Search Results

Search found 13344 results on 534 pages for 'anonymous inner classes'.

Page 149/534 | < Previous Page | 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156  | Next Page >

  • Interpret Objective C scripts at runtime on iPhone?

    - by Brad Parks
    Is there anyway to load an objective c script at runtime, and run it against the classes/methods/objects/functions in the current iPhone app? The reason i ask is that I've been playing around with iPhone wax, a lua interpreter that can be embedded in an iPhone app, and it works very nicely, in the sense that any object/method/function that's publically available in your Objective C code is automatically bridged, and available in lua. This allows you to rapidly prototype applications by simply making the core of your app be lua files that are in the users documents directory. Just reload the app, and you can test out changes to your lua files without needing to rebuild the app in XCode - a big time saver! But, with Apples recent 3.1.3 SDK stuff, it got me thinking that the safest approach for doing this type of rapid prototypeing would be if you could use Objective C as the interpreted code... That way, worst case scenario, you could just compile it into your app before your release, instead. I have heard that the lua source can be compiled to byte code, and linked in at build time, but I think the ultimate safe thing would be if the scripted source was in objective c, not lua. This leads me to wondering (i've searched, but come up with nothing) if there are any examples on how to embed an Objective C Interpreter in an iPhone app? This would allow you to rapidly prototype your app against the current classes that are built into your binary, and, when your about to deploy your app, instead of running the classes through the in app interpreter, you compile them in instead.

    Read the article

  • Oracle & Active Directory : A love/hate relationship

    - by Frank
    Hi SO'ers, I'm currently trying to access Active Directory via the dbms_ldap API in Pl/Sql (Oracle). The trouble is that I'm not able to connect with my own username and password or anynoymously. However, in C# I can connect anonymously with this code : DirectoryEntry ldap = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://Hostname"); DirectorySearcher searcher = new DirectorySearcher(ldap); searcher.Filter = "(SAMAccountName=username)"; SearchResult result = searcher.FindOne(); If I try to connect anonymously in Oracle, I only get the error(ORA-31202 : LDAP client/server error) when I try to search (and the result code for the bind is SUCCESS)... my_session := dbms_ldap.init('HOST','389'); retval := dbms_ldap.simple_bind_s(my_session, '', ''); retval := dbms_ldap.search_s(my_session, ldap_base, dbms_ldap.scope_subtree, 'objectclass=*', my_attrs, 0, my_message); Why is the anonymous connection is C# works but doesn't work in Pl/Sql? Do you have any other idea to connect to Active Directory via Oracle? Help me reunite them together. Thanks. Edit When I bind with anonymous credentials I get : ORA-31202: DBMS_LDAP: LDAP client/server error 00000000: LdapErr: DSID-0C090627, comment: In order to perform this operation a successful bind must be completed on the connection And if I try to connect with my credentials, which are supposed to be valid since I'm connected to the domain with it... I get : ORA-31202: DBMS_LDAP: LDAP client/server error Invalid credentials 80090308: LdapErr: DSID-0C090334, comment: AcceptSecurityContext error

    Read the article

  • How to disable authentication schemes for WCF Data Services

    - by Schneider
    When I deployed my WCF Data Services to production hosting I started to get the following error (or similar depending on which auth schemes are active): IIS specified authentication schemes 'Basic, Anonymous', but the binding only supports specification of exactly one authentication scheme. Valid authentication schemes are Digest, Negotiate, NTLM, Basic, or Anonymous. Change the IIS settings so that only a single authentication scheme is used. Apparently WCF Data Services (WCF in general?) cannot handle having more than once authentication scheme active. OK so I am aware that I can disable all-but-one authentication scheme on the web application via IIS control panel .... via a support request!! Is there a way to specify a single authentication scheme on a per-service level in the web.config? I thought this might be as straight forward as making a change to <system.serviceModel> but... it turns out that WCF Data Services do not configure themselves in the web config. If you look at the DataService<> class it does not implement a [ServiceContract] hence you cannot refer to it in the <service><endpoint>...which I presume would be needed for changing its configuration via XML. P.S. Our host is using II6, but both solutions for IIS6 & IIS7 appreciated.

