHtm.htm testHtml Why is the last one "testHtml", not "testHtml.html"? In a previous (Stack Overflow query) Olexandr encountered this issue and was advised to simply concatenate the value of request.format - which, indeed, does return "html". However request.format also returns "html" for all four links. I'm interested in gaining an understanding of what Grails is doing and why. Is there some way to configure Grails so the params.path variable in the controller shows "testHtml.html" rather than stripping off the "html" extension? It doesn't seem to remove the extension for any other file type (including .htm). Is there a good reason it's doing this? I know that it is a bit unusual to use a controller for static html, but still would like to understand what's going on.

    Read the article

  • How can I make multi-line, vertically and horizontally aligned labels for radio buttons in HTML Form

    - by Patrick Klingemann
    Assuming the following markup: <fieldset> <legend>Radio Buttons</legend> <ol> <li> <input type="radio" id="x"> <label for="x"><!-- Insert multi-line markup here --></label> </li> <li> <input type="radio" id="x"> <label for="x"><!-- Insert multi-line markup here --></label> </li> </ol> </fieldset> How do I style radio button labels so that they look like the following in most browsers (IE6+, FF, Safari, Chrome:

    Read the article

  • How to run javascript code in any part of the html file?

    - by DomingoSL
    Hello, im using a jquerry notification system who runs when the user click on a link: <a href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="$.n('This is a sample notification message, there are 3 more notification types which is all customizable through CSS.');">here</a> But the think is that i want to run $.n('This is a sample notification') not by pressing a link. I want to call the event when something happend with a If statement made on php. Ex. <?php if (condition) { DO THE NOTIFICATION; } ?> Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to include javascript generated text into html link?

    - by Finne
    I have a javascript that displays a generated text into a div: document.getElementById('phrase').innerHTML = phrase; PHRASE_TEXT_GETS_SHOWN_HERE Basically I'm trying to set up a link that will take the text and post it to twitter with a link: Clicky for tweety How can I include the generated text in the link?

    Read the article

  • PHP - what is the proper way to do inline HTML variable output?

    - by edmicman
    I just moved from an Ubuntu PHP workstation dev environment back to Windows and am using xampp. I have a bit of code, like so: <input type="text" name="txtEmail" value="<?=$emailaddress;?>"/> that I swear worked to display the variable in the textbox when I was developing before. But when I loaded the page on Windows/xampp it just put that text between the quotes in the textbox. Instead, I ended up changing it to something like: <input type="text" name="txtFirstName" value="<?php echo($firstname);?>" /> The latter makes sense, but I guess I thought there was a shorthand or something, and I must be going crazy because I'm sure the first way was working on a difference environment. So what's the best way to do this?

    Read the article

  • What's the difference between the input type "text" and "password" in an html form?

    - by Domingo
    Hi everybody, this question might seem stupid, but here's the situation: I'm trying to create an auto login page for my mail using jquery's post request, but it's not working, it works with all other pages except with webmail. So, trying to figure out what was wrong, I recreated the login form, here's the code: <form id="form1" name="form1" method="post" action="https://login.hostmonster.com/"> <label>User <input type="text" name="login" id="user" /> </label> <label>Pass <input name="password" type="password" id="pass" /> </label> <input name="doLogin" type="submit" id="doLogin" value="Login"> </form> The strange thing is when you change the input type of pass to text, the form doesn't work! I can't figure out why. Anyway, if you can tell me what's the real difference between the input type text and password (and not what it says everywhere on the net that the only difference is that when you type stars appear instead of characters) I would appreciate it. Also, do you think this is affecting my jquery's post? Here's the code for it: $j.post('https://login.hostmonster.com/', { login: '[email protected]', password: 'xxx' }, function(data, text){ if (text=='success') { alert('Success '+data); } else { alert('Failed'); } }); Thanks a lot! Regards, D

    Read the article

  • Can you have multiple clipping regions in an HTML Canvas?