    Read the article

  • phpexcel write excel and save ?

    - by boss
    code: <?php /** PHPExcel */ require_once '../Classes/PHPExcel.php'; /** PHPExcel_IOFactory */ require_once '../Classes/PHPExcel/IOFactory.php'; // Create new PHPExcel object $objPHPExcel = new PHPExcel(); // Set properties $objPHPExcel->getProperties()->setCreator("Maarten Balliauw") ->setLastModifiedBy("Maarten Balliauw") ->setTitle("Office 2007 XLSX Test Document") ->setSubject("Office 2007 XLSX Test Document") ->setDescription("Test document for Office 2007 XLSX, generated using PHP classes.") ->setKeywords("office 2007 openxml php") ->setCategory("Test result file"); $result = 'select * from table1'; for($i=0;$i<count($result);$i++){ $result1 = 'select * from table2 where table1_id = ' . $result[$i]['table1_id']; for ($j=0;$j<count($result1);$j++) { $objPHPExcel->setActiveSheetIndex(0)->setCellValue('A' . $j, $result1[$j]['name']); } // Set active sheet index to the first sheet, so Excel opens this as the first sheet $objPHPExcel->setActiveSheetIndex(0); // Save Excel 2007 file $objWriter = PHPExcel_IOFactory::createWriter($objPHPExcel, 'Excel2007'); $objWriter->save(str_replace('.php', '.xlsx', __FILE__)); // Echo done echo date('H:i:s') . " Done writing file.\r\n"; } ?> The above code executes and save n no of .xlsx files in the folder, but the problem im getting is biggest count(result1) in the for loop executing in all saved excel files. Please give me the solution.

    Read the article

  • How do I achieve a 'select or insert' task using LINQ to EF?

    - by ProfK
    I have an import process with regions, locations, and shifts, where a Shift object has a Location property, and a Location object has a Region property. If a region name does not exist, I create the region, and like wise a location. I thought I could neatly encapsulate the 'Select if exists, or create' logic into helper classes for Region and Location, but if I use local data contexts in these classes I run into attach and detach overheads that become unpleasent. If I include a data context dependency in these classes, my encapsulation feels broken. What is the ideal method for achieving this, or where is the ideal place to place this functionality? In my example I have leaned heavily on the foreign key crutch provided with .NET 4.0, and simply avoided using entities in favour of direct foreign key values, but this is starting to smell. Example: public partial class ActivationLocation { public static int GetOrCreate(int regionId, string name) { using (var ents = new PvmmsEntities()) { var loc = ents.ActivationLocations.FirstOrDefault(x => x.RegionId == regionId && x.Name == name); if (loc == null) { loc = new ActivationLocation {RegionId = regionId, Name = name}; ents.AddToActivationLocations(loc); ents.SaveChanges(SaveOptions.AcceptAllChangesAfterSave); } return loc.LocationId; } } }

    Read the article

  • Javascript/Greasemonkey: search for something then set result as a value

    - by thewinchester
    Ok, I'm a bit of a n00b when it comes to JS (I'm not the greatest programmer) so please be gentle - specially if my questions been asked already somewhere and I'm too stupid to find the right answer. Self deprecation out of the way, let's get to the question. Problem There is a site me and a large group of friends frequently use which doesn't display all the information we may like to know - in this case an airline bookings site and the class of travel. While the information is buried in the code of the page, it isn't displayed anywhere to the user. Using a Greasemonkey script, I'd like to liberate this piece of information and display it in a suitable format. Here's the psuedocode of what I'm looking to do. Search dom for specified element define variables Find a string of text If found Set result to a variable Write contents to page at a specific location (before a specified div) If not found Do nothing I think I've achieved most of it so far, except for the key bits of: Searching for the string: The page needs to search for the following piece of text in the page HEAD: mileageRequest += "&CLASSES=S,S-S,S-S"; The Content I need to extract and store is between the second equals (=) sign and the last comma ("). The contents of this area can be any letter between A-Z. I'm not fussed about splitting it up into an array so I could use the elements individually at this stage. Writing the result to a location: Taking that found piece of text and writing it to another location. Code so far This is what I've come up so far, with bits missing highlighted. buttons = document.getElementById('buttons'); ''Search goes here var flightClasses = document.createElement("div"); flightClasses.innerHTML = '<div id="flightClasses"> ' + '<h2>Travel classes</h2>' + 'For the above segments, your flight classes are as follows:' + 'write result here' + '</div>'; main.parentNode.insertBefore(flightClasses, buttons); If anyone could help me, or point me in the right direction to finish this off I'd appreciate it.

    Read the article

  • WCF Manual SOAP POST using HttpWebRequest over https with Usertoken

    - by VonBlender
    Hi, I'm writing a client that calls a number of WCF webservices (written externallyt to my company) that are very similar in structure. The design I was hoping to use is to manually build the SOAP message from XML chunks that are stored in a database and then processed through a generic web service handler class. I have access to the WSDL's for each webservice and example working XML. The design approach is such that we can easily add to the message dynamically, hence the reason for not using the auto generated proxy classes I am basically at the last part now with the entire SOAP message constructed but am getting a SOAP fault security error returned. I have used fiddler to compare the message I'm sending with one that is sent using the normal (far simpler...) WCF generated proxy classes and can't see any difference apart from the id attribute of the Usertoken element in the SOAP header. This is where my lack of experience in this area isn't helping. I think this is because the id is generated automatically (presumably because we're using https). My question is how do I generate this programatically? I have searched for hours online but the majority of solutions are either using the proxy classes or not over https. I have briefly looked at WCE but aware this is replaced by WCF now so don't want to waste time looking into this if it's not the solution. Any help with this would be greatly appreciated. I can post some code examples when I'm back in work if it will help but the method I'm using is very straightforward and only using XElements and such like at the moment (as we're using linq to sql). thanks, Andy

    Read the article

  • Problem using Flash Components in multiple SWC files

    - by Ken Dunnington
    [Edit: Short version - how do you properly handle namespace collisions in SWC files if one SWC has fewer classes from that namespace than another?] I have a rather large Flash application which I'm building in Flash Builder (because coding/debugging in the Flash IDE is... not good) and I've got a ton of external SWC files which I'm linking in to my application. This has worked well so far - the file size is on the large side, but it's a lot simpler than loading in SWFs, especially since I am extending most of the classes in each SWC and adding custom code that way (it's a very design-heavy app.) The problem I'm having is when I have Flash Components, like ComboBox or TextInput, in more than one SWC. Whichever SWC was compiled last will work fine, but the others will fail with errors like the following: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert flash.display::MovieClip@1f21adc1 to fl.controls.TextInput. at flash.display::Sprite/constructChildren() at flash.display::Sprite() at flash.display::MovieClip() at com.company.design.login::LoginForm() at com.company.view::Login()[/Users/ken/Workspace/src/com/company/view/Login.as:22] at com.company.view::Main/showLogin()[/Users/ken/Workspace/src/com/company/view/Main.as:209] at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEventFunction() at flash.events::EventDispatcher/dispatchEvent() at com.company.view::Navigation/handleUIClick()[/Users/ken/Workspace/src/com/company/view/Navigation.as:88] I've been researching components, ComponentShim, etc. but I'm running up against a brick wall. I thought it might be the fact that some of the components had their skins modified in the source FLA, so I tried replacing them with the default skins, but that didn't seem to help. How can I ensure that I have the components imported and available to all my classes, yet still be able to skin them and include them in my various FLAs? (I am never creating new instances of them, they are all laid out by my designer.)