    - by emh
    I have code that loads a bunch of images into hidden img elements and then a Javascript loop which places each image onto the canvas. However, I want to clip each image so that it is a circle when placed on the canvas. My loop looks like this: $$('#avatars img').each(function(avatar) { var canvas = $('canvas'); var context = canvas.getContext('2d'); var x = Math.floor(Math.random() * canvas.width); var y = Math.floor(Math.random() * canvas.height); context.beginPath(); context.arc(x+24, y+24, 20, 0, Math.PI * 2, 1); context.clip(); context.strokeStyle = "black"; context.drawImage(document.getElementById(avatar.id), x, y); context.stroke(); }); Problem is, only the first image is drawn (or is visible). If I remove the clipping logic: $$('#avatars img').each(function(avatar) { var canvas = $('canvas'); var context = canvas.getContext('2d'); var x = Math.floor(Math.random() * canvas.width); var y = Math.floor(Math.random() * canvas.height); context.drawImage(document.getElementById(avatar.id), x, y); }); Then all my images are drawn. Is there a way to get each image individually clipped? I tried resetting the clipping area to be the entire canvas between images but that didn't work.

    Read the article

  • Using OUTPUT/INTO within instead of insert trigger invalidates 'inserted' table

    - by Dan
    I have a problem using a table with an instead of insert trigger. The table I created contains an identity column. I need to use an instead of insert trigger on this table. I also need to see the value of the newly inserted identity from within my trigger which requires the use of OUTPUT/INTO within the trigger. The problem is then that clients that perform INSERTs cannot see the inserted values. For example, I create a simple table: CREATE TABLE [MyTable]( [MyID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [MyBit] [bit] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MyTable_MyID] PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED ( [MyID] ASC )) Next I create a simple instead of trigger: create trigger [trMyTableInsert] on [MyTable] instead of insert as BEGIN DECLARE @InsertedRows table( MyID int, MyBit bit); INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([MyBit]) OUTPUT inserted.MyID, inserted.MyBit INTO @InsertedRows SELECT inserted.MyBit FROM inserted; -- LOGIC NOT SHOWN HERE THAT USES @InsertedRows END; Lastly, I attempt to perform an insert and retrieve the inserted values: DECLARE @tbl TABLE (myID INT) insert into MyTable (MyBit) OUTPUT inserted.MyID INTO @tbl VALUES (1) SELECT * from @tbl The issue is all I ever get back is zero. I can see the row was correctly inserted into the table. I also know that if I remove the OUTPUT/INTO from within the trigger this problem goes away. Any thoughts as to what I'm doing wrong? Or is how I want to do things not feasible? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • SQL statement to split a table based on a join

    - by williamjones
    I have a primary table for Articles that is linked by a join table Info to a table Tags that has only a small number of entries. I want to split the Articles table, by either deleting rows or creating a new table with only the entries I want, based on the absence of a link to a certain tag. There are a few million articles. How can I do this? Not all of the articles have any tag at all, and some have many tags. Example: table Articles primary_key id table Info foreign_key article_id foreign_key tag_id table Tags primary_key id It was easy for me to segregate the articles that do have the match right off the bat, so I thought maybe I could do that and then use a NOT IN statement but that is so slow running it's unclear if it's ever going to finish. I did that with these commands: INSERT INTO matched_articles SELECT * FROM articles a LEFT JOIN info i ON a.id = i.article_id WHERE i.tag_id = 5; INSERT INTO unmatched_articles SELECT * FROM articles a WHERE a.id NOT IN (SELECT m.id FROM matched_articles m); If it makes a difference, I'm on Postgres.

    Read the article

  • Python: Is there a way to get HTML that was dynamically created by Javascript?

    - by Joschua
    As far as I can tell, this is the case for LyricWikia. The lyrics (example) can be accessed from the browser, but can't be found in the source code (can be opened with CTRL + U in most browsers) or reading the contents of the site with Python: from urllib.request import urlopen URL = 'http://lyrics.wikia.com/Billy_Joel:Piano_Man' r = urlopen(URL).read().decode('utf-8') And the test: >>> 'Now John at the bar is a friend of mine' in r False >>> 'John' in r False But when you select and look at the source code of the box in which the lyrics are displayed, you can see that there is: <div class="lyricbox">[...]</div> Is there a way to get the contents of that div-element with Python?

    Read the article

  • Is there anyway to turn off the url "cliking" sound in IE using html, javascript, or flash?

    - by Anthony
    I have a flash application written in action script 2, and at one point it makes multiple back-to-back JavaScript requests using getUrl(). They have to be done as separate requests because IE had a limit on the length of a single request, and fails silently if that limit is passed. When ever this happens, if the user has their sound turned on there is a barrage of "click click click".

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153  | Next Page >