    Read the article

  • How to use walker to replace core function

    - by bellesebastien
    I want to modify the way pages are listed in the navigation, particularly the function el_start from wp-includes/classes.php. I've first modified the classes.php directly and it worked fine butnow I want to revert classes.php and move the modification out of wordpress' internal files. I wrote a walker class that I want to use but I don't know how to use it. I want to replace the current call wp_list_pages() to this: $walker_pages = new Walker_Page_CustomTitle; wp_list_pages(array('walker' => $walker_pages, 'title_li' => '', 'depth' => '1')); I've tried using a filter like so: function wp_list_pages_custom() { $walker_pages = new Walker_Page_CustomTitle; wp_list_pages(array('walker' => $walker_pages, 'title_li' => '', 'depth' => '1')); } add_filter('widget_area_primary_aside', 'wp_list_pages_custom'); But with this filter, the site won't load anymore. The tutorial here says I should put this code in header.php but that just puts my page links in the tag. I hope I'm making sense. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC: what mechanic returns ViewModel objects?

    - by Dr. Zim
    As I understand it, Domain Models are classes that only describe the data (aggregate roots). They are POCOs and do not reference outside libraries (nothing special). View models on the other hand are classes that contain domain model objects as well as all the interface specific objects like SelectList. A ViewModel includes using System.Web.Mvc;. A repository pulls data out of a database and feeds them to us through domain model objects. What mechanic or device creates the view model objects, populating them from a database? Would it be a factory that has database access? Would you bleed the view specific classes like System.Web.Mvc in to the Repository? Something else? For example, if you have a drop down list of cities, you would reference a SelectList object in the root of your View Model object, right next to your DomainModel reference: public class CustomerForm { public CustomerAddress address {get;set;} public SelectList cities {get;set;} } The cities should come from a database and be in the form of a select list object. The hope is that you don't create a special Repository method to extract out just the distinct cities, then create a redundant second SelectList object only so you have the right data types.

    Read the article

  • why does Integrated Windows Authentication fail when clients access off the network

    - by Bryan
    My background is not with web applications so this problem is hard for me to explain easily. First I'll try to describe the setup. Client setup:-Only browser that is effected is IE 6-8 (Firefox, chrome, opera, and safari all work fine) -A user will try to access our web application from a company laptop that is not connected to our network. -This machine will be a member of our workgroup and have the company DNS listed as a trusted intranet site. (to which the application in question would be a member) -The security logon mode is set to Automatic Logon only in intranet zone only, and IWA authentication is enabled on the clients browser.Server setup:-Windows server 2003 fp2-The application will first redirect to an Authorization asp page which has anonymous access disabled and IWA enabled in IIS.what should happen is that, since the client is not currently on the network, when this page is called it should prompt the user for network credentials. But with IE, instead of prompting, the user gets a page cannot be displayed error because the IIS manager is denying access to the asp page. If the company DNS is removed from the trusted intranet site list then it prompts correctly but disables single sign on the next time that computer is connected to the network or vpn. My assumption is that since IE uses IWA and the site is listed as an internal site, when no network is found IE just sends nulls to the server attempting to authenticate which is swiftly punted back. Other browsers do not have security zones so when network credentials are not present the server prompts for them. Is there a way to get around this so that our clients can keep the company DNS in the intranet zone but still have the server prompt for credentials when not on the network? Any attempt to allow for anonymous access on the asp page, as far as I know, will cause AUTH_USER to return null and again break SSO. I realize this is slightly rambling so I will do my best to clarify and questions you guys might have. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • One Model to Rule Them All - VS2010 UML, ADO.NET Entity Data Model, and T4

    - by Eric J.
    I worked on a fairly large project a while back where we modeled the classes in Enterprise Architect and generated the (partial) POCO classes (complete with model-driven business rule validations), persistence (NHibernate mapping file) and DDL. Based on certain model attributes we could flag alternate generation strategies or indicate that a particular portion would be entirely hand-coded. There was a good deal of initial investment, but it paid large dividends over the lifetime of a 15 developer, 3 year project. I'm investigating doing something similar with the current Microsoft technology stack. The place I'm stuck is that class modeling is done with the VS 2010 UML tools, but logical data modeling is done with Entity Data Modeler. Is it a reasonable path to use VS 2010 UML as the "single source of truth" and code generate the edmx files based on the class model? That's the inverse of the common path to create the entity model and use a POCO generator to generate classes. However, a good class model can be used to generate much more than just the properties so I tend to view it as a better choice than the entity model.

    Read the article

  • RIA Services: Inserting multiple presentation-model objects

    - by nlawalker
    I'm sharing data via RIA services using a presentation model on top of LINQ to SQL classes. On the Silverlight client, I created a couple of new entities (album and artist), associated them with each other (by either adding the album to the artist's album collection, or setting the Artist property on the album - either one works), added them to the context, and submitted changes. On the server, I get two separate Insert calls - one for the album and one for the artist. These entitites are new so their ID values are both set to the default int value (0 - keep in mind that depending on my DB, this could be a valid ID in the DB) because as far as I know you don't set IDs for new entities on the client. This all would work fine if I was transferring the LINQ to SQL classes via my RIA services, because even though the Album insert includes the Artist and the Artist insert includes the Album, both are Entities and the L2S context recognizes them. However, with my custom presentation model objects, I need to convert them back to the LINQ to SQL classes maintaining the associations in the process so they can be added to the L2S context. Put simply, as far as I can tell, this is impossible. Each entity gets its own Insert call, but there's no way you can just insert the one entity because without IDs the associations are lost. If the database used GUID identifiers it would be a different story because I could set those on the client. Is this possible, or should I be pursuing another design?

    Read the article

  • IIS error hosting WCF Data Service on shared web host

    - by jkohlhepp
    My client has a website hosted on a shared web server. I don't have access to IIS. I am trying to deploy a WCF Data Service onto his site. I am getting this error: IIS specified authentication schemes 'IntegratedWindowsAuthentication, Anonymous', but the binding only supports specification of exactly one authentication scheme. Valid authentication schemes are Digest, Negotiate, NTLM, Basic, or Anonymous. Change the IIS settings so that only a single authentication scheme is used. I have searched SO and other sites quite a bit but can't seem to find someone with my exact situation. I cannot change the IIS settings because this is a third party's server and it is a shared web server. So my only option is to change things in code or in the service config. My service config looks like this: <system.serviceModel xdt:Transform="Insert"> <serviceHostingEnvironment> <baseAddressPrefixFilters> <add prefix="http://www.somewebsite.com"/> </baseAddressPrefixFilters> </serviceHostingEnvironment> <bindings> <webHttpBinding> <binding name="{Binding Name}" > <security mode="None" /> </binding> </webHttpBinding> </bindings> <services> <service name="{Namespace to Service}"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="{Binding Name}" contract="System.Data.Services.IRequestHandler"> </endpoint> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> As you can see I tried to set the security mode to "None" but that didn't seem to help. What should I change to resolve this error?

    Read the article

  • Different users get the same value in .ASPXANONYMOUS

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    My site allows anonymous users. I saw that under heavy load user get sometimes profile values from other users. This happens for anonymous users. I logged the access to profile data: /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <param name="controller"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string ProfileID(this Controller controller ) { if (ApplicationConfiguration.LogProfileAccess) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); (from header in controller.Request.Headers.ToPairs() select string.Concat(header.Key, ":", header.Value, ";")).ToList().ForEach(x => sb.Append(x)); string log = string.Format("ip:{0} url:{1} IsAuthenticated:{2} Name:{3} AnonId:{4} header:{5}", controller.Request.UserHostAddress, controller.Request.Url.ToString(), controller.Request.IsAuthenticated, controller.User.Identity.Name, controller.Request.AnonymousID, sb); _log.Debug(log); } return controller.Request.IsAuthenticated ? controller.User.Identity.Name : controller.Request.AnonymousID; } I can see in the log that user realy get the same cookievalue for .ASPXANONYMOUS even if they have different IP. Just to be safe I removed dependency injection for the FormsAuthentication. I dont use OutputCaching. My web.config has this setting for authentication: <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/de/Account/Login" /> </authentication> Does anybody have an idea what else I could log or what I should have a look at?

    Read the article

  • XML Schema and element with type string

    - by svick
    I'm trying to create an XML Schema and I'm stuck. It seems I can't define an element with string content. What am I doing wrong? Schema: <?xml version="1.0"?> <xs:schema xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="http://ponderka.wz.cz/MusicLibrary0" targetNamespace="http://ponderka.wz.cz/MusicLibrary0"> <xs:element name="music-library"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="artist" type="xs:string"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:schema> Document: <?xml version="1.0"?> <music-library xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://ponderka.wz.cz/MusicLibrary0 data0.xsd" xmlns="http://ponderka.wz.cz/MusicLibrary0"> <artist>a</artist> </music-library> The validator says: Element <artist> is not allowed under element <music-library>. Reason: The following elements are expected at this location (see below) <artist> Error location: music-library / artist Details cvc-model-group: Element <artist> unexpected by type '{anonymous}' of element <music-library>. cvc-elt.5.2.1: The element <music-library> is not valid with respect to the actual type definition '{anonymous}'.

    Read the article

  • Getting values from DataGridView back to XDocument (using LINQ-to-XML)

    - by Pretzel
    Learning LINQ has been a lot of fun so far, but despite reading a couple books and a bunch of online resources on the topic, I still feel like a total n00b. Recently, I just learned that if my query returns an Anonymous type, the DataGridView I'm populating will be ReadOnly (because, apparently Anonymous types are ReadOnly.) Right now, I'm trying to figure out the easiest way to: Get a subset of data from an XML file into a DataGridView, Allow the user to edit said data, Stick the changed data back into the XML file. So far I have Steps 1 and 2 figured out: public class Container { public string Id { get; set; } public string Barcode { get; set; } public float Quantity { get; set; } } // For use with the Distinct() operator public class ContainerComparer : IEqualityComparer<Container> { public bool Equals(Container x, Container y) { return x.Id == y.Id; } public int GetHashCode(Container obj) { return obj.Id.GetHashCode(); } } var barcodes = (from src in xmldoc.Descendants("Container") where src.Descendants().Count() > 0 select new Container { Id = (string)src.Element("Id"), Barcode = (string)src.Element("Barcode"), Quantity = float.Parse((string)src.Element("Quantity").Attribute("value")) }).Distinct(new ContainerComparer()); dataGridView1.DataSource = barcodes.ToList(); This works great at getting the data I want from the XML into the DataGridView so that the user has a way to manipulate the values. Upon doing a Step-thru trace of my code, I'm finding that the changes to the values made in DataGridView are not bound to the XDocument object and as such, do not propagate back. How do we take care of Step 3? (getting the data back to the XML) Is it possible to Bind the XML directly to the DataGridView? Or do I have to write another LINQ statement to get the data from the DGV back to the XDocument? Suggstions?

    Read the article

  • Loop through XML::Simple structure

    - by David
    So I have some xml file like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <root result="0" > <settings user="anonymous" > <s n="blabla1" > <v>true</v> </s> <s n="blabla2" > <v>false</v> </s> <s n="blabla3" > <v>true</v> </s> </settings> </root> I want to go through all the settings using the XML Simple. Here's what I have when I print the output with Data::Dumper: $VAR1 = { 'settings' => { 'user' => 'anonymous', 's' => [ { 'n' => 'blabla1', 'v' => 'true' }, { 'n' => 'blabla2', 'v' => 'false' }, { 'n' => 'blabla3', 'v' => 'true' } ] }, 'result' => '0' }; And here's my code $xml = new XML::Simple; $data = $xml->XMLin($file); foreach $s (keys %{ $data->{'settings'}->{'s'} }) { print "TEST: $s $data->{'settings'}->{'s'}->[$s]->{'n'} $data->{'settings'}->{'s'}->[$s]->{'v'}<br>\n"; } And it returns these 2 lines, without looping: TEST: n blabla1 true TEST: v blabla1 true I also tried to do something like this: foreach $s (keys %{ $data->{'settings'}->{'s'} }) { Without any success: Type of arg 1 to keys must be hash (not array dereference) How can I procede? What am I doing wrong? Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • Should I store generated code in source control

    - by Ron Harlev
    This is a debate I'm taking a part in. I would like to get more opinions and points of view. We have some classes that are generated in build time to handle DB operations (in This specific case, with SubSonic, but I don't think it is very important for the question). The generation is set as a pre-build step in Visual Studio. So every time a developer (or the official build process) runs a build, these classes are generated, and then compiled into the project. Now some people are claiming, that having these classes saved in source control could cause confusion, in case the code you get, doesn't match what would have been generated in your own environment. I would like to have a way to trace back the history of the code, even if it is usually treated as a black box. Any arguments or counter arguments? UPDATE: I asked this question since I really believed there is one definitive answer. Looking at all the responses, I could say with high level of certainty, that there is no such answer. The decision should be made based on more than one parameter. Reading the answers below could provide a very good guideline to the types of questions you should be asking yourself when having to decide on this issue. I won't select an accepted answer at this point for the reasons mentioned above.

    Read the article

  • Am I under risk of CSRF attacks in a POST form that doesn't require the user to be logged in?

    - by Monika Sulik
    I'm probably being a total noob here, but I'm still uncertain about what a CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) attack is exactly. So lets look at three situations... 1) I have a POST form that I use to edit data on my site. I want this data to be edited only by users that are logged in. 2) I have a site, which can be used by both users who are logged in as well as guests. Parts of the site are for logged in users only, but there are also POST forms that can be used by all users - anonymous and not (for example a standard contact form). Should the contact form be safeguarded against CSRF attacks? 3) I have a site which doesn't have an authentication system at all (well, perhaps that's unrealistic, so lets say it has an admin site which is separate from the rest of it and the admin part is properly safeguarded). The main part of the site is only used by anonymous users. Do the POST forms on it need to be safeguarded? In the case of 1) the answer is clearly yes. But in the case of 2 and 3 I don't know (and is the difference between 2 and 3 even significant?).

    Read the article

  • CSS semantics; selecting elements directly or via order

    - by Joshua Cody
    Perhaps this question has been asked elsewhere, but I'm unable to find it. With HTML5 and CSS3 modules inching closer, I'm getting interested in a discussion about the way we write CSS. Something like this where selection is done via element order and type is particularly fascinating. The big advantage to this method seems to be complete modularization of HTML and CSS to make tweaks and redesigns simpler. At the same time, semantic IDs and classes seem advantageous for sundry reasons. Particularly, direct linking, JS targeting, and shorter CSS selectors. Also, it seems selector length might be an issue. For instance, I just wrote the following, which would be admittedly easier using some semantic HTML5 elements: body>div:nth-child(2)>div:nth-child(2)>ul:nth-child(2)>li:last-child So what say you, Stack Overflow? Is the future of CSS writing focused on element order and type? Or are IDs and classes and the current ways here to stay? (I'm well aware the IDs and classes have their place, although I am interested to hear more ways you think they'll continue to be necessary. The discussion I'm interested in is bigger-picture and the ways writing CSS is changing.)

    Read the article

  • Databinding question: DataGridView <=> XDocument (using LINQ-to-XML)

    - by Pretzel
    Learning LINQ has been a lot of fun so far, but despite reading a couple books and a bunch of online resources on the topic, I still feel like a total n00b. Recently, I just learned that if my query returns an Anonymous type, the DataGridView I'm populating will be ReadOnly (because, apparently Anonymous types are ReadOnly.) Right now, I'm trying to figure out the easiest way to: Get a subset of data from an XML file into a DataGridView, Allow the user to edit said data, Stick the changed data back into the XML file. So far I have Steps 1 and 2 figured out: public class Container { public string Id { get; set; } public string Barcode { get; set; } public float Quantity { get; set; } } // For use with the Distinct() operator public class ContainerComparer : IEqualityComparer<Container> { public bool Equals(Container x, Container y) { return x.Id == y.Id; } public int GetHashCode(Container obj) { return obj.Id.GetHashCode(); } } var barcodes = (from src in xmldoc.Descendants("Container") where src.Descendants().Count() > 0 select new Container { Id = (string)src.Element("Id"), Barcode = (string)src.Element("Barcode"), Quantity = float.Parse((string)src.Element("Quantity").Attribute("value")) }).Distinct(new ContainerComparer()); dataGridView1.DataSource = barcodes.ToList(); This works great at getting the data I want from the XML into the DataGridView so that the user has a way to manipulate the values. Upon doing a Step-thru trace of my code, I'm finding that the changes to the values made in DataGridView are not bound to the XDocument object and as such, do not propagate back. How do we take care of Step 3? (getting the data back to the XML) Is it possible to Bind the XML directly to the DataGridView? Or do I have to write another LINQ statement to get the data from the DGV back to the XDocument? Suggstions?

    Read the article

  • Can I copy/clone a function in JavaScript?

    - by Craig Stuntz
    I'm using jQuery with the validators plugin. I would like to replace the "required" validator with one of my own. This is easy: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { return myRequired(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); So far, so good. This works just fine. But what I really want to do is call my function in some cases, and the default validator for the rest. Unfortunately, this turns out to be recursive: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { // handle comboboxes with empty guids if (someTest(element)) { return myRequired(value, element, param); } return jQuery.validator.methods.required(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); I looked at the source code for the validators, and the default implementation of "required" is defined as an anonymous method at jQuery.validator.messages.required. So there is no other (non-anonymous) reference to the function that I can use. Storing a reference to the function externally before calling addMethod and calling the default validator via that reference makes no difference. What I really need to do is to be able to copy the default required validator function by value instead of by reference. But after quite a bit of searching, I can't figure out how to do that. Is it possible? If it's impossible, then I can copy the source for the original function. But that creates a maintenance problem, and I would rather not do that unless there is no "better way."

    Read the article

  • Serialization Performance and Google Android

    - by Jomanscool2
    I'm looking for advice to speed up serialization performance, specifically when using the Google Android. For a project I am working on, I am trying to relay a couple hundred objects from a server to the Android app, and am going through various stages to get the performance I need. First I tried a terrible XML parser that I hacked together using Scanner specifically for this project, and that caused unbelievably slow performance when loading the objects (~5 minutes for a 300KB file). I then moved away from that and made my classes implement Serializable and wrote the ArrayList of objects I had to a file. Reading that file into the objects the Android, with the file already downloaded mind you, was taking ~15-30 seconds for the ~100KB serialized file. I still find this completely unacceptable for an Android app, as my app requires loading the data when starting the application. I have read briefly about Externalizable and how it can increase performance, but I am not sure as to how one implements it with nested classes. Right now, I am trying to store an ArrayList of the following class, with the nested classes below it. public class MealMenu implements Serializable{ private String commonsName; private long startMillis, endMillis, modMillis; private ArrayList<Venue> venues; private String mealName; } And the Venue class: public class Venue implements Serializable{ private String name; private ArrayList<FoodItem> foodItems; } And the FoodItem class: public class FoodItem implements Serializable{ private String name; private boolean vegan; private boolean vegetarian; } IF Externalizable is the way to go to increase performance, is there any information as to how java calls the methods in the objects when you try to write it out? I am not sure if I need to implement it in the parent class, nor how I would go about serializing the nested objects within each object.

    Read the article

  • How to use jaxp 3 with jdk 1.6?

    - by Michal
    I'm trying to migrate application from jdk 1.5 to jdk 1.6 without introducing any changes visible to the end user. Application's output is an xml generated using jaxp which is a part of the jdk libraries. Since jaxp versions are different in jdk 1.5 and 1.6, the resulting xml looks different in each version. An example: DatatypeFatory.newInstance().newDuration(60) produces 'PT2H17M0.000S' in jdk 1.5 and 'P0Y0M0DT2H17M0.000S' in jdk 1.6. Both are correct, but i want to avoid any visible changes. Classes like DatatypeFactory have a mechanism which allows specifying which implementation should be used, but it relies on specifying full qualified class name. So theoretically i could download jaxp jars with the same version which is used in jdk 1.5 and let the application use them. Unfortunately the package and class names are the same in both versions, so i would have to somehow tell java to load classes from jar and not jdk. I was trying to put jaxp jars at the beginning of the classpath, but it didn't help. Is it possible to tell java to load classes from external jar and not jdk libraries? Can i solve this problem in any other way? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156  | Next Page >